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Antimicrobial agents Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the father of chemotherapy?

A

Paul Ehrlich

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2
Q

Paul Ehrlich coined the term Selective toxicity and Chemotherapy. Explain them in your own words.

A
  • Selective toxicity only effect on the microbes inhabiting the host.
  • Chemotherapy is treatment of infectious disease.
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3
Q

What is the mode of action of penicillin?

A

It infiltrates the cell-wall-building-enzyme and able to do so due to it’s same morphology.

this enzyme is known as cross linking transpeptidase/Penicillin Binding Protein.

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4
Q

Penicillin G and Penicillin V are Natural Penicillins. What is the character of Natural Penicillin?

A
  • Narrow spectrum
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5
Q

Where is Penicillin V administer?

A

Orally

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6
Q

Where is Penicillin G administer?

A

Intravenously

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7
Q

Methicillin, Nafcillin, and Isoxazolyl is a?

A

Penicillinase resistant

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8
Q

Aminopenicillins are? , and is partnered to?

A

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid
Ampicillin + Sulbactam
Pipercillin + Tazobactam
———————————————————
- Amoxicillin has a better GI absorption than Ampicillin
- Clavulanic acid is isolated from streptomyces clavuligeris
- Tazobactam is a more potent inhibitor that has broader spectrum than Clavulanic

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9
Q

Define broad spectrum

A

Could be used to treat variety of bacteria, gram positive and gram negative.

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10
Q

Carboxypenicillins and Ureidopenicillins are Extended Spectrum Penicillins. (A) Which one has a special advantage against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and (B) which one is made from modification of ampicillin structure?

A

Carboxypenicillins (A)
Ureidopenicillin (B)

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11
Q

Which generation of Cephalosporins has great effect on Enterococci and Pseudomonas but has has limited effect on gram negative?

A

Third generation

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12
Q

Which generation is effective against MRSA? *also what is the meaning of MRSA

A

Fifth generation; Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

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13
Q

What is the substitution to the third generation of Cephalosporins?

A

Cefuroxime

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14
Q

Aztreonam and Tigemonam are both Monobactam?
Which one is the first member of the new class of antibiotics?

A

Aztreonam

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15
Q

Aztreonam has a magic bullet for what family of bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas

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16
Q

Polypeptide antibiotics is known for their excellency against aerobic and anaerobe gram___ bacteria?

A

gram positive

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17
Q

In polypeptide antibiotics, which one causes redman’s syndrome, Vancomycin or Bacitranin?

A

Vacomycin

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18
Q

What does mycobacteria contains that enables them to resist decolorization from (add) + (add) ?

A

Contains Mycolic acid

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19
Q

It inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid?

A

Isoniazid

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20
Q

Aminoglycosides binds to (add) are broad spectrum in which aa are linked by glycosidic bonds. What is its mode of action?

A

Mismatches codons and anticodons which leads to faulty protein programing.

add: 30’s ribosomes

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21
Q

“micin” is isolated from?

A

Micromonospora

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22
Q

Tetracycline is known to bind in _______. It has four fused ring with a system of ______.

A

30s ribosomal; system of conjugated double system

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23
Q

Macrolides and Lincosamides binds to ___ ribosomal. Lincomides resembles _____. Common characteristics of Macolides is large lactone ring, ketone group, and glycosidically linked amino sugar. Their mode of action is to block _________?

A

Macrolides and Lincosamides binds to 50s ribosomal.
Lincomides resembles sulfanamides ( sulfamethoxazole).
Their MOA block is to peptide bond

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24
Q

Is the magic bullet for Pseudomonas?

A

Aztreonam

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25
Streptomyces Cattleya?
Thienamycin
26
Cefuroxime substituted the ________?
third generation of cephalosporins
27
Where is Clavulanic acid isolated from?
Streptomyces clavuligeris
28
Ureidopenicillis is made from modification of____?
ampicillin's structure
29
What are the Penicillinase inhibitors?
- Clavulanic acid - Sulbactam - Tazobactam
30
Primarily against Gram-positive bacteria?
Generation 1
31
POLYPEPTIDE ANTIBIOTICS: Vacomycin adverse effect is?
Redman's syndrome
32
Macrolide cures (add) from (add). It binds to 50s and has the same MOA to Lincosamides, what is that?
Inhibits peptide bonds
33
Is the treatment for Typhoid fever (Salmonella typhi). Isolated from Streptomyces Venezeulae?
Chloramphenicol
34
Choramphenicol is associated to?
Baby Blue Syndrome, Bone marrow suppression, and Aplastic Anemia
35
50s: Streptogramins is the treatment against VRSA, MRSA, VRE. Where is Vancomycin isolated from?
Streptomyces orientalis
36
What is the treatment against MRSA, VRE, VRSA?
50s: Streptogramins
37
Daptomycin injures Plasma Membrane and isolated from Streptomyces roseosporus. WHO removed it from?
Essential list medicines in 2019
38
What is the mode of action of sulfanamides(sulfamethoxazole) and Sulfone(Dapsone)?
It inhibits PABA an enzyme that synthesize dihydrofolic acid; and it can due to its the same morphology.
39
Trimetethoprim blocks the ______?
tetrahydrofolic synthesizing enzyme
40
what blocks the tetrahydrofolic synthesizing enzyme?
Trimethoprim
41
Stops the incorporation of the mycolic acid?
Ethambutol
42
A slow growing bacteria and is also known as Hansen's disease?
Leprosy
43
IMPORATANT METABOLITES: If sulfanamides can inhibits the dihydrofolic and tetradirofolic, then what inhibits the folic acid?
Sulfone(Dapsone)
44
What does azoles do?
blocks the synthesis of ergosterol
45
Polyenes mode of action?
Binds to ergosterol
46
Azoles mode of action?
Inhibits synthesizing Ergosterol
47
Ampicillin is believed to bind to ______?
sterol membrane
48
Absorption is increased with fatty acids?
Griseofulvin
48
GRISEOFULVIN is known to _____?
increase activity with the use of fatty acid
49
What PBP is responsible for the septum formation?
PBP 3
50
What PBP enzyme is responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis?
PBA 1a & 1b
51
What PBP enzyme is responsible for maintenance the bacteria's cell shape?
PBP 2
52
What PBP is responsible for the hydrolysis of D alanine?
PBP 4
53
interferes with the formation of the initiation complex between 30s and 50s subunits.
Oxazolidinone
54
Isolated from Streptomyces roseosporus?
Daptomycin
55
Crystalluria, Steven-Johnson syndrome, Kernicterus, and Anemia is the adverse effects of?
Sulfonamides
56
What is the treatment for pneumocystis pnuemonia (common for aids)?
pentamidine isethionate
57
/Tolnaftate/ is the alternative treatment for Athlete's foot
What is the alternative treatment for the athlete's foot?
58
ANTIPOTOZOAL AGENTS: The widely used antiprotozoal drugs is?
Metronidazole
59
ANTIPROZOAL: Trypanosoma cruzi causes?
American sleeping sickness (Chaga's disease)
60
/Nifutimox and Benzidazole/ is the treatment for American Sleeping disease caused by trypa cruzi
What is the treatment for American Sleeping disease?
61
T. brucei causes African Sleeping sickness. A. T. brucei gambiense - Western and Central African Sleeping sickness B. T. brucei rhodesiense - Eastern and Southern African Sleeping sickeness
Match the ff: Eastern A. T. brucei gambiense Central B. T. brucei rhodesiense Southern Western
62
Increases the membrane permeability to calcium contraction vacuolization parasite death
Paraziquantel add: treats most of the platyhelminths cestodes caused disease...the taenia's
63
Protease inhibitors are: - Saquinavir - Ritonavir - Indinavir - Atazanavir - Nelfinavir - Fosamprenavir
Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Indinavir, Atazanavir, Nelfinavir, Fosamprenavir
64
/Melarsoprol/ is the treatment for T. Brucei
What is the treatment for T. Brucei?
65
terminal prophylaxis for travelers from area where P. vivax and P. ovale are endemic.
Primaquine
66
Recommended prophylaxis for travelers in malaria-endemic areas without examination for P. falciparum chloroquine resistance.
Mefloquine and Atovaquone-proguanil
67
DOC in P. Falciparum which is administered orally and IV. Quinidine Gluconate and Quinidine sulfate
Quinidine Gluconate (oral) Quinidine Sulfate (IV)
68
Quinidine sulfate is administered as?
IV
69
Quinidine gluconate is administered as?
Orally

MICROBIOLOGY (6 decks)

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