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Pharmacology II > Antihypertensives B > Flashcards

Antihypertensives B Flashcards

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1
Q

What are eight antihypertensive agents?

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Central-acting Sympatholytics
  3. Peripheral-acting Sympatholytics
  4. Beta blockers
  5. ACE inhibitors
  6. Angiotensin II antagonists (ARBs)
  7. Calcium-channel blockers (CCBs)
  8. Direct vasoldilators
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2
Q

True or False:

Most diuretics are fairly inexpensive.

A

True

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3
Q

True or False:

Diuretics have a lower side effect profile than other antihypertensives.

A

False

(They have a higher side effect profile)

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4
Q

True or False:

Diuretics are often used in combination with other antihypertensives.

A

True

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5
Q

True or False:

When using diuretics, the higher the dose, the more it will lower blood pressure.

A

False

(BP lowering effects not necessarily dose related)

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6
Q

Which diuretic is most commonly used for blood pressure?

A

Thiazides

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7
Q

What is the MOA for thiazide diuretics?

A
  • Inhibit Na+ and Chloride reabsorption at distal tubule
  • Promotes Na+ and H2O loss
  • Decreases blood volume
  • Decreases preload
  • Lowers BP
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8
Q

What is the thiazide prototype?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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9
Q

What is the route for Hydrochlorothiazide?

A

PO

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10
Q

What is the usual dose for Hydrochlorothiazide?

A

12.5 - 50 mg qd

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11
Q

What are three common indications for Hydrochlorothiazide?

A
  1. Htn
  2. Peripheral edema
  3. HF
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12
Q

How is Hydrochlorothiazide metabolized?

A

There is no metabolization

(excreted unchanged)

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13
Q

How is Hydrochlorothiazide excreted?

A

Renal

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14
Q

What are the four side / adverse effects of Hydrochlorothiazide?

A
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hyperuricemia
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hyper-pee-emia
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15
Q

What are six precautions for Hydrochlorothiazide?

A
  1. Volume depletion
  2. Electrolyte abnormalities
  3. Severe renal impairment
  4. Arrythmias
  5. History of gait
  6. Diabetes
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16
Q

True or False:

Hydrochlorothiazide is generally safe and well-tolerated.

A

True

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17
Q

What kind of drug is Dofetilide (Tikosyn)?

A

Dysrhythmic

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18
Q

When Hydrochlorothiazide interacts with Dofetilide (Tikosyn), what happens?

A

Prolonged QT / other arrythmias

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19
Q

What are the four central-acting sympatholytics?

A
  1. Guanfacine (Tenex)
  2. Clonidine (Catapres)
  3. Guanabenz (Wytensin)
  4. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
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20
Q

Which central-acting sympatholytic is the drug of choice for Htn in pregnancy?

A

Methyldopa (Aldomet)

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21
Q

What is the route for Guanfacine (Tenex)?

A

PO

(Central-Acting Sympatholytic)

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22
Q

What is the route for Clonidine (Catapres)?

A

PO

(Central-Acting Sympatholytic)

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23
Q

What is the route for Guanabenz (Wytensin)?

A

PO

(Central-Acting Sympatholytic)

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24
Q

What is the route for Methyldopa (Aldomet)?

A

PO

(Central-Acting Sympatholytic)

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25
What is the MOA for central-acting sympatholytics?
* Stimulate alpha-2 receptors in the **brain** (agonist) * Repeated stimulation of receptors shuts down release of NE to * Heart * Kidneys * Peripheral Vascular * Reduces total PVR ⇢ Lowered BP
26
What is the centrally-acting sympatholytic prototype?
Methyldopa (Aldomet)
27
What is the usual dosage for Methyldopa (Aldomet)?
250 - 500 mg bid
28
What are the two indications for Methyldopa (Aldomet)?
* Moderate to severe HTN * Hypertensive states in PG
29
How is Methyldopa (Aldomet) metabolized?
Liver
30
How is Methyldopa (Aldomet) excreted?
Primarily renal (some feces)
31
What are the eight select adverse / side effects of Methyldopa (Aldomet)?
1. Sedation 2. Bradycardia 3. HA 4. GI upset 5. Dry mouth 6. Depression 7. Orthostatic hypotension 8. Rebound hypertension
32
True or False: Rebound hypertension from sudden withdrawal from Methyldopa (Aldomet) may be higher than pre-treated blood pressure
True
33
What are the four significant drug interactions of Methyldopa (Aldomet)?
1. MAOIs (Monoamine oxidase inhibitors) 2. Oral Fe+ * In pregnant ladies, separate doses by 2 hours 3. Caution with levodopa 4. General anesthetics
34
What is Methyldopa (Aldomet) contraindicated to?
Active hepatic disease
35
What are the four peripheral-acting sympatholytics?
1. Doxazosin (Cardura) 2. Prazosin (Minipress) 3. Terazosin (Hytrin) 4. Reserpine (Serpasil)
36
What is the route for Doxazosin (Cardura)?
PO | (Peripheral-Acting Sympatholytic)
37
What is the route for Prazosin (Minipress)?
PO | (Peripheral-Acting Sympatholytics)
38
What is the route for Terazosin (Hytrin)?
PO | (Peripheral-Acting Sympatholytic)
39
What is the route for Reserpine (Serpasil)?
PO | (Peripheral-Acting Sympatholytic)
40
Which peripheral-acting sympatholytic is currently unavailable in the US but will probably be back soon?
Reserpine (Serpasil)
41
What are peripheral-acting sympatholytics also known as?
Alpha-1 Blockers
42
What is a possible side effect for peripheral-acting sympatholytics, especially on the first dose?
Orthostatic hypotension
43
Besides Htn, some peripheral-acting sympatholytics are also used for what?
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
44
What is the MOA for peripheral sympatholytics?
* Block alpha-1 receptors in arterioles and veins * Prevents NE from binding to receptors * Decreases CO and / or PVR * Lowers BP
45
How do alpha-1 blockers treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
* Blocks alpha-1 receptors found in smooth muscle lining of prostate gland bladder neck * Relaxation of smooth muscle in prostate gland and bladder neck * Improved urine flow and decreased BPH symptoms
46
What is the Alpha-1 blocker prototype?
Doxazosin (Cardura)
47
What is the route for Doxazosin (Cardura)?
PO
48
What is the usual dose for Doxazosin (Cardura)?
* **Htn:** * Initially 1 mg qd - may titrate up over several weeks * Max 16 mg/day * **BPH:** * 4-8 mg/d * Max 8 mg/day
49
What are the two indications of Doxazosin (Cardura)?
1. Htn 2. BPH
50
How is Doxazosin (Cardura) metabolized?
Liver
51
How is Doxazosin (Cardura) excreted?
Primarily feces (some part renal)
52
What are the five adverse / side effects of Doxazosin (Cardura)?
1. Syncope 2. Orthostatic hypotension 3. Arrythmias 4. HA 5. Priapism
53
What is / are the contraindication(s) for Doxazosin (Cardura)?
Prostate cancer
54
What is / are the precaution(s) for Doxazosin (Cardura)?
Impaired liver function
55
What are the four significant interactions of Doxazosin (Cardura)?
1. Cimetadine (Tagamet) 2. Verapamil (Calan) 3. Sildenafil (Viagra) 4. Tamsulosin (Flomax)
56
What are the four indications for calcium channel blockers (CCBs)?
1. Htn 2. Angina 3. Dysrhythmias 4. Headache prohlyaxis
57
Calcium channel bloackers have variable effects on what two things?
1. HR 2. AV node conduction
58
What are the eight dihydropyridine CCBs?
1. Nifedipine (Procardia) 2. Amlodipine (Norvasc) 3. Felodipine (Plendil) 4. Isradipine (DynaCirc) 5. Nicardipine (Cardene) 6. Nisoldipine (Sular) 7. Clevidipine (Cleviprex) 8. Nimodipine
59
What are the three dihydropyridine CCBs that have in angina indication?
1. Nifedipine (Procardia) 2. Amlodipine (Norvasc) 3. Nicardipine (Cardene)
60
Which dihydropyridine CCB is not used for Htn but instead is used for subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Nimodipine
61
What is the route for Nifedipine (Procardia)?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
62
What is the route for Amlodipine (Norvasc)?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
63
What is the route for Felodipine (Plendil)?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
64
What is the route for Isradipine (DynaCirc)?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
65
What is the route for Nicardipine (Cardene)?
PO / IV | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
66
What is the route for Nisoldipine (Sular)?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
67
What is the route for Clevidipine (Cleviprex)?
IV | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
68
What is the route for Nimodipine?
PO | (Dihydropyridine CCB)
69
What are the two non-dihyrdropyridine CCBs?
1. Verapamil (Calan) 2. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
70
What are the two non-dihydrophyridine CCBs indicated for? * Verapamil (Calan) * Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Angina
71
What is the route for Verapamil (Calan)?
PO | (Non-Dihydropyridine CCB)
72
What is the route for Dilitiazem (Cardizem)?
PO / IV | (Non-Dihydropyridine CCB)
73
What is the MOA of CCBs?
* Inhibit Ca++ influx into vascular smooth muscle and cardiac myocytes * Dilates peripheral arterioles (vasodilation) * Dilates coronary arteries (increase oxygen supply to heart) * **Decreases cardiac contractility ( - Inotrope)**
74
In addition to * vasodilation * increase oxygen supply to heart * negative inotrope what are two more effects of CCBs' MOA? What is the net effect on BP?
1. Decreases SA node automaticity 2. Decreases AV node conduction Decreases PVR which lowers BP
75
Which drug is the least selective of the CCBs? What does this mean in terms of adverse / side effects?
Verapamil (Calan)
76
Verapamil (Calan) has significant action on what two things?
* Heart * Vessels
77
Which drug is the most potent negative inotropic of the CCBs?
Verapamil (Calan)
78
What is the dihydropirdine prototype?
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
79
What is the usual dose of Amlodipine (Norvasc)?
2.5 - 10 mg / day
80
What are the two indications for Amlodipine (Norvasc)?
1. Htn 2. Angina
81
How is Amlodipine (Norvasc) metabolized?
Liver
82
How is Amlodipine (Norvasc) excreted?
1. Renal 2. Bile 3. Feces
83
What are the three precautions of Amlodipine (Norvasc)?
1. Hepatic impairment 2. Aortic stenosis (vasodilation may cause decrease in CO) 3. CAD / Unstable angina (Norvasc may exacerbate)
84
What are the eight adverse / side effects of Amlodipine (Norvasc)?
1. Vertigo 2. Palpitations 3. Myalgias 4. Headache 5. Dyspepsia 6. Peripheral edema 7. Gynecomastia 8. Flushing
85
Beta blockers may be used for Htn when certain co-morbitidities are present. What are these?
1. SVT 2. Angina 3. Post MI 4. Migraine
86
What kind of drugs may be used cautiously in patients with chronic lung disease and / or diabetes?
**SELECTIVE** beta-1 blockers
87
What are ten indications for beta-blockers as a class?
1. Hypertension (no longer 1st line) 2. Hyperthyroidism 3. Heart failure 4. Angina 5. Post-MI prophylaxis 6. Panic attacks 7. Performance anxiety 8. Migraine prophylaxis 9. Essential tremor 10. Dysrhythmias
88
What are the four effects of Beta-1 receptors?
1. Positive chronotropic 2. Positive inotropic 3. Positive dromotropic 4. Renin release from kidneys
89
What are the three effects of Beta-2 receptors?
1. Smooth muscle relaxation 2. Smooth muscle tremor 3. Glycongenolysis of liver / muscle
90
What are the seven non-selevtive beta blockers?
1. Carvedilol (Coreg) 2. Labetalol (Trandate) 3. Nadolol (Corgard) 4. Propranolol (Inderal) 5. Timolol (generic) 6. Pindolol (generic) 7. Penbutol (Levatol)
91
What are the only beta blockers with indication for migrain prophylaxis?
1. Nadolol (Corgard) 2. Propranolol (Inderal) 3. Timolol (generic)
92
What is the route for Carvedilol (Coreg)?
PO | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
93
What is the route for Labetalol (Trandate)?
PO / IV | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
94
What is the route for Nadolol (Corgad)?
PO | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
95
What is the route for Propranolol (Inderal)?
PO / IV
96
What is the route for Timolol (generic)?
PO | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
97
What is the route for Penbutolol (Levatol)?
PO | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
98
What is the route for Pindolol (generic)?
PO | (Non-selevtive beta blockers)
99
What are the six selective beta-1 blockers?
1. Acebutolol (Sectral) 2. Betaxolol (Kerlone) 3. Bisoprolol (Zebeta) 4. Atenolol (Tenormin) 5. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 6. Nebivolol (Bystolic)
100
What is the route for Acebutolol (Sectral)?
PO | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
101
What is the route for Beaxolol (Kerlone)?
PO | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
102
What is the route for Bisoprolol (Zebeta)?
PO | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
103
What is the route for Atenolol (Tenormin)?
PO | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
104
What is the route for Metoprolol (Lopressor)?
PO / IV | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
105
What is the route for Nebivolol (Bystolic)?
PO | (Selevtive beta-1 blocker)
106
What is the primary MOA for beta blockers?
* Block beta receptors in heart * Inhibits epinephrine from SNS * Decreases cardiac contractility **(negative inotropic)** * Decreases HR **(negative chronotropic)** * Lowered BP
107
Because selective beta-1 blockers have minimal effect on beta-2 receptor sites, what is there less of?
* Less hypoglycemia (from inhibition of glycogenolysis) * Less likely to cause bronchospasm
108
Which drugs are often used as first-line agents for HF and Htn?
ACE Inhibitors
109
ACE inhibitors may be combined with either of these?
1. Diuretic 2. CCB
110
What category of drugs are first choice for patients with both Htn and HF?
ACE Inhibitors
111
Post MI, ACE inhibitors slows the progression of what?
LVH (left ventricular hypertrophy)
112
What is the MOA for ACE Inhibitors? What is the net result?
* Block angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) * Prevents conversion of Angio-1 to Angio-2 * Angiotensin-2 is a POTENT vasoconstrictor * Angio-2 also inhibits degradation of bradykinin (vasodilator) * Bradykinin causes cough and angiodema * Vasodilation AND reduced PVR * Lowered BP + cough and / or angiodema
113
What are the eleven ACE inhibitors?
1. Benazepril (Lotensin) 2. Captopril (Capoten) 3. Enalapril (Vasotec) 4. Enalaprilat 5. Forsinopril (Monopril) 6. Lisinopril (Zestril) 7. Moexipril (Univasc) 8. Perinodpril (Aceon) 9. Quinapril (Accupril) 10. Ramipril (Altace) 11. Trandolapril (Mavik)
114
What is the route for Benazepril (Lotensin)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
115
What is the route for Captopril (Capoten)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
116
What is the route for Enalapril (Vasotec)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
117
What is the route for Enalaprilat?
IV | (ACE Inhibitor)
118
What is the route for Fosinopril (Monopril)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
119
What is the route for Lisinopril (Zestril)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
120
What is the route for Moexipril (Univasc)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
121
What is the route for Perindopril (Aceon)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
122
What is the route for Quinapril (Accupril)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
123
What is the route for Ramipril (Altace)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
124
What is the route for Trandolapril (Mavik)?
PO | (ACE Inhibitor)
125
What is the ACE Inhibitor prototype?
Enalapril (Vasotec)
126
What is the usual dose of Enalapril (Vasotec) for Htn?
2.5 - 40 mg / d May take qd or bid (40/d max)
127
What are the five indications for Enalapril (Vasotec)?
1. Htn 2. HF 3. LV Dysfunction 4. Post MI 5. Nephropathy prevention in DM
128
Where is Enalapril (Vasotec) metabolized?
Liver
129
How is Enalapril (Vasotec) excreted?
Primarily renal (~ 30% renal)
130
What are three significant interactions of Enalapril (Vasotec)?
1. Potassium-sparing diuretics 2. Lithium 3. Azothiaprine (anti-rejection drug)
131
What are the five adverse / side effects of Enalapril (Vasotec)?
1. Hyperkalemia 2. Hypotension 3. Dry cough 4. Fatigue 5. Dizziness
132
What is the precaution for Enalapril (Vasotec)?
May induce ARF (acute renal failure)
133
What is the contraindication for Enalapril (Vasotec)?
Angioedema
134
What is the **BLACK BOX WARNING** for Enalapril (Vasotec)?
Pregnancy
135
What drugs are similar to ACEIs but do not cause cough / angiodema?
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
136
True or False: ARBs prohibit conversion of Angiotensin-1 to Angiotensin-2.
False (They do NOT prohibit the conversion)
137
What does unopposed ACE cause? What does this then cause?
* Degradation of Bradykinin (vasodilator) * Bradykinin causes cough and / or angiodem No bradykinin = **No cough / angiodema**
138
What is the MOA for ARBs? What is the net result?
* Block Angiotensin-2 receptors * Prevent Agnio-2-induced vasoconstriction * Inhibit release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex which promotes H2O and Na+ loss * Reduced fluid volume + vasodilation * Lowered BP without cough / angiodema
139
What are the eight ARBs?
1. Candesartan (Atacand) 2. Eprosartan (Teveten) 3. Irbesartan (Avapro) 4. Losartan (Cozaar) 5. Olmesartan (Benicar) 6. Telmesartan (Micardis) 7. Valsartan (Diovan) 8. Azilsartan (Edarbi)
140
What is the route for Candesartan (Atacand)?
PO | (ARB)
141
What is the route for Eprosartan (Teveten)?
PO | (ARB)
142
What is the route for Irbesartan (Avapro)?
PO | (ARB)
143
What is the route for Losartan (Cozaar)?
PO | (ARB)
144
What is the route for Olmesartan (Benicar)?
PO | (ARB)
145
What is the route for Telmesartan (Micardis)?
PO | (ARB)
146
What is the route for Valsartan (Diovan)?
PO | (ARB)
147
What is the route for Azilsartan (Edarbi)?
PO | (ARB)
148
What is the ARB prototype?
Valsartan (Diovan)
149
What is the usual Htn dose for Valsartan (Diovan)?
80 - 160 mg / d to start Max 320 mg / day
150
What are the indications for Valsartan (Diovan)?
1. Htn 2. HF 3. LV Dysfunction 4. Post MI 5. Nephropathy prevention in DM
151
Where is Valsartan (Diovan) metabolized?
Liver
152
How is Valsartan (Diovan) excreted?
Feces
153
What are the four adverse / side effects of Valsartan (Diovan)?
1. Neutropenia 2. Fatigue 3. Abdominal pain 4. Viral infection
154
What are the significant interactions of Valsartan (Diovan)?
Potassium-sparing diuretics
155
What is the **BLACK BOX WARNING** for Valsartan (Diovan)?
**Pregnancy**
156
Which drug is a selective renin inhibitor? It directly inhibits renin which acts earlier in the RAAS system.
Aliskiren (Tekturna)
157
True or False: Aliskiren (Tekturna) may cause diarrhea.
True
158
True or False: Aliskiren (Tekturna) may cause cough / angiodema - more so than ACEs.
False (It is true that they may cause cough / angiodema but to a lesser extent than ACEs)
159
True or False: Aliskiren (Tekturna) is the only antihypertensive drug you can give to pregnant women.
False | (It is contraindicated in pregnancy)
160
What kind of drugs are reserved for **URGENT** to **EMERGENT** Htn or SEVERE Htn with failure on other therapies?
Direct vasodilators
161
Direct vasodilators are a potential for significant to life-threatening adverse effects due to what?
***Reflex cardiac stimulation***
162
Direct vasodilators are often combined with what kinds of drug to balance cardiac stimulation effects?
Beta blockers
163
What is the MOA for direct vasodilators?
* Directly relax smooth muscle in arterioles and veins * Vasodilation * Reduces PVR * Lowers BP * ***Reflex cardiac stimulation***
164
Vasodilator mechanisms triggers reflex cardiac stimulation (competeing reflexes). What are these three competing reflexes?
1. Increased cardiac contractility 2. Increased HR 3. Increased O2 consumption
165
A patient has a potential for cyanide posioning when taking which drug?
Nitroprusside
166
What are the three direct vasodilators?
1. Hydralazine (Apresoline) 2. Minoxidil (generic) 3. Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
167
Minoxidil is what well known OTC topical formulation? What is it used for?
Rogaine - baldness
168
Which direct vasodilator is reserved for hypertensive emergency only?
Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
169
What constitutes a hypertensive urgency?
* Markedly increased BP * \> 180 systolic / and or 120 diastolic * No **ACUTE** target organ damage
170
What kind of therapy is given in a hypertensive urgency?
Immediate PO therapy (usually) appropriate ⇣ ⇣ Reduce BP over several hours to few days
171
True or False: A Hytertensive urgency requires hospitalization.
False (It does NOT require hospitalization)
172
What constitutes a hyertensive emergency / crisis?
* Markedly increased BP * \> 180 systolic and / or 120 diastolic * **ACUTE** target organ damage
173
What kind of therapy is given in a hypertensive emergency?
Parenteral therapy required ⇣ ⇣ Reduce BP rapidly (over 2-3 hours)
174
True or False: A hypertensive emergency / crisis requires hospitalization.
True
175
What are five examples of acute target-organ damage?
1. Renal failure 2. Cardiac failure 3. Papilledema and / or Retinopathy 4. Encephalopathy 5. Stroke (CVA)
176
What are seven acute symptoms of a hypertensive emergency?
1. Blurred vision 2. Headache 3. Change in mental status 4. Restlessness 5. Anxiety 6. Shortness of breath 7. Chest pain
177
What is the direct vasodilator prototype?
Hydralazine (generic)
178
What is the usual Htn dose for Hydralazine (generic)?
* PO * Start mg qid x 2 - 4 days then increase 25 mg qid x 1 wk * Max: 300 mg/day * Alt: * 10 - 40 mg IM / IV q 4-6 h * Switch to PO ASAP * Switch to a safer drug
179
What are the three indications for Hydralazine (generic)?
1. Severe Htn unresponsive to safer drugs 2. Hypertensive crisis 3. HF
180
Where is Hydralazine (generic) metabolized?
Liver
181
How is Hydralazine (generic) excreted?
Urine / Feces | (90/10)
182
What are the seven adverse / side effects of Hydralazine (generic)?
1. Headache 2. Tachycardia 3. Nausea 4. Sweating 5. Arrythmias 6. Precipitation of angina 7. ***Drug-induced Lupus***
183
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, what is the goal for the general population of 60 and over? How are they treated if they are not at this goal?
**GOAL:** SBP \< 150 and DBP \< 90 * Pharm therapy indicated if * SBP 150 or \> * OR * DBP 90 or \>
184
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, what is the goal for the general population under 60? How are they treated if they are not at this goal?
**GOAL**: DBP \< 90 **GOAL:** SBP \< 140 * Pharm therapy indicated if * DBP 90 or \> * OR * SBP 140 or \>
185
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, what is the goal for the patients 18 or older with CKD? How are they treated if they are not at this goal?
**GOAL:** SBP \< 140 and DBP \< 90 * Pharm therapy indicated if * SBP 140 or \> * OR * DBP 90 or \>
186
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, what is the goal patients 18 or older with DM and Htn? How are they treated if they are not at this goal?
**GOAL:** SBP \< 140 and DBP \< 90 * Pharm therapy indicated when * SBP 140 or \> * OR * DBP 90 or \>
187
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, how would you initiate therapy for the general **Non-Black** population with / without DM?
Initiate therapy with any of the below: * Thiazide * ACEI * ARB * CCB
188
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, how would you initiate therapy for the general **Black** population with / without DM?
Initiate therapy with either: * Thiazide * CCB
189
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, how would you initiate therapy for the patients 18 or older with CKD and Htn?
Initiate therapy or add-on therapy with ACEI or ARB, regardless of race or DM status
190
According to the JNC-8 Guidelines, what would you do for all patients if BP goal is not reached by one month?
* Increse dose of initial drug OR * Add on any of the following: * Thiazide * CCB * ACEI * ARB

Pharmacology II (3 decks)

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