"AO3 STUDY MATERIAL" Flashcards
(298 cards)
0
Q
What is the inspection intervals for the BRU-42’s?
A
180/360 day inspections.
1
Q
Where is maintenance performed on the BRU-41/BRU-42?
A
I-level = Intermediate Level
2
Q
Where is the sensing switch located on the BRU-41?
A
Under the FWD hook
3
Q
What type of tester is the CRALTS?
A
It is an ( Automatic/ Semiautomatic Universal GO/NO-GO) tester for various aircraft bombs
4
Q
For corrosion removal, treatment, and prevention, refer to what NAVAIR manual?
A
NAVAIR 01-1A-509
5
Q
The general purpose bombs are what color?
A
Olive drab or grey
6
Q
What is on the aft end of a general purpose bomb for fin installation?
A
“V” groove
7
Q
2 yellow bands indicate what?
A
(Thermal protected/High Explosive)
8
Q
1 yellow band indicates what?
A
(Non-thermal protected/High Explosive
9
Q
How are thermally protected bombs identified?
A
By two yellow bands and the words “Thermally Protected” on the bomb.
10
Q
What is the inspection criteria for Mk-80 series Bombs?
A
Less than 56 sq inches with no more than 15 sq inches missing in one continuous area.
11
Q
What is the most common lug?
A
MS3314
12
Q
What is the name of the extended red tube on the FMU-140 that indicates that it’s armed?
A
The Pitot tube
13
Q
What bomb dispenser is used for the Mk-120 Cluster Bomb Unit?
A
Mk 7 Bomb dispenser
14
Q
How many Mk 118 anti-tank bombs are loaded into the Mk 20 Bomb?
A
247 Mk 118 Bombs (MK-1 Fuze)
15
Q
When the SUU-76C/B dispenser removes its bomblets and the payload sleeve is installed, what does this all up round become?
A
PDU-5/B
16
Q
What is the MK 339 Mod 0 fuze primary option times set at?
A
Primary= 1.2 seconds Option= 4.o seconds
17
Q
What can the primary and option times for the MK 339 Mod 1 fuze be set at?
A
1.2 to 100 seconds
18
Q
What two fuzes are used with the MK 20 Rockeye?
A
MK 339 Mod 1 and FMU-140 series fuze
19
Q
If the option time wire is pulled on the MK 339 Mod 1 fuze during airborne release, what will happen?
A
Fuze will dud
20
Q
What form is used for reporting Technical Publication Deficiency Reports (TPDR)?
A
4790/66
21
Q
Publication for the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program(NAMP)?
A
COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2
22
Q
Define corrosion
A
The electrochemical deterioration of a metal because of its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment.
23
Q
What is the most COMMON corrosion on aluminum and magnesium alloys called?
A
Pitting corrosion
24
What corrosion occurs when two different metals come in to contact and an electrolyte such as seawater is present?
Galvanic Corrosion
25
What is the color of corrosion on Aluminum alloys?
White or grey powder
26
Name two most common factors used to combat corrosion?
Removal of electrolytes(moisture) and the application of protective coatings.
27
When handling electrolytes, always wear face shield, rubber gloves, and rubber aprons. If electrolytes come in to contact with your skin or eyes, what must be done?
Immediately flush the affected area with water and consult the base medical.
28
For all corrosion removal, all industrial and sites must have approval from whom, prior to start up?
Navy Industrial Hygenist
29
About what percent of all paint failures are because of someone not preparing the surface correctly?
90 percent
30
What must not be used on battery terminals or live electrical circuits when removing corrosion?
Wire brushes
31
When sand blasting aluminum alloys, never allow the blasting stream to dwell on the same spot longer than how many seconds?
15 seconds
32
If paint thinner comes in to contact withe eyes, flush with water for how long?
15 minutes
33
For proper application and reapplication of sealants that prevent common corrosion, refer to what pub?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509 Volume 2
34
Never apply sealant over moisture(true or false)?
True
35
The amount of time or vane revolutions needed for the firing train to be aligned after the bomb is released or from time of release until the bomb is fully armed-also known as safe separation time (SST)
Arming time
36
A means by which a fuze is physically determined to be in a safe or armed condition.
External Evidence of arming(EEA).
37
The time required for a fuze to detonate after impact, or a preset time.
Functioning time
38
The action that causes a fuze to detonate before impact when any substantial object Is detected at a predetermined distance from the fuze.
Proximity(VT)
39
The distance along the trajectory that a bomb travels from the releasing aircraft in an unarmed condition.
Safe air travel(SAT)
40
When the functioning time of a fuze is 0.0003 seconds or less.
Instantaneous
41
When the functioning time of a fuze is 0.0003 to 0.0005 seconds.
Nondelay
42
When the functioning time of a fuze is longer than 0.0005 seconds.
Delay
43
Fuzes are divided into what two general classes?
Mechanical and Electrical
44
What fuze is like the hammer and primer used to fire a rifle or pistol?
Mechanical
45
What is used to initiate an electrical fuze?
Electrical Impulse
46
If a bomb is accidentally released during landing or takeoff, what prevents the fuze from being able to fully arm and detonate?
Delay arming
47
What is the publication that pertains to Airborne bomb and rocket fuzes?
NAVAIR 11-1F-2
48
What publication pertains to Aircraft bombs, fuzes, and associated components?
NAVAIR 11-5A-17
49
When is the Mk 339 Mod 1 installed in cluster bombs ?
During assembly at the manufacture
50
How can you visually tell if the Mk 339 Mod 1 mechanical time fuze is armed?
Green foil is pierced by the red indicator pin
51
On the Ml 339 Mod 1, if only the option time wire is pulled out on airborne release, what will happen to the fuze?
The fuze will dud
52
What fuze is used with the GBU-24(series) bomb?
FMU-143(series) electric tail fuze
53
The low drag time switch on the FMU-139 should always be in what position?
"x" position
54
The Mk 122 Mod 0 safety switch must be installed in what type of environment?
RADHAZ-free environment
55
What is the classification of the DSU-33 proximity sensor?
Confidential
56
What proximity sensor is an adverse-weather, self powered, active, radio frequency, and single mission device capable of operating in an electronic countermeasures environment?
DSU-33 proximity sensor
57
What proximity fuze is used with the CBU-99 Rockeye and CBU-78 Gator weapons?
FMU-140A/B proximity fuze
58
The MK80(series) GP bombs have approximately what amount of weight is made of explosives?
45 percent
59
What is the explosive filler used in the BLU-110/111/117A/B(series) GP bombs?
PBXN-109
60
What BLU (series) bomb is a Low- collateral damage bomb?
BLU-106 (LOCO)
61
How is the BLU-126/B identified ?
There is an extra yellow stripe around the aft end of the bomb body.
62
Name the two basic nods plugs used in GP bombs?
(MXU-735B and MXU-735 A/B) and the ogive nose plug.
63
What nose plug is used for hard target penetration?
MXU-735
64
What swivel and ring assembly permits a method for indirect rigging of GP bombs so that no arming wires will remain hanging from the bomb rack after weapon release?
MAU-182/MAU-166
65
What prevents premature of accidental withdrawal of the arming wires from the weapon component?
Safety Fahnestock clips or Dexter safety clips
66
Unless otherwise specified, which safety clips are used vice Fahnestock clips?
Dexter safety clips
67
What is the only arming wire made of steel?
MK 3 Mod 0
68
Whoa is the most frequently used mode for bomb delivery?
In-flight selection (pilot option) mode
69
How is the BSU-85/B attached to tag bomb body?
Eight set crews
70
What are the moveable guidance fins on the computer control group (CCG) better known as?
Canards
71
The heavy-walled case on the GBU-24 pave way III bomb provides the penetration capability of how much reinforced concrete?
4 to 6 feet
72
The BLU-109A/B has a thermal protective coating applied to the surface for what reason?
Increase cook-off time
73
What are the criteria for missing thermal coating on the BLU-109A/B?
Must not be missing more than 20 square inches of thermal coating in a single area or more than 40 square inches total
74
What general purpose (GP) bomb body is used to make up the GBU-12?
MK 82
75
What general purpose (GP) bomb body is used to make up the GBU-16?
Mk 83
76
What general purpose (GP) bomb body is used to make up the GBU-10?
Mk 84
77
What is the weight of the MK 62 mine?
500 pounds
78
What is the weight of the MK 63 mine?
1000 pounds
79
What is the weight of the MK 65 mine?
2000 pounds
80
What conversion kit is used to turn a general purpose (GP) bomb into a mine?
MK 130 Mod 1 kit
81
What section of the MK 7 bomb dispenser is the main structure that contains the bombs/bomblets?
Cargo section
82
What cuts the MK 7 bomb dispenser in half from front to rear?
Two linear -shaped charges secured longitudinally inside the walls
83
What bomblets are used in the CBU-20 Mod 3 only?
Mk 118 Mod 0 antitank bomblets
84
What bomblets are contained in the CBU-75C/B cluster bomb unit (Gator)?
BLU-91/B and BLU-92/B
85
Practice bombs are manufactured as what type of bomb bodies?
Solid or cast-metal bodies
86
What are the two types of practice bomb bodies?
Full-scale and sub caliber
87
What practice bomb is much smaller in size and weight than the service bomb it simulates?
Subcaliber
88
What practice bombs are representative of service bombs in their size and weight?
Full-scale
89
What are the two Subcaliber practice bombs currently in use?
MK 76 Mod 5 and BDU-48/B
90
How much does the MK 76 Subcaliber practice bomb weigh?
25 pounds
92
How is the MK 76 Mod 5 is Subcaliber practice bomb shaped?
Teardrop shaped
93
How is the after body of the MK 76 Mod 5 attached to the body?
Crimped
94
How are the tail fins of the MK 76 Mod 5 attached?
Welded
95
What type of firing is the MK 76 Mod 5 used for?
Impact firing (only)
96
What firing pin is used in the MK 76 Mod 5 subcaliber practice bomb to imitate the signal cartridge?
MK 1 firing pin
97
What holds the signal cartridge and firing pin in place on the MK 76 Mod 5 Subcaliber practice bomb?
Cotter pin
98
What thin-cased cylindrical practice bomb is used to simulate retarded weapon delivery?
BDU-48/B
99
How much does the BDU-48/B subcaliber bomb weigh?
10 pounds
100
What suspension lug is used with the MK 76 Mod 5 subcaliber practice bomb?
MK 14
101
If the use of a fuze is not desired in full-scale practice bombs, what is installed in the tail fuze well to provide visual observation of weapon/target impact?
MK 89 Mod 0 bomb-spotting charge to permit the use of a practice bomb signal cartridge
102
What solid nose plug is used in the BDU-45/B practice bomb?
MXU-735
103
How do laser-guided bombs detect a target?
Laser beam illumination
104
How is the MK 89 Mod 0 spotting charge adapter kept in a safe condition during ground handling?
Installation of a safety cotter pin in the safety pin sleeve
105
What should never be packed or unpacked in a weapons magazine?
Fuzes
106
When detonated, what has a tendency to set off all explosive material that is near it?
Bomb ammunition
107
What type of ammunition causes the most injuries to personnel?
Practice bombs
108
The FMU-143/B tail fuze is used with what weapon?
GBU-24B/B
112
What color are practice bombs?
Blue
113
What component of the LAU-117 launcher prevents accidental release of missile?
(MRD) Missile Restraint Device
114
CRALTS test set may be waived up to how many days?
90 days
115
Scheduled maintenance on the LAU-117 is how many months?
18 months
116
Pyrotechnic devices that are produced by the Navy fall under what two categories?
Mark or Mod
117
Pyro is generally ignited by what means?
Ignition train
118
How is Pyro identified?
By either an all white body or a white band around the nose
119
Pyro can reach temperatures up to how many degrees?
4500
120
How do you fight a pyro fire?
Use water in flooding quantities at low pressure.
121
How many pounds of pull for the LUU-2B/B timer knob?
30 Pounds
122
How many pounds of pull for the LUU-2B/B lanyard?
90 pounds
123
What is the size of the LUU-2B/B parachute?
18 feet
124
How many settings for the LUU-2B/B?
LUU-2B/B has 14 settings that range from (250, 500, 1000, up to 11000 feet)
125
How many LUU-2B/B parachute flares can fit into one SUU-25 dispenser?
Eight LUU-2B/B's
126
Where is the armament override switch located?
In the nose wheelwell
127
What's the gun system test set?
A/E-24T-230
128
Fuze test set?
AN/AWN-42
129
During the postcheck procedures, verify the Armament Override switch is in what position?
(Down) off position
130
During a aircraft postcheck procedures, position all switches to what?
Off, Safe, or Notmal
131
If AN/AWM-103 test set fails the initial test, what must be done?
Re-test
132
What tester is used for the AIM-9 and multiple platforms?
AN/AWM-103A
133
What test set is used to test the BRU-41/42?
AWM-102
134
The fire watch stander must standby at least how many minutes after hot work is completed?
30 minutes
135
Fire and security departments of involved shore activities will be notified _ hours in advance of securing the engineering plant of a ship carrying ammunition?
24 Hours
136
An am essential element of any fire prevention efforts start with what?
Good HOUSEKEEPING
137
No vegetation shall come within _ feet of lightning rods?
5 feet
138
The general fire bill is reviewed every _ months and revised as necessary?
Every 6 months
139
Extinguishers equipped with metal nozzle horns are are not safe for use during what type of fire?
Class Charlie fires (Electrical)
140
What gas mask is used in the Navy?
MCU2P or M9 series
141
A tug that is available within _ minutes steaming time of a pier is considered available?
30 Minutes
142
What is the nomenclature of the rough terrain trailer used at advanced bases?
A/M32K Rough terrain trailer
143
What is the SWL of the AERO 64A soft belt adapters?
2500 pounds
144
What dimensions does the AERO 64B softbelts adapters support?
AERO 64A supports weapons up to 30 inches and AERO 64B supports weapons up to 20 inches.
145
What hook adapter is used with forklifts and is positioned on the times 24 inches from the heel?
MK-91 Mod 0
146
SWL of the AERO 9C when used with the 12C bomb skid?
1000 pounds
147
Which adapter holds seven LAU-7 nitrogen bottles?
AERO 39C
148
What is the MK 43 Mod 1 weapons carrier made of?
Made of 5/8-inch steel plate
149
What weapons carrier is used in conjunction with two MK 49 weapons carriers to lift MK 82 bombs (500 pounds) in tandem of different skids and trailers?
MK 43 Mod 1 weapons carrier
150
What weapons carrier is a welded steel -plate equipped with four hoisting points and two attaching studs?
MK 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier
151
What locks in the pivoting stud at the "A" end of the MK 49 weapons carrier to place?
A quick release pin
152
What is the SWL of the MK 49 weapons carrier?
2500 pounds
153
What end of the MK 51 weapons carrier is the fixed position hook with a spring latch and a safety pin?
Aft end
154
What end of the MK 51 weapons carrier is adjustable?
Forward end
155
What is the suspension of the MK 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier?
14 and 30 inch suspension
156
What is the SWL of the MK 51 weapons carrier?
4000 pounds
157
Cargo safety hook MK 2 is also known as what?
(The so -called EARL HOOK)
158
What is the SWL of the MK 2 cargo safety hook (The so-called EARL HOOK)?
10000 pounds
159
What hook is designed to release a suspended loaf the instant a lanyard, attached to the hook is pulled?
Trip hook
160
What is the SWL of the TRIP HOOK?
600 pounds
161
What hook is used with controlled mine systems?
Trip hook
162
What is the suspension of the MK 49 weapons carrier ?
14 inch suspension
163
What is used to secure the AERO 39C to the 12C bomb skid?
Tiedown straps
164
The AERO 58can accommodate weapons from what diameters?
8 inches to 30.50
165
What is the base of the FWD and AFT sections of the AERO 58A to fit the rails of the MHU-191/M?
FWD 10 inches and AFT 15 inches
166
What skid adapter is used with the AERO 58A and the MHU 191/M to form a flatbed truck?
AERO 71A Skid flatbed adapter
167
What adapter is used to transport empty IMERS or ITERS?
AERO 83A transport adapter
168
SWL of the AERO 83A transport adapter?
500 pounds
169
What transport adapter is used to transport one Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) ADM-141?
ADK-598 transport adapter
170
What guided missile adapter is used for handling and transporting of the PHOENIX middle on shore stations?
ADU-399B/E guided missile adapter
171
What skid adapter is used in pairs with AERO 58A and can support two weapons from 9 to 16 inches in diameter during transport of the MHU-191/M munitions transporter?
ADU-483/E skid adapter
172
What wing, fin, and fuze transport adapter is used by ordnance personnel to transfer different ordnance and ordnance components from weapons break out areas of the flight deck?
ADU-488/E wing, fin, and fuze adapter
173
What adapter is used with the AERO 58A to carry two stores side by side?
ADU-511A/E adjustable weapons adapter
174
What small missile adapter is used in pairs on a variety of weapons skids, transporters, and trailers for transporting up to four AIM-7, AIM-120, AIM-9, or AGM-114 hellfire missiles?
ADU-514A small missile adapter
175
What adapter provides protection for the AIM-9 SIDEWINDER wings and fins when attached to the ADU-514A/E during transporting?
ADU-567/E Nitrogen Receiver Adapter
176
What transport adapter is used with the MHU-191/M munitions transporter to transport the Joint Standoff Weapon (JSOW)?
ADU-775/E Transport adapter
177
What is the color of the MK-43 target detecting device TDD?
Green
178
What kit is used to make destructor mines?
MK-75 Modification kit
179
What are the two types of rocket armings?
Acceleration set back and motor burnout
180
What is the 2.75 inch rocket better known as?
Mighty Mouse
181
What is the 5.0 inch rocket better known as?
Zuni
182
How many tubes does the LAU-68 have?
7 tubes
183
How many tubes does the LAU-61 have?
19 tubes
184
How many tubes does the LAU-10 have?
4 tubes
185
What are three components of a rocket?
Fuze, Motor, and Warhead
186
Long range missiles can travel how far?
At least 100 miles
187
How many MPH is mach 1.0 sonic speed?
766 MPH
188
Define active homing?
Target illumination is supplied by a component in the missile, such as radar transmitter.
189
Define semi-active homing?
Missile gets its target illumination from a external source.
190
Define passive homing?
The directing intelligence is received from the target.
191
What homing is used in the AIM-9?
Passive homing
192
What is the homing of the AGM-65E?
Laser Guided
193
What is the homing of the AGM-65F?
Infrared Guided
194
The AIM-54 Phoenix has what homing?
Active, Semi-active,and Passive(It's the only missile that uses all three homing's)
195
How many PSI is used in the LAU -7 missile launcher?
3200 PSI
196
In the LAU-7 nitrogen receiver, what color indicates 2.2 to 2.8 psi?
Yellow
197
What is the burn time of the MK-13 MLM?
20 Seconds
198
What color smoke does the MK-13 emit for day and night operations?
Orange smoke for day and RED FLAME for night
199
What is contained in the MK-79 mod kit?
MK-31 projector, 7 MK-80 signals, plastic bandoleer, and an instruction sheet
200
What is the range of the MK-79 mod kit signals?
250-650 feet (Burn time = 20 seconds)
201
What is the primary use for the MK-25 MLM?
Searching for Submarines
202
What is the burn time for the MK-25 MLM?
13.5-18.5 minutes or 10-20 minutes, either answer is correct
203
What is the battery in the MK-25 MLM?
MK-72 seawater battery
204
What is the burn time of the MK-58 MLM?
40-60 minutes
205
How many miles is the MK-58 MLM visible for?
3 miles
206
What color smoke is emitted from the MK-58 MLM?
Yellow flame, white smoke
207
What battery is used with the MK-58 MLM?
MK-72 battery
208
How many holes does the MK-58 MLM have and what are they used for?
Three holes, two for smoke and flame and one for water entry
209
What practice signal cartridge is used for night operations?
MK 4 MOD 3
210
What practice signal cartridge is used for day operations ?
CXU-3B and CXU-3A/B
211
What signal cartridge is used with the BDU practice bomb?
CXU-4/B
212
What torpedo stabilizer is used for fixed-wing aircraft?
MK-28
213
What torpedo is used for Helos?
MK-31
214
What propellant is used for the MK-46 torpedo?
OTTO FUEL II
215
Aircraft laid mines range between what heights?
160 -1300 pounds
216
Aircraft laid mines have a delay that last how long?
8 minutes to 10 days
217
Name the three mine firings and what sets them off?
Acoustic - Rotation of the ships screws
Pressure - Decrease in water pressure
Magnetic- change in the earths magnetic field
218
Weight of the MK-65 mine?
2000 pounds
219
What's the high/low limits in the M61A1 gun?
4000 low and 6000 high
220
How long is the M61A1 gun?
72 inches
221
How many barrels does the gun have?
6 barrels, rotary action
222
What type of ammo does the gun use?
M50 series
223
Name the seven steps for the M61A1 gun?
1 - Feed 2 - Chamber
3 - Lock 4 - Fire
5 - Unlock. 6 - Extract
7 - Eject (FCLFEE)
224
What restrains the barrel from movement during firing?
Muzzle clamp
225
What provides front mounts for the gun ?
Recoil adapters
226
What guides the rounds in and our of the extractor lip?
Guide bar
227
What is the lubrication used for the M61A1 gun ?
MC300
228
What contains the last round switch?
Exit unit
229
How many rounds does the F/A-18 hold?
578 rounds forward of the cockpit (centerline)
230
How many rounds does the LALS II and III hold?
1800 rounds
231
How far is a tracer round visible for?
1280 yards
232
What round is never to be fired on the fleet?
High pressure test (HPT) only used at manufacture
233
What are the two types of targets?
Textile and rigid
234
How far are tow targets towed behind the aircraft?
1800 feet
235
How many nautical miles can the AQM-37C travel?
155 Nautical miles
236
How big is the fuel tank on the BQM-73C target?
16.2 gallons
237
How long can the BQM-74/C target stay afloat?
24 hours
238
What is the max speed of the BQM-34 target?
600 knots
239
What provides a means of transferring the target drag from the toeing aircraft to a structural member of the towing aircraft?
Klein "Chicago" Grip
240
Tow targets are what size?
7 1/2 by 40 feet
241
How many types of TALD are there?
3 types
242
What is the Safe working load of all pallets?
4000 pounds
243
What pallet is used for "FLEET ISSUE UNIT LOADS"
MK-12 pallet
244
What pallet is used for "Domestic Loads"
Wooden pallet
245
How many people does it take to operate a bomb table?
10 personnel
246
What bomb assembly stand is used for MK-80 series bombs?
A/F32K-1/1A ( 3 tables, 4 trays, rotates 360 degrees)
247
What bomb assembly stand is used on amphibious assault ships?
A/F32K-10 (2 tables, 3 trays , rotates 360 degrees)
248
What's the SWL of the HLU-256 (Hernia bar)?
1000 pounds
249
What beam is used to pull the AGM-84 Harpoon from the can?
MK-37 MOD 0
250
What's the SWL of the HLU-288?
2240 single or 4480 double
251
What's the SWL of the electric pallet?
6000 pounds
252
What's the SWL of the hand pallet?
4000 pounds
253
What's the SWL of Diesel Forklifts?
4000 - 20000 pounds (typical is 6000 pounds)
254
Electric forklifts have what SWL?
4000 to 6000 pounds
255
What is the SWL of the MK-7 bomb trailer?
2250 pounds
256
How many degrees can the MK-7 bomb trailer tilt?
30 degrees
257
What is the SWL of the AERO-51C trailer?
8500 pounds
258
What's the SWL of the A/M32K-4A trailer?
8000 pounds (SATS rough terrain trailer, 12 cradle tie-downs)
259
What's the weight of the SUU-25 empty?
260 pounds
260
What's the weight of the SUU-25 fully loaded?
490-500 pounds
261
What CAD is used with the SUU-25?
CCU-44
262
Who maintains control of the magazine security keys?
Ships gunner
263
What magazine is shaped like a bee-hive?
Corbetta
264
What magazine is rectangular in shape?
Box magazine (12 by 17)
265
What magazine look like a cave or tunnel?
Gallery
266
What magazine is Arch-shaped?
Keyport (6 by 8'8)
267
What color code is used for high explosives?
Yellow
268
What color code is used for rocket motors?
Brown
269
What color code is used for smoke or marker?
Light Green
270
What color code is used for training?
Blue
271
What storage designator represents fire?
Y
272
What storage designator represents Open Storage or "Revetted"?
R
273
How far should most placards be from anything?
Typically 800 feet
274
What test set is used for multimeters?
AN/PSM-4
275
What test set is used for stray voltage checks?
AN/AWM-54
276
What test set is used for DC fuzing circuits?
AN/AWM-42
277
What test set checks the tone of the AIM-9 sidewinder?
TTU-304/E
278
How many feet do you hold the TTU-304 from the missile?
4-6 feet
279
What test set is used for Chaff and Flare?
AN/ALM-70
280
What test set is used for the VTAS/SEAM?
TS-3279
281
What test set is used to test the AGM-84 Harpoon prior to loading on the P-3 aircraft?
TS-3519/DSM
282
How often is Notice of reclassifications (NAR'S) updated?
Every 24 hours
283
What publication is used for physical security of magazines?
OPNAVINST 5530.13
284
What publication is used for the NAMP?
4790.2
285
What publication is used for approved handling equipment for weapons and explosives?
NAVSEA OP 2173
286
What publication is used for associated bomb components?
NA 11-5A-17
287
What publication is used for ensuring your checklist is current or updated?
NA 01-700
288
Ammunition Afloat?
OP-4
289
Ammunition Ashore?
OP-5
290
What volume of the OP-5 covers advance bases?
Volume III
291
How many wing stations does the P-3 have?
10 wing stations
292
How many stations are in the bomb bay of the P-3?
8 stations
293
How many total stations does the P-3 have?
18 stations
294
When looking at the eight bomb bay stations, are the upper stations even or odd numbered?
Upper stations are odd numbered
295
How many sonobuoys and what kind are in the P-3 aircraft?
51 total sonobuoys (48 unpressurized, 3 pressurized, and 1 Freefall)
296
How many fire divisions are there?
Six
297
Division 1
Mass Explosion
298
Division 2
Fragment producing
299
Division 3
Mass fire
300
Division 4
Moderate fire
301
Division 5
Mass explosion (very insensitive explosive substance)
