Antihypertensives I and II Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

What are the two direct vasodilators?

A

Hydralazine

Minoxidil

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2
Q

Are the direct vasodilators working on veins or arterioles?

A

Arterioles

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3
Q

What is the major effect of arteriolar vasodilation?

A

Decreased afterload

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4
Q

What other effects result from the arteriolar vasodilation?

A

Nonpostural fall in BP
LV filling pressure high
Reflex increase in cardiac work and HR
Reflex increased plasma renin

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5
Q

The reflex increase in cardiac work & HR and reflex increase in plasma renin caused by direct vasodilators can ultimately result in ______

A

Increased BP (not the goal of vasodilators)

Must block these two reflexes from occurring using a beta blocker and a diuretic
(Therefore direct vasodilators are 3rd or 4th line antihypertensives)

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6
Q

Which is the more potent direct vasodilator?

A

Minoxidil

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7
Q

What is a potential side effect of minoxidil?

A

Hypertrichosis (hair growth, rogaine)

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8
Q

What is a potential side effect of hydralazine?

A

Lupus-like syndrome (malaise, arthralgia, vasculitis)

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9
Q

How is minoxidil activated?

A

Gets sulfated in liver

Therefore cannot be given by injection

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10
Q

What are the channels opened by minoxidil?

A

ATP-sensitive K+ chanels (K-ATP)

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11
Q

What causes K-ATP channels to open and what does the opening do to the membrane potential?

A

Decreased ATP, increased ADP causes channel opening (decreased metabolic state)

K+ leaves the cell, membrane hyperpolarizes, reduces energy demand of the cell

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12
Q

What happens to the K-ATP channels in cardiac myocyte that is hypoxic/ischemic?

A

Hypoxia/ischemia –> ATP decreases, ADP increases –> K-ATP channels open –> AP duration decreases, contractility decreases –> energy demand decreases

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13
Q

What happens to smooth muscle cell that is hypoxic?

A

Hypoxia –> ATP decreases, ADP increases –> K-ATP channels open –> muscle hyperpolarizes –> Ca2+ channels close –> relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
–> increased blood flow

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14
Q

What causes the production of adenosine?

A

Decrease in ATP, increase in ADP

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of adenosine?

A

Opens K-ATP channels causing vasodilation

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16
Q

What happens to K-ATP channels in pancreatic beta cells when there is an increase in blood glucose?

A

Increased blood glucose –> Increased ATP, Decreased ADP –> K-ATP channels close –> Ca2+ channels open
–> insulin release increases

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?

A

Inhibit K-ATP channels, causing insulin release

Thereby acts as a glucose lowering agent

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of diazoxide?

A

Opens K-ATP channels, causing decreased insulin release

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19
Q

What are the two subunits of the pancreatic Beta cell K-ATP channel?

A

SUR1

Kir 6.2

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20
Q

What inhibits the SUR1 subunit of K-ATP channel?

A

Sulfonylureas

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21
Q

What activates the SUR1 subunit of K-ATP channel?

A

Diazoxide

ADP

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22
Q

What inhibits the Kir 6.2 subunit of K-ATP channel?

A

ATP

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23
Q

What type of K-ATP channels (VSM, cardiac, pancreatic) is minoxidil selective for?

A

VSM

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24
Q

What type of K-ATP channels (VSM, cardiac, pancreatic) is adenosine selective for?

25
What type of K-ATP channels (VSM, cardiac, pancreatic) is diazoxide selective for?
Pancreatic | VSM
26
What is unique about the K-ATP channels involved in the cardioprotectant mechanisms of diazoxide and adenosine?
They are mitochondrial K-ATP channels
27
Describe the concept of ischemic preconditioning
A previous short period of ischemia protects the heart when a longer period of ischemia occurs
28
What occurs in the early phase (<3 hrs) of ischemia to be protective?
Mitochondrial K-ATP channels open --> closure of mitochondrial permeability transition pore --> sustained mitochondrial function
29
What occurs in the late phase (24-48 hrs) of ischemia to be protective?
Reperfusion injury salvage kinases (RISK) --> gene transcription --> increased expression of protective proteins like heat shock proteins and superoxide dismutase
30
What is the role of adenosine in ischemic preconditioning?
Binds Adenosine receptors in the heart, causing opening of both sarcolemmal and mitochondrial K-ATP channels
31
What is the role of adenosine in the nuclear stress test?
Dilates arterioles in normoxic myocardium, diverting flow from the hypoxic region and enhancing contrast between hypoxic and normoxic areas
32
What drugs should be avoided during ischemic pre/post conditioning?
Sulfonylureas - inhibit K-ATP channels Methylxanthines (caffeine, theophylline) - adenosine receptor antagonists, can prevent adenosine from opening mitochondrial K-ATP channels
33
What is the mechanism of reserpine?
Irreversibly blocks VMAT | Causes depletion of NE in storage vesicles
34
When used in a large dose, what does reserpine do?
Sedative, tranquilizer
35
When used in a lower dose, what does reserpine do?
Peripheral sympatholytic, causes vasodilation
36
What are some of the adverse CNS effects of reserpine?
Increased risk of clinical depression | Exacerbation of parkinsonism
37
What is the mechanism of clonidine and methyldopa?
Central alpha-2 agonists Decrease sympathetic outflow to cardiovascular system (inhibit NE release) Baroreceptor reflexes remain intact
38
What patient population is methyldopa a first line antihypertensive?
Pregnant patients
39
What are adverse effects of central alpha-2 agonists?
Drowsiness, somnolence Dry mouth Sudden withdrawal causes excess of sympathetic outflow, resulting in exacerbation of hypertension
40
What is the mechanism of action of metyrosine?
Competitive inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase | Inhibits formation of NE at rate limiting step
41
What is a major clinical use of metyrosine?
Used in management of inoperable pheochromocytomas
42
What are the two categories of calcium channel blockers?
Dihydropyridines (DHPs) | Non-DHPs
43
What drugs are the DHPs?
Nifedipine | Amlodipine
44
What drugs are the non-DHPs?
Verapamil | Diltiazem
45
Are the calcium channel blockers primarily arteriolar or venous vasodilators?
Arteriolar
46
What is the action of calcium channel blockers on coronary arteries?
Dilates coronary arteries | Useful in coronary vasospasm
47
Do DHPs or nonDHPs have cardiodepressant action?
NonDHPs
48
At what type of L-type Calcium channels do calcium channel blockers act?
1.2 and 1.3 No effect on skeletal muscle or retina Main effects on cardiac muscle and vascular smooth muscle (vasodilator)
49
What are the different gating modes of the L-type calcium channel?
2 - long-opening 1 - brief-opening 0 - rare-opening
50
Which mode of the calcium channel is stabilized by calcium channel blockers?
0 - rare opening
51
What are the different conformations of the L-type calcium channel?
Closed Open Inactivated
52
What conformation of the calcium channel do nonDHPs bind tighter to?
Open Bind more tightly when channel is phasic between open and closed conformations (i.e. in cadiac muscle) Hence, better cardiodepressant effect for nonDHPs
53
What conformation of the calcium channel do DHPs bind tighter to?
Inactive | Find more inactive state in tonically depolarized cells (always some calcium mediated contraction and tone maintained
54
What happens to heart rate when cardiac L-type channels are blocked?
Decreases Because SA node automaticity is decreased Slows rate of upstroke of action potential
55
What happens to conduction velocity when cardiac L-type channels are blocked?
Decreased conduction velocity Because AV node conduction is slowed Slows rate of upstroke of action potential
56
What happens to cardiac contractility when cardiac L-type channels are blocked?
Decreased contractility | Reduced inward Ca current during plateau phase
57
What are adverse effects for DHPs?
Hypotension, flushing, headache Reflex sympathetic activation Swollen ankles
58
What are adverse effects for nonDHPs?
``` LV dysfunction (decreased contractility) AV block (slowed conduction) Avoid combination with beta-blockers (similar cardiodepressant effect) GI (constipation) ```
59
How are calcium channel blockers metabolized?
By CYP450 enzyme CYP3A4 in the liver | Avoid combination with competitive substrates/inhibitors of CYP3A4 (like statins, grapefruit juice)