AO STUDY

Question 1

LEGAL JUSTIFACTION

A police/authorised officer’s authority to use force on another in the lawful execution of their duty is found in the Crimes Act 1961. What do the following sections relate to?

1. Section 39
2. Section 40
3. Section 41
4. Section 48

Answer 1

1. Section 39 - Executing process or in arrest.
2. Section 40 - Preventing escape or rescue.
3. Section 41 - Preventing suicide or certain offences.
4. Section 48 - Self defence/ defence of another.

Question 2

Section 62 of the crimes act 1961 relates to the excess use of force, fill in the gaps.

Everyone _____ by law to use force is _____ for any excess, according to the _____ and _____ of the _____ that constitutes the excess.

Answer 2

Everyone AUTHORISED by law to use force is CRIMINALLY RESPONSIBLE for any excess, according to the NATURE and QUALITY of the ACT that constitutes the excess.

Question 3

TACTICAL OPTIONS FRAMEWORK(TOF)

The TOF is an operational tool that assists officers to decide on the most appropriate level of force given all the circumstances.
Remember legal authority is derived from law, not the TOF!

In general terms, list the 5 ‘Subject behaviours” within the TOF.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Answer 3

1. Cooperative.
2. Passive Resistance.
3. Active Resistance.
4. Assaultive.
5. GBH or Death.

Question 4

“Perceived Cumulative Assessment” (PCA), fill in the gaps;

The officer’s _____ assessment, and continuous _____ of an incident, using _____, based on information known about the _____ and the _____ behaviour.

Answer 4

The officer’s SUBJECTIVE assessment, and continuous REASSESSMENT of an incident, using TENR, based on information known about the SITUATION and the SUBJECT’S behaviour.

Question 5

TENR

TENR is a systematic threat assessment process that is intended to provide better outcomes for police, increase staff and public safety, eliminate ‘preventable’ harm and reduce criticism.

TENR is an acronym for;

T-
E-
N-
R-

Answer 5

T - THREAT
E - EXPOSURE
N - NECESSITY
R - RESPONSE

Question 6

The ‘T’ in TENR is divided into 4 sub-headings, list them;

Answer 6

1. Intent.
2. Capability.
3. Opportunity.
4. Environment.

Question 7

The ‘E’ in TENR is divided into 2 sub-headings, list them;

Answer 7

1. Safety.

2. Security.

Question 8

The ‘N’ in TENR is divided into 3 sub-headings, list them;

Answer 8

1. Immediate Action.
2. Delayed Action.
3. No Action.

Question 9

Any police RESPONSE must be _____, _____ and _____ in the circumstances.

Answer 9

Any police RESPONSE must be TIMELY, PROPORTIONATE and APPROPRIATE in the circumstances.

Question 10

OC SPRAY

OC spray is personal issue; you are responsible for its safe keeping and handling during the course of your duty.
What are the 4 pre-operational checks?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Answer 10

1. Nozzle is not obstructed.
2. Canister is not damaged.
3. Content is verified.
4. Expiry date.

Question 11

You must be satisfied that when using OC spray, your PCA is that the persons behaviour is within or beyond the _____ _____ range of the TOF and it cannot be resolved by _____ _____ means.

Answer 11

.You must be satisfied that when using OC spray, your PCA is that the persons behaviour is within or beyond the ACTIVE RESISTANCE range of the TOF and it cannot be resolved by LESS FORCEFUL means.

Question 12

Members may only use OC spray when exercising any of their statutory powers and/or carrying out their lawful duties, list 4 situations when OC spray may be used;

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

Answer 12

1. Executing/attempting to execute arrest, warrant, process, sentence.
2. Prevent escape after arrest/flight to evade arrest.
3. Resolve incident where person likely to injure themselves.
4. Prevent offence likely to cause injury to person or property.
5. Defend self or others.
6. Stop a BOP.
7. Deter attacking animals.

Question 13

In ideal conditions, the effective firing range of Police issue OC Spray is between 1 to ____ metres.
The canister has sufficient spray for approximately __ x 1 second bursts.

Answer 13

In ideal conditions, the effective firing range of Police issue OC Spray is between 1 to 3.5 metres.
The canister has sufficient spray for approximately 8 x 1 second bursts.

Question 14

Aftercare procedures shall commence as soon as practicable but not before the member has eliminated any potential injury or further risk of physical harm. List 4 aftercare considerations.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

Answer 14

1. Reassurance.
2. Maintain Presence.
3. Face into the wind.
4. Apply cool water.
5. Bio-shield.
6. Consider removal of contaminated clothing.
7. Contact lenses.
8. Do not rub eyes.

Question 15

Medical attention must be immediately provided when (1) Subject does not recover within 45 minutes, List the other 2;

1.
2.

Answer 15

1. Complains of, or appears to be, suffering from a medical condition.
2. Asks for medical attention.

Question 16

ASP Baton

The ASP tactical baton is a police weapon designed to be inconspicuous yet highly effective in an operational setting.

Name the 2 modes in which ASP may be used;
1.
2.

Answer 16

1. Open.

2. Closed.

Question 17

Name the 2 positions the ASP baton may be held in;
1.
2.

Answer 17

1. Loaded.

2. Concealed.

Question 18

Name 3 bony parts of the body that you would target with the ASP.
1.
2.
3.

Answer 18

1. Shoulder.
2. Elbow.
3. Back of hand.
4. Knee.
5. Shin.
6. Ankle.

Question 19

Name 3 vulnerable areas of the body that serious injury may result should they be struck with the baton;
1.
2.
3.
4.

Answer 19

1. Head.
2. Neck.
3. Tailbone.
4. Solar plexus.

Question 20

HANDCUFFING

Handcuffs are for temporary restraining persons in custody. The necessity to apply handcuffs depends on the particular circumstances, list 3 circumstances;

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Answer 20

1. Nature of charge or reason for detention.
2. Likelihood of person trying to escape.
3. Ability of police to apprehend should they escape.
4. Yours and others safety.
5. Factors that may elevate/decrease risk - (i.e., HIV, elderly, youth, obese, mental health….)

Question 21

List 2 additional subject/offender considerations;
1.
2.
3.
4.

Answer 21

1. Criminal history.
2. Knowledge of person’s previous behaviour.
3. Persons behaving in manner that may suggest danger to police/others.
4. Circumstances around arrest suggests risk.

Question 22

RESTRAINT BELT

Restraint belts are available for use with violent or _____ violent persons who need to be _____ in circumstances in which the use of _____ only, may be ineffective or inappropriate.

Answer 22

Restraint belts are available for use with violent or POTENTIALLY violent persons who need to be RESTRAINED in circumstances in which the use of HANDCUFFS only, may be ineffective or inappropriate.

Question 23

Do you have to put a ‘Use of Force’ report in every time you use the belt?

Answer 23

1. NO

Question 24

Once the belt is fitted, can you leave the subject unattended?

Answer 24

1. NO

Question 25

Contact/Cover 'Contact and Cover' is defined as the tactical deployment of 2 or more police officers working together using safe operating procedures when dealing with subjects The primary role of the 'Contact officer' is the management of the situation with the priorities being officer _____ and _____ with the _____.

Answer 25

The primary role of the 'Contact officer' is the management of the situation with the priorities being officer SAFETY and COMMUNICATION with the SUBJECT.

Question 26

The primary role of the 'Cover officer' is the management of the scene with the priority being the _____ of the _____ _____.

Answer 26

The primary role of the 'Cover officer' is the management of the scene with the priority being the SAFETY of the CONTACT OFFICER.

Question 27

TACTICAL COMMUNICATIONS There are 4 general principles of Tactical Communication, list 2; 1. 2. 3. 4.

Answer 27

1. Be assertive (not aggressive). 2. Treat others with dignity and respect. 3. Use positive instruction. 4. Use positive affirmation ( "Thank you" at end of instruction" )

Question 28

What are the 5 steps of the Police Tactical Communication? 1. A _____ person to comply. 2. W explain _____ you require them to act. 3. O explain _____ open (Good, Bad, Good) 4. C _____ they understand what is required. 5. A take appropriate _____.

Answer 28

1. A ASK person to comply. 2. W explain WHY you require them to act. 3. O explain OPTIONS open (Good, Bad, Good) 4. C CONFIRM they understand what is required. 5. A take appropriate ACTION.

Question 29

There are 4 great motivators for the vast majority of people. List 3; 1. 2. 3. 4.

Answer 29

1. Time. 2. Money. 3. Family. 4. Reputation.

Question 30

Positional Asphyxia (PA) Positional Asphyxia arises when any person, due to the _____ of their _____, is unable to _____ sufficiently to meet their body's _____ requirements (hypoxia).

Answer 30

Positional Asphyxia arises when any person, due to the POSITION of their BODY, is unable to BREATH sufficiently to meet their body's OXYGEN requirements (hypoxia).

Question 31

Name 5 PA risk factors; ``` 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ```

Answer 31

1. Obesity, male, aged 34-44. 2. Alcohol or drug misuse. 3. Prior cardiac or respiratory problems. 4. Placing weight on the subject. 5. Prolonged restraint in prone position.

Question 32

Name 3 PA signs and symptoms; ``` 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ```

Answer 32

1. Complaining of not being able to breath. 2. Swelling, redness or blood spots to face/neck. 3. Marked expansions of veins in neck, Struggling to breath. 4. Loss or reduced level of consciousness, Change in behaviour. 5. Subject becoming limp or unresponsive, Respiratory/cardiac arrest.

Question 33

EXCITED DELIRIUM (ED) ED is described as a state of extreme mental and physiological excitement, characterised by extreme _____, hyperthermia, _____ with exceptional _____ and _____ without apparent fatigue.

Answer 33

ED is described as a state of extreme mental and physiological excitement, characterised by extreme AGITATION, hyperthermia, HOSTILITY with exceptional STRENGTH and ENDURANCE without apparent fatigue.

Question 34

Name 3 ED risk factors; 1. 2. 3. 4.

Answer 34

1. Mental illness. 2. Male. 3. Aged 34-44. 4. Alcohol or drug misuse.

Question 35

Name 3 ED signs and symptoms; 1. 2. 3. 4.

Answer 35

1. Acute psychotic behaviour, Profuse sweating, Lack of or irrational response to pain. 2. Violent agitation, Bizarre behaviour. 3. Altered mental state and delirium, Extraordinary strength and endurance. 4. Incoherent speech (screaming and shouting).

Question 36

CUSTODIAL MANAGEMENT SUICIDE AWARENESS (CMSA) Give four actions police can take to reduce the risk that a prisoner may self harm. M - O - A - H -

Answer 36

M - remove the Means. O - reduce the Opportunity. A - manage the Anxiety. H - manage the Health.

Question 37

Risk factors of a person in custody who is at risk of self harm? ``` 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. ```

Answer 37

1. Previous self harm threats or attempts. 2. Serious health issues. 3. Alcohol and drug abuse. 4. Mental health History. 5. Isolation.