App PP

Question 1

Medical Records Retained for

Answer 1

5 yrs From Discharge

3 yrs after Resident reaches legal age

Question 2

Refer Residents with lost or damaged dentures for dental Services

Answer 2

within 3 days

Must promptly, within 3 days, refer residents with lost or damaged dentures for dental services. If a referral does not occur within 3 days, the facility must provide documentation of what they did to ensure the resident could still eat and drink adequately while awaiting dental services and the extenuating circumstances that led to the delay.

Question 3

PRN orders for psychotic drugs are limited to

Answer 3

14 days

Question 4

Facilities must post the Nursing staff data and retain for

Answer 4

minimum of 18 month

Question 5

Dental services

Answer 5

The facility must assist residents in obtaining routine and 24-hour emergency dental care.

Question 6

Frequency of Physicians visits

Answer 6

At least once every 30 days

for the first 90 days

at least once every 60 days thereafter

Question 7

Significant Weight Loss

Answer 7

1 Month 5% or greater

3 Months 7.5% or greater

6 Months 10% or greater

Question 8

Unstageable Pressure Ulcer

Answer 8

Obscured by slough or eschar

If the slough or eschar is removed a stage 3 or stage 4 will be revealed

Question 9

Stage 4 Pressure Ulcer

Answer 9

Exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone in the ulcer

Question 10

Stage 3 Pressure ulcer

Answer 10

Skin loss

Slough &/or Eschar may be visible

Question 11

Stage 2 Pressure Ulcer

Answer 11

Skin Loss

Exposed dermis

Question 12

Stage 1 Pressure injury

Answer 12

intact skin

Question 13

Venous or Stasis Ulcer

Answer 13

Open lesion

Question 14

Diabetic Neuropathic Ulcer

Answer 14

Requires that the Resident be diagnosed w/ diabetes Mellitus & have peripheral Neuropathy

Question 15

Arterial Ulcer

Answer 15

Inadequate Blood Supply to the extremity may initially present as intermittent claudication

Question 16

Palliative Care

Answer 16

Never Cure/Comfort care

Optimizes quality of life. preventing & treating suffering

Question 17

Activities Program Must be directed by a qualified professional that

Answer 17

Has 2yrs of experience in social or recreation program in the last 5 yrs

Has completed a train course approved by the state

Question 18

1-For newly admitted residents, the comprehensive care plan must be completed within

2- A residents assessment instrument/Comprehensive Assessment must be completed with in _______ after admission

3- For newly admitted residents , the comprehensive care plan must be completed within seven days of completion of. the comprehensive assessment and no more than

Answer 18

1- 7 Days

2- 14 days

3 - 21 Days after admission

Question 19

Interdisciplinary Team is made up of

Answer 19

A - Attending Physician

B - RN Responsible for the resident

C - A CNA/Nurse Aide responsible for the resident

D - Member of the Dietary TM

E - Residents Representative

Question 20

Comprehensive Care Plan is developed in

Answer 20

7 Days of the completion of the Comprehensive Assessment

excluding readmissions in which there is no significant change in the resident’s physical or mental condition

Not less than once every 12 months.

Question 21

Baseline Care Plan Consist of what

Answer 21

A - Initial Goals

B - Physicians Orders

C - Dietary Orders

D - Therapy Services

E - Social Services

F - PASARR = Pre-admission screening & Resident Review
(Recommendation if Applicable )

Question 22

Baseline Care Plan Do within

Answer 22

48 hrs of Residents Admission

Question 23

Transmittal requirements

Answer 23

Within 14 days after a facility completes a resident’s assessment,

Question 24

Encoding data

Answer 24

within 7 days after a facility completes a resident’s assessment

Question 25

Transmitting data

Answer 25

Within 7 days after a facility completes a resident’s assessment,

Question 26

Facilities are required to maintain _________ months of Assessments data in each Residents Active clinical Records

Answer 26

15

Question 27

When to report abuse

Answer 27

Immediately

No later then 2hrs after forming a suspicion of harm

No later then 24hrs if the event does not cause bodily injury

Question 28

& Components of the Abuse Policies

Answer 28

1 - Screening

2 - training

3- Prevention

4 - Identification

5 - Investigation

6 - Protection

7 - Reporting

Question 29

Maintain a Copy of All Grievances decisions for a period no less then

Answer 29

3yrs from the issuance of the grievance

Question 30

activities program must be directed by a qualified professional

Answer 30

1- Has 2 years of experience in a social or recreational program within the last 5 years, one of which was full-time in a therapeutic activities program; or

2- Has completed a training course approved by the State.

Question 31

(a) Vision and hearing

Answer 31

(1) In making appointments, and

(2) By arranging for transportation to and from

Question 32

“Colonized” refers

Answer 32

to the presence of micro-organisms on the surface or in the tissue of a wound without the signs and symptoms of an infection.

Question 33

“Infected” refers

Answer 33

to the presence of micro-organisms in sufficient quantity to overwhelm the defenses of viable tissues and produce the signs and symptoms of infection.

Question 34

“Eschar” is

Answer 34

dead or devitalized tissue that is hard or soft in texture

Question 35

“Slough” is

Answer 35

non-viable yellow, tan, gray, green or brown tissue

Question 36

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).

Answer 36

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires employers to have a MSDS available for all hazardous materials that staff use while performing their duties

Question 37

Water Temperature -

Answer 37

155°F.  1 sec
148°F   2 sec 
140°F   5 sec
133°F   15 sec
127°F    1 min 
124°F   3 min 
120°F   5 min 
100°F.   Safe Temperatures for Bathing ( notes )

Burns can occur even at water temperatures below those identified in the table, depending on an individual’s condition and the length of exposure

Question 38

Bacteriuria” is

Answer 38

defined as the presence of bacteria in the urine.

Question 39

“Continence” refers

Answer 39

to any void that occurs voluntarily, or as the result of prompted,
assisted, or scheduled use of the bathroom.

Question 40

“Urinary Incontinence” is

Answer 40

the involuntary loss or leakage of urine.

Question 41

“Urinary Retention” is

Answer 41

the inability to completely empty the urinary bladder by

micturition.

Question 42

Follow-Up of UTIs

Answer 42

Recurrent UTIs (2 or more in 6 months) in a noncatheterized individual may warrant additional evaluation (such as a determination of an abnormal post void residual (PVR) urine volume or a referral to a urologist) to rule out structural abnormalities such as enlarged prostate, prolapsed bladder, periurethral abscess, strictures, bladder calculi, polyps and tumors.