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AP Government and Politics > AP Exam > Flashcards

AP Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What was the main argument of Brutus 1 regarding a large, centralized government?

A

There was a danger in a large, centralized government and the inability to adequately represent a large group of people.

Brutus 1 criticized the necessary and proper clause and the supremacy clause.

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2
Q

What did the Articles of Confederation avoid?

A

Tyranny with a centralized state.

It established only one branch of government with no president or federal court.

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3
Q

What power did Congress lack under the Articles of Confederation?

A

The power to raise revenue through taxes.

Congress had to ask states for funds.

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4
Q

What was the significance of Shay’s Rebellion?

A

It highlighted the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation, as Congress could not raise a national army to address the uprising.

Revolutionary War veterans protested due to lack of payment.

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5
Q

What was the Great Compromise?

A

It determined how people would be represented in the new Congress.

It combined the Virginia Plan and New Jersey Plan.

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6
Q

What was the Three-Fifths Compromise?

A

Three-fifths of the enslaved population would count for representation purposes.

This compromise was part of the negotiations at the Constitutional Convention.

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7
Q

What is Article 5 of the Constitution about?

A

It outlines the process for amending the Constitution.

It involves proposal and ratification stages.

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8
Q

What is the Senate’s power of advice and consent?

A

The Senate must approve any appointments made by the President to federal offices.

This includes cabinet positions and Supreme Court justices.

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9
Q

What is judicial review?

A

The power of the courts to evaluate laws for constitutionality.

Established in Marbury v. Madison.

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10
Q

Define federalism.

A

The sharing of power between state and federal governments.

It is a key principle in the structure of the U.S. government.

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11
Q

What are exclusive powers?

A

Powers delegated to the federal government by the Constitution.

Examples include making treaties and declaring war.

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12
Q

What are reserved powers?

A

Powers kept by the states, as explained by the 10th Amendment.

These powers are not explicitly given to the federal government.

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13
Q

What is fiscal federalism?

A

The financial relationship between different levels of government, including grants and mandates.

It includes categorical grants and block grants.

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14
Q

What is an unfunded mandate?

A

A requirement imposed by the federal government without providing funds to cover the costs.

These were largely removed during the devolution revolution.

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15
Q

What was the USA Patriot Act?

A

It increased federal powers for surveillance to prevent terrorism.

Enacted after the September 11 attacks.

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16
Q

What does the No Child Left Behind Act require?

A

States must meet certain educational standards to receive federal funding.

Failure to meet these standards can lead to sanctions.

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17
Q

List the four parts of the Constitution that concern federalism.

A
  • Tenth Amendment
  • Fourteenth Amendment
  • Commerce Clause
  • Necessary and Proper Clause

Each part addresses different aspects of federal and state powers.

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18
Q

What case justified the creation of a national bank?

A

McCulloch v. Maryland.

It ruled that the necessary and proper clause implied certain powers.

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19
Q

What did U.S. v. Lopez determine?

A

Congress exceeded its authority under the commerce clause by banning guns on school property.

The ruling emphasized limits on federal power.

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20
Q

How long do representatives serve in the House?

A

Two-year terms.

More populous states have more representatives in the House.

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21
Q

How long do senators serve?

A

Six-year terms.

There are 100 senators in total.

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22
Q

What are enumerated powers?

A

Powers explicitly listed in Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution.

Includes federal funding, military legislation, and the power to declare war.

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23
Q

What are implied powers?

A

Powers not explicitly listed but necessary for Congress to carry out its functions.

Justified by the necessary and proper clause.

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24
Q

Who leads the House of Representatives?

A

The Speaker of the House.

The Speaker is chosen by House members and is always from the majority party.

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25
What is the role of whips in Congress?
To ensure party discipline and guide members in policy-making issues. ## Footnote They help manage party goals.
26
What is the role of the President of the Senate?
The Vice President of the United States. ## Footnote They are a non-voting member except to break ties.
27
What is a filibuster?
An attempt to stall or kill a bill by prolonging debate. ## Footnote It can be ended by a cloture rule requiring a three-fifths vote.
28
What is a discharge petition?
A mechanism to force a bill out of committee for a vote. ## Footnote It is used when a committee is delaying action on a bill.
29
What are the two types of spending in the federal budget?
* Mandatory spending * Discretionary spending ## Footnote Mandatory spending includes entitlement programs like Medicare.
30
What is political polarization?
The increasing divide between political parties leading to gridlock. ## Footnote It can hinder legislative progress.
31
What are models of representation?
* Trustee * Delegate * Politico ## Footnote Each model describes how representatives should act in regard to their constituents.
32
What did Baker v. Carr establish?
The principle of 'one person, one vote' for congressional districts. ## Footnote It addressed the issue of districting based on population changes.
33
What did Shaw v. Reno decide?
Redistricting based solely on race is unconstitutional. ## Footnote This case addressed issues of gerrymandering.
34
What is the veto power of the President?
The ability to reject legislation passed by Congress. ## Footnote Congress can override a veto with a two-thirds vote.
35
What are informal powers of the President?
* Bargaining * Persuasion * Executive orders * Signing statements ## Footnote These powers help the President influence legislation without formal authority.
36
What is the structure of the federal court system?
* U.S. District Courts (94) * U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals (12) * Supreme Court ## Footnote Each level has different jurisdictions.
37
What is stare decisis?
The legal principle of adhering to precedent in court decisions. ## Footnote It promotes consistency in the law.
38
What is judicial activism?
The idea that courts should interpret laws broadly to address social issues. ## Footnote Example: Brown v. Board of Education.
39
What is judicial restraint?
The idea that courts should only strike down laws that violate the Constitution literally. ## Footnote It emphasizes limited judicial intervention.
40
What is the highest level of authority in the bureaucracy?
Cabinet secretaries. ## Footnote They lead the 15 executive departments.
41
What is compliance monitoring in the bureaucracy?
The process of ensuring that rules and regulations are followed within industries. ## Footnote Agencies establish and enforce these rules.
42
What is an iron triangle?
The relationship between bureaucratic agencies, interest groups, and congressional committees. ## Footnote It represents a stable alliance that influences policy.
43
Name three bureaucratic departments.
* Department of Homeland Security * Department of Transportation * Department of Education ## Footnote Each department oversees specific areas of public policy.
44
What is the Pendleton Civil Service Act?
An act that established a merit system for federal employment. ## Footnote It was a response to the patronage system.
45
Define civil liberties.
Protections of individual freedoms from government interference. ## Footnote They are often enshrined in the Bill of Rights.
46
What does the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment state?
No state shall deprive any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. ## Footnote It forms the basis for selective incorporation.
47
What is selective incorporation?
The application of the Bill of Rights to the states on a case-by-case basis. ## Footnote Most rights have been incorporated today.
48
What is the establishment clause?
It prohibits the government from establishing an official religion. ## Footnote Example case: Engel v. Vitale.
49
What does the free exercise clause protect?
The right to practice one's religion freely. ## Footnote Example case: Wisconsin v. Yoder.
50
What is the 'clear and present danger' test?
A standard for restricting speech that presents a clear and immediate threat. ## Footnote Established in Schenck v. U.S.
51
What types of speech are unprotected?
* Libel * Slander * Obscenity * Speech inciting imminent illegal action ## Footnote These forms of speech are not protected by the First Amendment.
52
What did Tinker v. Des Moines establish?
Students have the right to free speech in schools through symbolic speech. ## Footnote The case involved students wearing armbands.
53
What is the significance of New York Times v. U.S.?
It established a heavy presumption against prior restraint in freedom of the press cases. ## Footnote This includes government censorship.
54
What did D.C. v. Heller establish?
An individual right to bear arms for self-defense. ## Footnote It affirmed the Second Amendment's protections.
55
Is the death penalty constitutional?
Yes, but certain groups are exempt. ## Footnote Minors and intellectually disabled individuals cannot be sentenced to death.
56
What was the outcome of McDonald v. Chicago?
The right to bear arms was incorporated to apply to the states. ## Footnote The case addressed Chicago's handgun ban.
57
Who is exempt from the death penalty according to constitutional rulings?
Minors, intellectually deficient persons, and people convicted of non-murder crimes.
58
What does due process refer to in the 5th and 14th Amendments?
Procedural due process; law must be applied fairly in a non-arbitrary manner.
59
Under the 4th Amendment, when is a search considered reasonable?
If the officer has probable cause, consent, or a search warrant.
60
What is the exclusionary rule?
Says that illegally obtained evidence cannot be used in a trial.
61
What was the significance of Gideon v. Wainwright?
Established that even poor people must be given counsel.
62
What does the Miranda Rule entail?
Suspects in custody must be informed of their 5th and 6th Amendment rights.
63
What is substantive due process?
The rights of individuals that governments can't intrude on.
64
Which case established a right to privacy as a substantive due process right?
Griswold v. Connecticut.
65
What did Roe v. Wade extend regarding privacy rights?
Extended the right to privacy to abortion rights.
66
What are civil rights?
Protection of groups of people from discrimination.
67
What clause is much of civil rights legislation based on?
Equal Protection Clause from the 14th Amendment.
68
What did MLK demand in the Letter from Birmingham Jail?
That the Equal Protection Clause and Declaration of Independence apply to minorities.
69
What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 accomplish?
Banned businesses from discrimination against minorities.
70
What is the purpose of the Voting Rights Act of 1965?
To eliminate barriers to voting for minorities.
71
What does Title IX prohibit?
Discrimination on the basis of sex in federally funded education programs.
72
What is affirmative action?
A clash between race-conscious and colorblind interpretation of the Constitution.
73
What level of scrutiny does the Court apply for race-based discrimination cases?
Strict scrutiny.
74
What level of scrutiny does the Court apply for gender-based discrimination cases?
Intermediate scrutiny.
75
What is political socialization?
How we acquire our beliefs.
76
What is the impressionable age hypothesis?
Political events that happen at a young age influence people's beliefs later.
77
What is a focus group?
A small group of voters chosen for in-depth discussion about a candidate.
78
What is a mass survey?
A way to measure public opinion about large populations.
79
What is a tracking poll?
A continuous poll to track changes in people's opinions over time.
80
What is a benchmark poll?
Conducted at the beginning of a political race to establish a baseline for comparison.
81
What are the key requirements for effective polls?
* Random sampling * Stratified sampling * Acceptable sampling error (+/-3%) * Neutral wording of questions.
82
What is fiscal policy?
Government tax and spending policies.
83
What does monetary policy influence?
The money supply and interest rates to stabilize the economy.
84
What is the Federal Reserve's dual mandate?
* Achieve maximum employment * Stabilize prices.
85
What happens if the Fed wants to reduce inflation?
Decrease the money supply and increase interest rates.
86
What do the 15th and 19th Amendments address?
Voting rights; 15th prohibits racial discrimination, 19th prohibits sex discrimination.
87
What does the 24th Amendment ban?
Poll taxes.
88
What is rational choice voting?
Voting based on perceived personal best interests.
89
What is party line voting?
Voting based on party affiliation.
90
What is retrospective voting?
Voting based on recent past performance.
91
What is prospective voting?
Voting based on predictions of future performance.
92
What is political efficacy?
The belief that a person's vote matters.
93
What factors increase the likelihood of voting?
* Higher education * Higher income * Age * Religiosity.
94
What are the functions of political parties?
* Mobilization and education of voters * Establish a party platform * Recruit candidates * Campaign management * Raise money * Media strategy.
95
What are critical elections?
Elections that lead to long-lasting party change.
96
What did Citizens United v. F.E.C. achieve?
Struck down the ban on soft money, asserting corporate free speech rights.
97
What is the difference between hard money and soft money?
* Hard money: contributions made directly to a campaign. * Soft money: contributions to political parties for party building.
98
What is a Super PAC?
Can raise and spend unlimited money independent of the candidate.
99
What is the role of interest groups?
To influence policy and educate voters and office holders.
100
What is the free rider problem?
People lack an incentive to join an interest group when they can benefit without joining.
101
What is the difference between a general election and a primary election?
* General election: winner gains political office. * Primary election: nominates party candidates for the general election.
102
What is a caucus?
A meeting of party members to choose a candidate for the general election.
103
What is an open primary?
Any registered voter may vote.
104
What is a closed primary?
Only registered party members may vote.
105
What is the purpose of national conventions?
To officially nominate the party’s presidential candidate and adopt a party platform.
106
What is the winner-take-all system?
Whoever wins the most votes in a state wins all of that state’s electoral votes.
107
What are arguments in favor of the electoral college?
* States retain a role in selecting the president * Ensures geographic balance * Guards against mob rule by uninformed voters.
108
What are arguments against the electoral college?
* Places too much emphasis on swing states * Undemocratic as it ignores the popular vote * Discourages third parties.
109
What is the typical voter turnout comparison between general elections and primaries?
Higher in general elections than in primaries.
110
What are the two types of campaign contributions?
* Hard money * Soft money.
111
What role does a watchdog play in journalism?
Investigative journalism.

AP Government and Politics (4 decks)

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