APP Written Exam Question Bank Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
When shall the responsibility for departing a/c be transferred from aerodrome contol to a unit providing approach control?
A
- When in VMC prevails in the vicinity of the aerodrome:
-Prior to the a/c leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or
- Prior to a/c entering IMC (whichever is earlier) - When in IMC;
-Immediately before the a/c enters the runway-in-use for take-off or
- Immediately after the a/c is airborne
-If local procedures render such action preferable.
2
Q
What is the definition of an apron?
A
A defined area, on a land aerodrome, used for the loading and unloading of passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking or maintenance.
3
Q
What is the definition of an aerodrome?
A
A defined area (inc any buildings installations and equipment) on land or water or on a fixed, off-shore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of a/c
4
Q
What is the definition of an ATZ?
A
Airspace of defined dimensions established for the protection of aerodrome traffic
5
Q
When will an ATZ be 2.5nm in radius rather than 2nm?
A
When the longest runway is longer than 1850m
6
Q
What is the definition of a CTR?
A
A Control Zone
Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit
7
Q
What is the definition of a CTA?
A
Controlled Area
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth
8
Q
What is the definition of a TMA?
A
Terminal Control Area
A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
9
Q
What is a TMZ?
A
Transponder Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which a/c are required to carry and operate a Mode S SSR transponder, unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed for that particular airspace by the ANSP
10
Q
What is an RMZ?
A
Radio Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is mandatory
11
Q
A
12
Q
What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?
A
(EU)2015/340
13
Q
List 5 items that must appear on an ATCO’s licence
A
- State issuing the licence
- Title of the licence
- Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
- Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
- Competent authority
- Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
- Signature of issuing officer and date
- Seal or stamp of competent authority
14
Q
Within what time period must an MOR be filed?
A
72 hours
15
Q
For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?
A
- Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
- Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
- Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
16
Q
State the two mechanisms available to the licencing authority if licencing action is required?
A
Suspension and Revocation
Suspension- To place licences, ratings or endorsements in abeyance, with conditions set.
Revocation- The act of withdrawing licences, ratings or endorsements
17
Q
Define a non-precision instrument runway
A
An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight in approach.
18
Q
Define a precision approach runway
A
An instrument runway intended for the operation of a/c using precision approach aids that meet the facility performance requirements defined in ICAO Annex 10 appropriate to the categories of ops
19
Q
When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?
A
By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions
When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II
20
Q
List the types of precision approach
A
PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)
21
Q
List the types of non-precision approach
A
RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF
22
Q
Define the ARP
A
Aerodrome Ref Point
The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.
Ususally the centre of the longest runway
23
Q
Define runway
A
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
24
Q
Define a manoeuvring area
A
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, excluding aprons
25
Define a movement area
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons
26
Define the stopway
A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the TORA prepared as a suitable area in which an a/c can be stopped in the case of abandoned take-off.
27
Define the clearway
A defined rectangular area under the control of the appropriate entity, selected or prepared as suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
28
Define the TORA
Take-Off Run Available
The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. In most cases it will correspond to the length of the runway pavement
29
Define the TODA
Take-Off Distance Available
The TORA + the length of any associated clearway
30
Define the ASDA
Accelerated Stop Distance Available
TORA+ any associated Stopway
31
Define the LDA
Landing Distance Available
The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground landing of an a/c
32
What colour will aerodrome beacons be?
White flashes/ white and coloured flashes alternating
Land=green
Water=yellow
33
Where is the ARP normally located?
At the centrepoint of the longest runway
34
In which order must ATC report them to pilots?
In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use
35
A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?
Wet
36
What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?
up to and including 3mm
37
What does the number 6 indicate?
Dry runway
38
What number will be assigned to a wet runway?
5
39
What is meant by the term slippery wet?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded
40
What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?
Standing Water
41
What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?
exceeds
25%
42
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
43
What name is given to NOTAMS which deal with contimination by snow?
SNOWTAMS
44
Where does the STAR end and the initial approach segement commence?
IAF- Initial Approach Fix
45
What is the difference between a FAF and a FAP?
FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches)
FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)
46
What are the ICAO recommended from pilots if the a/c is not stable by these points?
500ft in VMC
1000ft in IMC
both above aerodrome elevation
47
Under the flexible use of airspace concept how long should airspace segregation last?
Should only be temporary
48
What are, a) Temporary Segregated Areas, b) Temporary Reserved Areas, and c) Cross-Border Areas?
a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.
b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance
c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries
49
What is the defintion of a Danger Area?
airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of a/c may exist at specified times
50
What is a conditional route?
a non-permanent ATS route that is only available for flight planning and use under certain specified conditions
51
Which of the classes of airspace are CAS?
A
B
C
D
E
52
What is Class F airspace?
Advisory airspace
53
In which class of airspace are VFR flights not allowed?
Class A
54
In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?
E, F and G
55
In which classes of airspace may all flights operate without an ATC clearance?
F and G
56
In which classes of airspace are all flights separated?
A and B
57
In which classes of airspace are VFR flights separated from IFR flights?
B and C
58
What rules apply to the separation of IFR and VFR flights in Class D airspace (including the caveat)?
IFR separated from other IFR and SVFR and vice versa.
IFR given traffic information on VFR and vice versa with avoidance advice given if requested
59
What is the generic speed limit (and below what level it does it apply?)
250kts IAS below FL100
60
What do we provide to VFR flights on other VFR in Class C airspace?
Traffic Info
61
What is the definition of an Aerodrome Traffic Circuit?
The specified path to be flown by a/c operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome
62
What is the definition of aerodrome elevation?
The elevation of the highest point on the landing area
63
The ACN is a ______ expressing the relative effect of an a/c _______ on a __________ for a specified _______ grade
Number
Load
Pavement
Sub
64
The _______ is a number expressing the _________ strength of a pavement for ____________ ops. They are reported in the AD section of the AIP as a _______ part code
PCN
Bearing
unrestricted
five
65
What does approach lighting provide a pilot?
a) Alignment
b) Roll guidance
c) limited distance to go
d) For visual completion of an instrument approach
66
For how much length of a CAT I approach runway is the lighting yellow?
the last 600m
67
Give an example of essential local traffic which is to be transmitted to departing a/c without delay
Any a/c, vehicle of person on or near the runway to be used for a./c in take-off, climbout or final appraoch which is a collision hazard
68
What would consitute essential aerodrome information?
Construction or maintenance work on, or immediately adjacent to the movement area
Rough or broken surfaces on a runway, a taxiway or an apron whether marked or not
Snow, Ice or slush on a runway, taxiway or an apron
Water on a runway, taxiway or apron
Snow banks or drifts
Parked a/c on or near to the manoeuvring area
Unusually large birds or flocks of birds on or near the aerodrome
Failure or irregular operation of aerodrome ground lighting
Failure or irregular operation of approach aids
69
List the conditions that would trigger SIGMETS
Thunderstorm
Tropical cyclone
Heavy hail
Severe mountain waves
Freezing rain
Heavy dust or sandstorm
Severe icing
Volcanic ash cloud
Severe turbulence
70
List info that would appear on an ATIS
Time
Code
Type of approach
Runway in use
METAR
Altimeter settings
RVR
EAI
SIGMET
Specific ATIS instructions
71
What is the definition of an Air Report?
A report from an a/c in flight in conformity with requirements for position, and operational and/or met reporting
72
What other means of comms are available to a pilot apart from the main radio?
Standby radio
Emergency Radios- handheld
SELCAL
CPDLC
SITA (ACARS)
Mobile Phone
73
What is the definition of VM(C)?
Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) is the term used to describe the Visual Phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, where an a/c is manoeuvred into position for a landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight in approach
74
What are the segements of the instrument approach?
1. Arrival
2. Initial (IAF IF)
3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP)
4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt)
5. Missed Approach
75
What is a VM (C) Approach?
A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway
76
What determines whether an a/c will continue its approach or will go-around on reaching its decisions altitude?
Whether they have established visual reference
77
Define a step-down fix
Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach
78
There are several details that must appear or accompany the ATCO licence. Which are your responsibility?
1. Signature of the holder
2. The accompanying medical certificate
79
True or false.
A precision approach minima is defined as the MDA/MDH?
False
80
True or false.
A non-precision approach minima is defined as the DA/DH?
False
81
What is the ATC response when notified of TCAS RA?
Do not issue instructions contrary to crew actions
82
In what plane are TCAS RAs given?
Vertical
83
Below what level are increase decent RAs inhibited?
1450ft AGL
84
Below what level are descent RAs inhibited?
1100ft AGL
85
Below what level are all RAs inhibited?
1000ft
86
When notified of RA the controller shall resume responsibility for providing separation for all the a/c affected when?
a) The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the a/c has resumed the current clearance; or
b) The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the a/c is resuming the current clearance and issues an alternative clearance which is acknowledged by the flight crew
87
How many licences can an ATCO hold at any one time?
1
88
A just culture is a ______ in which "front line operators" or others are not ________ for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience or training, but where _____ negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not _______
Culture
Punished
Gross
Tolerated
89
What is the definition of OCA/OCH?
The lowest altitude/height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or above the aerodrome elevation as applicable used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
90
What must be ensured before the control of an a/c is transferred from one unit to another?
Consent of the accepting control unit
Co-ordination
91
The accepting unit shall notify the transferring unit when
a) it has established two-way voice or data-link comms
b) assumed control
(unless otherwise specified between the two units concerned)
92
In the vincinity of an aerodrome, when does the responsibility transfer from approach to aerodrome?
a) it is considered that approach and landing will be completed with visual reference to the ground
b) it has reached uninterrupted VMC
93
True or false
Flights can be transferred directly from ACC to ADC?
True
94
Which a/c do APC have control of with regard to ACC?
a) Arriving a/c released by ACC
b) Departing a/c until released to ACC
95
A unit providing an approach control service shall;
Assume _____ or arriving a/c (provided such a/c have been released to it) upon arrival of the a/c at the ______ for _____________________
_________ control during approach to the aerodrome
Control
Point agreed
Transfer of control
Maintain
96
List four elements of information disseminated by ATSU to all concerned relating to unmanned free balloons
a) The flight identification or project code name;
b) Balloon classification and description;
c) SSR Code or NDB frequency as applicable;
d) Operators name and tel number
e) The launch site;
f) The ETD or the planned period of the launches;
g) Number of balloons and interval between launches
h) The expected direction of ascent;
i) The cruising level(s) (pressure-altitude); and
j) The EET to pass 60 000 ft pressure-altitude, or to reach cruising level if at or
below 60 000 ft, together with the estimated location.
k) the estimated date and time of termination of the flight and the planned location of the impact/recovery area
97
What is a reporting point?
A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an a/c canx be reported
98
A significant point is defined as
A specifed geographical location used in defining an ATS route or the flight path of an a/c and for other navigation and ATS purposes
99
To whom shall position reports be made?
To the ATS unit serving the airspace in which the a/c is operated
100
What main points of info shall a position report contain?
A/c ident
Position
Time
101
On routes defined by designated significant points, when shall position reports be made?
Over, or
As soon as possible after passing each designated compulsory reporting point
Additional reports over other points may be requested by the appropriate ATS unit
102
On routes NOT defined by designated significant points, when shall position reports be made?
As soon as possible after the first half hour of flight, and at hourly intervals thereafter
Additional reports over shorter periods of time may be requested by the appropriate ATS unit
103
Separation standards are a minima and shall be increased when?
Requested by the pilot
ATCO considers in necessary
As directed by the national authority
104
List the elements of essential traffic
Direction of flight
Type of a/c concerned (including W/T cat)
Cruising level of the a/c concerned
and either;
a) Estimated time over the reporting point nearest to where the level will be crossed, or;
b) relative bearing of the a/c in terms of the 12 hour clock and distance from conflicting a/c, or;
c) actual or estimated position of the a/c concerned
105
Longitudinal separation shall be established by requiring a/c to;
Depart at a specified time
Lose or gain time to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time
To hold over a geographical location until a specified time
106
What weather may cause inaccuracies to an NDB?
Electrical storms
107
What elements are required to be passed with regard to windshear?
(1) A warning of the presence of windshear;
(2) The height or height band where the shear was encountered;
(3) The time at which it was encountered;
(4) Details of the effect of the windshear on the aircraft, e.g. speed gain or loss,
vertical speed tendency, change in drift.
108
Where ATIS is not available, what information shall be passed to a/c as soon as practicable
* Runway in Use.
* METAR + Time of Observation.
* MET or RWY Conditions.
* Pilot Reports. (AIREP)
* Essential Aerodrome Information.
109
Describe the 1 minute departure separation
**1 min-** If the a/c are flying on different tracks separated by at least 45°. *Minima may be reduced if using lateral runways which do not cross, procedure must be approved and lateral separation must be effected immediately after take off.*
110
Describe the 2 minute departure separation
**2 min-** For tracks not separated by 45° provided that the preceding a/c is 40kts or more faster and neither aircraft is cleared to execute a manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 min separation between them.
111
Describe the 5 minute departure separations
**5 min-** Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the following aircraft.
**5 min-** Provided that 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the a/c will be subesequently separated either;
1) Vertically
2) by Tracks which diverte by 30° or more; or
3) by radar
* Only to be used at locations approved by CAA*
112
What is the time based departure separation when none of the others can be applied?
10 minutes
113
When a subsequent arriving a/c elects to hold for weather improvement and there is an a/c holding below them, they are to be informed;
Delay not determined, one a/c holding for weather improvement
114
A holding pattern is usually;
right hand and takes 4 minutes to fly
115
A sector 2 procedure is known as;
Offset Entry
116
A sector 1 procedure is know as;
Parallel Entry
117
A sector 3 procedure is known as;
A direct entry
118
When is the vertical position reported to ATSU's as a flight level?
(1) At, or above, the transition level.
(2) Climbing through the transition layer.
(3) Above 3,000 ft amsl and not in the vicinity of an aerodrome
119
When is the vertical position reported to ATSU's as an altitude?
(1) At, or below, the transition altitude, i.e. in the vicinity of an aerodrome or beneath
specified TMAs and CTAs listed in ENR 1-7-2.
(2) Descending through the transition layer.
(3) During final approach.
120
When is the vertical position reported to ATSU's as a height?
During final approach, as local procedures require or when requested by the pilot.
121
When is the vertical position reported to ATSU's using the RPS?
At, or below, 3,000 ft amsl when outside controlled airspace and not in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
122
What does an APP control rating allow an ATCO to provide?
Indicating that the licence holder ifs competent to provide an ATC service to arriving, departing or transiting a/c without the use of surveillance equipment
123
What is the role and mission of the Safety Investigation Branch
To improve aviation safety by determining the causes of air accidents and serious incidents and
making safety recommendations intended to prevent recurrence
124
Define a runway
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of a/c
125
Define a taxiway
A defined path on an aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another
126
Define a rapid exit taxiway
A taxiway connected at an acute angle and designed to allow landing
aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times
127
What is a RESA?
RESA is intended to minimise the risks arising when an aeroplane overruns or undershoots a
runway.
Shall be provided at each end of the strip enclosing Runways Code 3 & 4 and Instrument Runway Code 1 & 2.
128
What colour are runway markings?
White
129
What colour are taxiway markings?
Yellow
130
How will tall structures be lit?
these will have one red light at the
top, and other red lights (evenly spaced) displayed for every 45 metres of height.
131
How will large structures be lit?
Vertically, each end of large buildings is lit as above, with additional red lights displayed
horizontally and uniformly for every 45 m of lateral dimensions.
132
133
How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?
900m
134
Describe coded runway centreline lighting towards the end of the runway
900m from the end the lights start to alternate red and white (for 600m), final 300m are solid red
135
Describe the change in colour of runway edge lights towards the end of the runway
Lights turn yellow for the last 600m or 1/3 of the runway length whichever is less.
136
What colour are a) Civilian and b) Military Aerodrome Identification Beacons?
a) Green
b) Red
137
What is meant by ACN and PCN? (or ACR and PCR as it is in the presentations now)
ACR-Aircraft Classification Rating (or Number) -A number expressing the relative effect of an a/c load on a pavement for a specified sub-grade
PCR- Pavement Classification Rating (or Number)- A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations
138
What is meant by a Strip?
An area enclosing a runway or any associated stopway
Reduces risk of damage to a/c that run off the runway
139
What is meant by the Clear and Graded Area?
An area within the runway strip whose dimensions are determined by the function of the strip in which it lies
Only obstacles small and frangible are allowed in this area
140
What is the minimum length of a RESA for a Code 1 and 2 runway?
30m
141
What is the minimum length of the RESA for code 3 and 4 runways?
90m
142
What does CPDLC stand for?
Controller Pilot Datalink Comms
143
What will a voice position report contain?
A/c ident
Position
Time
Flight level or altitude, including passing level and cleared level if not maintaining cleared level
Next position and time over and
Ensuing significant point
144
145
What is an EAT?
Expected Approach Time
The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing
146
When shall an EAT be issued?
When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 10 mins or more (or as determined by authority)
147
What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?
Normal;
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 230kt
Turbulent
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 280kt
148
What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?
Normal- 240kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
149
What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft
Normal- 265kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
150
What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?
1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft
151
Describe the standard holding procedure
152
Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold
153
Describe the Offset Entry procedure
154
Describe the Direct Entry Procedure
155
How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?
4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft
5 mins above this
156
What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?
<91kts IAS
157
What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?
91kts-120kts IAS
158
What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?
121kts- 140kts IAS
159
What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?
141kts- 165kts IAS
160
What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?
166kts-210kts IAS
161
Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?
Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
162
What is the VM(C) Area?
Visual Manoeuvring Circling Area
Area in which obstacle clearance has been considered for a/c manoeuvring visually before landing. Determined by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining these arcs with tangent lines
163
What is the definition of a holding procedure?
A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an a/c within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance
164
What is a holding fix?
A geographical location that serves as a reference for a holding procedure
165
What other entry methods to a holding procedure are there?
Along a Holding Radial
Via a DME Arc
Via a secondary fix
166
What separation is required from a holding facility?
Either vertical or 5 mins/a prescribed distance from the path of a/c in the holding pattern
167
When shall a revised EAT be issued?
When it differs from that previously transmitted by 5 minutes or more
168
What is the symbol for "no delay expected?"
169
What is the symbol for delay not determined?
Z
170
What is the strip marking for Onward Clearance Time?
OCT
171
Define a precision approach
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the cat of operation
172
Define a non-precision approach
An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance
173
What datum is used to determine OCH?
Aerodrome elevation or runway threshold elevation
174
What is a step-down fix?
Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach
175
What is the symbol for a step down fix
A white diamond
176
What is the minimum level for IFR a/c?
Over high terrain or in mountainous areas at least 2000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c position
Elsewhere at least 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the a/c position
177
What is the landing interval for ILS/DME approaches?
8 mins
178
What is the landing interval for VOR/DME approaches?
7 mins
179
What is the landing interval for an RNP?
Cat A= 8 mins
Cat B-D= 6 mins
180
When may an a/c be cleared to a level previously occupied by another?
When the other a/c has reported vacating the level except when;
Severe Turbulence is know to exist
The higher a/c is effecting a cruise climb; or
The difference in a/c performance is such that less than the applicable separation minimum may result
181
What is considered same track?
When the tracks of both a/c are separated by less than 45 degrees
182
What is considered reciprocal tracks?
When the track of one a/c is separated from the reciprocal track of another by less than 45 degrees
183
What are crossing tracks?
Any tracks not same or reciprocal
184
What is the standard time based long separation for a/c on same track and level?
15 mins or 10mins if nav aids permit frequenct determination of pos and speed
185
When may long sep for a/c at same level and on the same track be reduced and to what?
5 mins;
Where the first a/c is maintaining a TAS 20kts or more faster than the succeeding a/c that have reported over the same ERP of departed from the same aerodrome, or;
Between departing and en-route a/c after the en-route a/c has reported over a fix, so located as to ensure tha 5 minute sep can be established at the point the dep a/c will join the route and where the en-route a/c is 20kts or more TAS faster than the dep a/c
These can both be reduced to 3 mins where the speed of the first a/c is 40kts or more TAS faster than the succeeding a/c
186
What is the time based long sep for a/c crossing tracks?
15 mins or 10 mins where nav aids allow frequent determination of position and speed
187
What are the time based long seps for a/c on the same track but climbing/descending through levels?
15 minutes while vertical separation does not exist, 10 mins if nav aids allow frequent determination of position and speed
188
When may time based long sep between a/c on the same track but climbing/descending through levels be reduced?
To 5 mins while vertical sep does not exist provided that the level change is commenced within 10 mins of the time the second a/c has reported over an ERP
189
What are the time based long seps for a/c on reciprocal tracks where they are climbing/descending?
vertical sep will be provided for at least 10 minutes prior to and after the time the a/c are estimated to pass or the time the a/c are estimated to have passed. (not 20 mins total, just ensure that both a/c are 10 mins from the same point)
190
What does the term on track mean in regards to long sep between a/c using DME or GNSS?
That the a/c is flying either directly inbound or outbound from the station or waypoint
191
What is the distance based long sep for a/c on same track and level?
20nm provided both on track to DME station
192
When may distance based long sep be reduced and to what?
10nm provided that;
The leading a/c is 20kts or more TAS faster than the following a/c and each is on track to/from the DME station
193
What are the distance based long seps for a/c crossing tracks?
They are the same as the same-track ones provided the relative angle between tracks is less than 90 degrees
194
What are the distance based long seps for a/c on same track that are climbing/descending?
10nm while vertical sep does not exist provided they are on track to same DME station and one a/c maintains a level while vertical sep does not exist
195
What are the distance based long seps for a/c on reciprocal tracks?
10nm if both a/c on track to same DME and/or collocated waypoint, and provided that it has been positively established that the a/c have passed each other by at least 10nm
196
How is lateral sep obtained?
By requiring a/c to operate on;
Different routes, or;
In different geographical locations as determined by visual obs, use of nav aids or RNAV equip
197
What are the lateral seps for VOR in ICAO?
198
What are the lateral seps using NDB in ICAO?
199
What is the separation available between a/c that have already commenced the instrument procedure and departing a/c?
Up to three minutes before the estimated landing time of the arriving a/c. (expected landing time -3 mins is the clearance expiry time)
200
When may long and lat separations be reduced?
As determined by the appropriate ATS authority after prior consultation with the a/c operators
In accordance with regional air nav agreements after prior consultation with the a/c operators
in the vicinity of the aerodrome
201
When may a/c be permitted to climb in VMC?
Essential Tx info given
It is requested by the pilot of an a/c and the pilot of the other a/c agrees
In class D and E airspace
during the day
in VMC
below 10000ft
202
What is essential traffic information?
Traffic information between a/c which are not, or will not be, separated by the required separation minimum
