Antimicrobials Flashcards

(61 cards)

2
Q

At what 3 points should an antimicrobial agent be administered/evaluated?

A
  1. empirical therapy choice based on patient assessment; 2. pathogen-specific therapy once pathogen is identified; 3. adjust for resistance once drug suscepitibilities known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how is empirical therapy selected?

A

consider probably/possible pathogens associated with type of disease process in your patient, factoring in personal risk factors, and decide on a broad spectrum antimicrobial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 4 major factors that should be considered when choosing an empirical antimicrobial?

A

disease process, pathogen, host/patient, potential drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what sites are difficult to treat?

A

CNS, eye, infected vegetation on heart, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of antibiotic is most effective against diseases with toxin involvement?

A

antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis (e.g. clindamycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what two components of the history are especially important in determining the etiologic agent?

A

exposure hx (travel, foods, animals, ill contacts) & infectious disease hx (recent infections, colonization with resistant pathogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what public health concerns are important to consider?

A

possible role of therapy to decrease duration of shedding or period of infectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aspects of patient demographic that are especially important when selecting empirical therapy

A

1) AGE, 2) Co-morbidities, 3) drug allergies & interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Don’t give _________ to someone with renal or liver dysfunction.

A

vancomycin, gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Don’t give _________ to someone with GI disease/abnormalities.

A

oral medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Impact of the Antibiotic/Drug: What to Consider

A

side-effects, cost, administration, spectum of activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

General features of amoxicillin

A

Beta-lactam penicillin (inhibits wall synthesis); oral only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amoxicillin is effective against?

A

many Streptococci, enterococcus, Gram negatives like haemophilus, E coli, Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Use amoxicillin for?

A

minor respiratory infections such as otitis media, sinusitis, mild pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the best IV drugs for MSSA?

A

oxacillin/nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

General features of augmentin

A

beta-lactam penicillin (amox) + beta-lactamase inhibitor (clav acid); oral formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Augmentin is effective against?

A

same drugs as amoxicillin + anaerobes, MSSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Use augmentin for?

A

minor respiratory infections, also dog/cat bites, pathogens resistant to amox due to beta-lactamase production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the IV equivalent for augmentin (oral)?

A

ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) should be used against?

A

more resistant Gram negative bacteria and anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

General features of ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A

beta-lactam cephalosporin, 3rd generation; IV (or IM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ceftriaxone is effective against?

A

Gram neg rods, streptococci, some Gram + (but not MRSA, pseudomonas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Use ceftriaxone for?

A

severe infections, including CNS infections (can add vanc if need more gram + coverage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ceftazidime and cefepime work well against?

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
cephalexin (Keflex)
common oral 1st generation cephalosporin
27
General features of azithromycin
macrolide (protein synthesis inhibitor); oral (also an IV form)
28
Azithromycin is effective against?
mycoplasma, chlamydia, pertussis, "atypical" bacteria, respiratory bacteria (altho resistance problem)
29
Use azithromycin for?
penicillin allergy, mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia trachomatis, pertussis, etc.
30
General features of clindamycin
lincosamide (protein synthesis inhibitor) that is given both orally and IV
31
Clindamycin is effective against?
Lots of Gram+, many MRSA, anaerobes, NOT enterococcus
32
Use clindamycin for?
Oral/dental infections, some Staph, toxin-producing bacteria
33
Which drug is responsible for the majority of C. diff acquisition?
clindamycin!
34
General features of vancomycin
glycopeptide (inhibits wall synthesis), IV (oral only for C diff)
35
Vancomycin is effective against?
Most Gram+ bacteria, including MRSA and C. diff (except VRE)
36
Use vancomycin for?
severe infections due to Gram + bacteria (add a cephalosporin for gram negative coverage)
37
General features of metronidazole (Flagyl)
produces toxic nitrates in anaerobic bacteria; oral and IV
38
Metronidazole is effective against?
Anaerobes
39
Use metronidazole for?
Gut anaerobes, C. diff (if susceptible), combine to cover Gram neg gut
40
General features of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)
sulfonamide (inhibits folate synthesis), oral (also IV form)
41
TMP-SMX is effective against?
variety of gram+ and gram-, some atyptical (pneumocystis-PCP)
42
Use TMP-SMX for?
ear infections, UTI, staph skin infection, PCP prophylaxis
43
General features of gentamicin
aminoglycoside (inhibits protein synthesis); IV only
44
Gentamicin is effective against?
many gram-, some gram+ (synergistic with ampicillin)
45
Use gentamicin for?
gram negative coverage; synergy against gram positives
46
General features of levofloxacin
fluoroquinalone (impacts bacterial DNA synthesis), Oral & IV
47
Levofloxacin is effective against?
Many Gram+ and Gram-
48
Use levofloxacin (or ciprofloxacin) for?
adults with sinopulmonary infections, UTI, some skin infections
49
Possible etiologic agents for lobar pneumonia
1. Strep pneumoniae, 2. staph aureus; others: strep pyogenes, oral anaerobes, atypical pneumonias
50
What empirical antibiotic should be used for lobar pneumonia?
Ceftriaxone (penicillin-resistant pneumococcae) + vancomycin (resistant gram+)
51
Possible etiologic agents post-appendix rupture
1. Gram negative enterics (E. Coli), 2. Anaerobes, 3. Enterococci
52
What empirical therapy should be used for a ruptured appendix?
Amp+Gent+Metro or Zosyn
53
Probable infectious etiologies for a bite wound
Pasteurella, Staph aureus, GAS, anaerobes
54
Treat bite wound with?
augmentin unless found to be MRSA
55
Empirical therapy for bacteremia, possible septic shock
vancomycin (gram +) + cefepime (for gram- rods)
56
Probable infectious etiologies for pharyngitis
1. strep pyogenes, 2. adenovirus, 3. EBV, etc.
57
Empirical therapy for a patient with pharyngitis
Throat Culture/Rapid Strep Test --> if positive for RST then treat with penecillin, amox, etc.
58
Treat GC with?
ceftriaxone
59
Treat chlamydia with?
azithromycin (short course, less likelihood of yeast infection)
60
Empirical therapy for osteomyelitis
MRSA treatment -- vancomycin
61
Possible etiologic agents in infant meningitis
E. Coli, GBS, listeria, HSV
62
Empirical Rx for infant meningitis
Ampicillin + gentamicin or cefotaxime (ceftriaxone contraindicated in newborns)