April 2025 Flashcards

Question

Consider the following statements regarding North Sentinel Island: 1. It is one of the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. 2. It harbours one of the world's last secluded tribes — the Sentinelese. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 1

2 only Explanation : A U.S. national was recently arrested in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands for allegedly entering the prohibited tribal reserve area of North Sentinel Island. About North Sentinel Island: It is one of the Andaman Islands - an archipelago in the Bay of Bengal - and part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located west of the central cluster of the Andaman Islands. The island measures approximately 8 kilometers (5.0 mi) in length and 7 kilometers (4.3 mi) in width, covering an area of about 60 square kilometers (23 sq mi). The island is densely covered in tropical rainforest. It’s also circled by a shallow reef. It harbours one of the world's last secluded tribes — the Sentinelese. They are believed to be direct descendants of the first humans who migrated out of Africa around 60,000 years ago. The tribe has lived in voluntary isolation for thousands of years, fiercely resisting contact with the outside world. The island falls under the Andaman and Nicobar Protection of Aboriginal Tribes Act, 1956, making it illegal to approach closer than 5 nautical miles. According to a 2011 census effort, and based on anthropologists' estimates, there are probably somewhere between 80 and 150 people on North Sentinel Island, although it could be as many as 500 or as few as 15. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andaman-and-nicobar-islands/us-national-arrested-for-entering-restricted-island-in-andamans/article69404783.ece

Answer 2

Kerala Explanation : A new species of damselfly, Euphaea wayanadensis, has been discovered in the Wayanad region of the Western Ghats, Kerala. This discovery adds to Kerala’s 191st recorded odonate species and the 223rd odonate species documented from the Western Ghats. The findings were published in the peer-reviewed journal ENTOMON. About Euphaea wayanadensis Classification: Belongs to the family Euphaeidae. First sightings: Initially observed in 2013 at the Kalindi River, Thirunelli, in Wayanad district, Kerala. Further sightings occurred from 2013 to 2019 in Wayanad, followed by more observations from 2019 to 2023 in Aralam (Kannur, Kerala) and the western slopes of Coorg (Karnataka). Identification challenges: Initially misidentified as Euphaea pseudodispar, a species from Maharashtra. Later confirmed as a distinct species through detailed morphological study and genetic analysis. Key Morphological Features Distinctive hind wing: Features a longer black patch compared to related species. Striking colouration: Males display broader and uninterrupted humeral and antehumeral stripes. Unique genital structure: The male genital vesicle exhibits structural traits that differ from closely related species. Habitat and Distribution Prefers fast-flowing streams with rocky beds and aquatic vegetation. Thrives in evergreen and semi-evergreen forest regions along stream banks. Active throughout the year, except in the dry seasons of March and April. Shows highly restricted distribution, making it vulnerable to habitat loss and climate change. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-damselfly-species-discovered-in-wayanad/article69404679.ece#:~:text=A%20group%20of%20researchers%20have,be%20documented%20from%20the%20Ghats.

Answer 3

India and Sri Lanka Explanation : The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has once again unanimously adopted a resolution urging the Union government to retrieve Katchatheevu from Sri Lanka. About Katchatheevu Islands Location: Katchatheevu is a 285-acre uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka. It is 33 km northeast of Rameswaram (India) and 62 km southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka). Strategic Importance: Acts as a maritime boundary marker between India and Sri Lanka. Fisheries-rich zone, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s fishing economy. St. Anthony’s Church is a place of religious significance for fishermen of both nations. Historical Ownership of Katchatheevu It was formed due to a volcanic eruption in the 14th century. Initially ruled by the Jaffna kingdom (Sri Lanka), later controlled by the Ramnad Zamindari under the Nayak dynasty (Madurai). British India and Sri Lanka both claimed the island until the 1974 agreement settled sovereignty in Sri Lanka’s favor. International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) The IMBL between India and Sri Lanka was delineated in 1974 under the Indo-Sri Lankan maritime boundary agreement. Established based on UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea). Maritime boundaries are often defined by the equidistance principle, ensuring a medial line equidistant from both nations' coasts. The IMBL determines Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs), Territorial waters and Other maritime zones. The 1974 agreement adjusted the equidistant line, leading to Katchatheevu falling under Sri Lanka's sovereignty. Other Maritime Disputes With Pakistan: Sir Creek Dispute: A boundary dispute over the demarcation of a 96 km estuary in Gujarat. With Bangladesh: New Moore Island (South Talpatti dispute): Permanently settled in Bangladesh’s favour after a 2014 ruling by the Permanent Court of Arbitration. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:T.N. Assembly unanimously adopts resolution on Katchatheevu retrieval from Sri Lanka - The Hindu

Answer 4

ChaSTE Explanation : Chandrayaan-3’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) became the first instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the moon’s south pole. It successfully penetrated lunar soil and deployed a thermal probe, achieving what two previous missions—ESA’s Philae (2014) and NASA’s InSight HP3 (2018)—could not. This experiment provided crucial data on lunar surface temperatures, strengthening evidence of water ice deposits. How ChaSTE Works ChaSTE’s thermal probe was integrated into the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3, which landed on August 23, 2023. The probe is equipped with 10 temperature sensors placed 1 cm apart along its length, near the nose-tip. It uses a rotation-based deployment mechanism instead of a hammering device, which played a crucial role in its success. The motor rotates, pushing the probe downward until the tip touches the Moon’s surface. As the probe continues to penetrate deeper, the increasing resistance from the lunar soil helps determine how far it has descended. ChaSTE successfully reached a depth of 10 cm in the Moon’s regolith, where it continuously monitored temperature variations until September 2, 2023. The final temperature readings from the deep lunar soil confirmed thermal properties essential for lunar exploration. Comparisons with Previous Missions ESA’s Philae lander (2014) on Comet 67P: It carried the MUPUS instrument to measure surface and subsurface temperatures. Failed due to an awkward landing, preventing the probe from being deployed properly. NASA’s InSight lander (2018) on Mars: Included the Heat Flow and Physical Properties Package (HP3), featuring a self-hammering nail nicknamed "The Mole" designed to penetrate 5 meters underground. Encountered low friction in Martian sand, preventing it from burrowing deep enough to collect meaningful temperature data. The temperature sensors were attached to a tether, not on the mole itself, which made data collection impossible. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/chandrayaan-3-chaste-instrument-first-successful-thermal-probe-celestial-body/article69403476.ece

Answer 5

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam confirmed the presence of excessive fluoride in 120 hamlets, affecting nearly 2 lakh people. Some villages recorded fluoride levels of 2 mg/L or more, exceeding the safe limit of 1-1.5 mg/L. What is Fluoride? Fluoride is a naturally occurring element found in groundwater. The national drinking water limit for fluoride is 1.50 mg/L. Excessive fluoride consumption can cause skeletal fluorosis, accelerate dental decay, and pose serious health risks, particularly for children. States with High Fluoride Contamination Rajasthan has the highest fluoride contamination in India. Other affected states include Telangana, western Andhra Pradesh, and eastern Karnataka. Fluoride levels spike during the dry, summer pre-monsoon months, with arid regions in western India showing higher contamination than humid areas. Other Groundwater Contaminants in India: Apart from fluoride, India's groundwater is also contaminated with several other harmful elements: Arsenic Contamination: Found in West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, covering 90% of arsenic contamination cases in India. Uranium Contamination: Found in 12 states, including Punjab. Iron Contamination: Severe in states like Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Assam. Other contaminants, such as antimony, cadmium, copper, and barium, also pose risks, leading to toxicity, hypertension, and liver and kidney damage. Legislative and Policy Measures to Address Contamination Several laws and initiatives have been introduced to control water contamination: Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 Environment Protection Act, 1986 The Water Cess Act, 1977 Additionally, various government schemes focus on groundwater recharge and conservation: Prime Minister Krishi Sinchayee Yojana – Watershed Development Atal Bhujal Yojana (focused on sustainable groundwater management) Role of the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) CGWA was established under Section 3(3) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 to regulate groundwater resources. Major Functions of CGWA: Regulating and managing groundwater resources to prevent over-extraction. Issuing necessary regulatory directions for conservation and usage. Exercising powers under Section 4 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 to appoint officers for enforcement. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/sonbhadra-groundwater-excess-fluoride-residents-sicker-govt-report-9916047/

Answer 6

Myanmar Explanation : The recent Myanmar earthquake occurred due to strike-slip faulting along the Sagaing Fault, which separates the Indian Plate from the Eurasian Plate. What is the Sagaing Fault? The Sagaing Fault is a major active tectonic boundary running north to south through Myanmar, separating the Indian and Eurasian Plates. It is one of the longest and most active strike-slip faults globally, extending 1,500 km from the Andaman Sea in the south to the Eastern Himalayas in the north. The Indian Plate is moving northward, causing stress buildup along the fault, leading to large earthquakes over time. Types of Faults and Their Role in Earthquakes Faults are fractures in the Earth’s crust where rocks move due to tectonic stress. When stress accumulates beyond a critical limit, energy is released as seismic waves, causing earthquakes. The main types of faults include: Normal Fault: The hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall, common at divergent boundaries. (Example: East African Rift Valley, Basin and Range Province in the U.S.) Reverse Fault: The hanging wall moves upward due to compression forces, occurring at convergent boundaries. (Example: Himalayas, Rocky Mountains) Strike-Slip Fault: The horizontal movement of fault blocks occurs with minimal vertical displacement, typical of transform boundaries. (Example: Anatolian Fault in Turkey, Sagaing Fault in Myanmar) Transform Fault: A specific type of strike-slip fault where tectonic plates slide past each other. (Example: San Andreas Fault in California) Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-did-the-myanmar-earthquake-occur-explained/article69403721.ece

Answer 7

To discover exoplanets around bright dwarf stars. Explanation : Using the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), an international team of astronomers recently detected a new warm Jupiter exoplanet located more than 1,000 light years away. About Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS): TESS is a NASA mission that was launched in March 2018. It is a small space telescope designed to discover thousands of exoplanets in orbit around the brightest dwarf stars in the sky. It is a follow-up to NASA's highly successful Kepler space telescope, which found thousands of exoplanets during a decade of work after its launch in 2009. In its prime mission, a two-year survey of the solar neighborhood, TESS monitored the brightness of stars for periodic drops caused by planet transits. This method reveals the diameter of the planet and the size of its orbit. Orbits within a certain range lie in the “habitable zone”, where liquid water can exist on the surface of an Earth-like world. The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now in an extended mission. TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy. TESS finished its primary mission by imaging about 75% of the starry sky as part of a two-year-long survey. In capturing this giant mosaic, TESS found 66 new exoplanets. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-04-distant-jupiter-tess.html

Answer 8

1 only Explanation : India and Russia have commenced a six-day naval exercise, 'Indra', off the coast of Chennai, involving sophisticated maritime drills and live weapon firings. About Exercise INDRA: It is an India - Russia bilateral naval exercise. Since its inception in 2003, Exercise Indra has epitomised the long-term strategic relationship between the Indian and Russian navies. The exercise has evolved into a symbol of maritime cooperation, showcasing the two nations' commitment to enhancing naval interoperability and operational synergy. INDRA 2025: It is the 14th edition of the exercise. The exercise is being conducted in two phases: Harbour phase at Chennai and Sea phase in the Bay of Bengal. The Harbour Phase included an opening ceremony, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs), reciprocal visits, sports fixtures, and pre-sail briefings between personnel from both navies. The sea phase of the exercise will witness advanced naval drills, including tactical manoeuvres, live weapon firings, anti-air operations, underway replenishment, helicopter cross-deck landings, and exchange of sea riders. It is witnessing participation of Russian naval ships -- Pechanga, Rezkiy, and Aldar Tsydenzhapov. The Indian Navy has deployed its warships Rana, Kuthar, and maritime patrol aircraft P8l. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-russia-kick-start-6-day-naval-exercise/articleshow/119666406.cms?from=mdr

Answer 9

Brahmaputra Explanation : Environmentalists recently raised concerns with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) over alleged hazardous effluent discharge from Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) into the Dhansiri River, warning of severe ecological damage. About Dhansiri River: Dhansiri is the main river of Golaghat District of Assam and the Dimapur District of Nagaland. It forms an important tributary to the Brahmaputra River. Course: It originates from Laisang Peak of Nagaland. For the first 40 km from its source, the river flows in a northwesterly direction, and thereafter it flows northeast for about 76 km up to Dimapur. Beyond Dimapur, the direction of flow is generally northerly up to Golaghat, where the river takes an abrupt turn towards the northwest and ultimately joins the Brahmaputra at Dhansirimukh, Assam. The total length of the river from its source to outfall is approximately 352 km. Its total catchment area is 1,220 sq.km. It flows through the Nagaland -Assam border harbouring rich flora and fauna. On one side is the Dhansiri Reserved Forest, and on the other is Intanki National Park. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Apr/03/assam-environmentalist-flags-refinery-effluent-discharge-into-dhansiri-river

Answer 10

2 only Explanation : Indonesia's Mount Marapi erupted recently, sending a column of ash 1.5km (4,900ft) above its peak. About Mount Marapi: It is an active volcano located in the Padang Highlands of western Sumatra, Indonesia. It is a stratovolcano composed of layers of hardened lava, ash, and rocks from previous eruptions. It is part of the Ring of Fire—a long, horseshoe-shaped, seismically active belt that rings the Pacific Ocean. The highest peak among several volcanoes in the highlands, Mount Marapi rises to 9,485 feet (2,891 meters) above sea level. Its summit contains the Bancah caldera—which has a diameter of 0.9 mile (1.4 km)—and is characterized by a series of overlapping craters. The volcano’s deadliest single event, which resulted in the deaths of 60 people, came in 1979 after heavy rains saturated a region of loose ash (called a lahar) on the slopes that was left over from an earlier eruption. It is often confused with a similar active volcano called Mount Merapi, which is located near the center of the island of Java, Indonesia. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.bbc.com/news/videos/cql6rnyqy6xo

Answer 11

Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary Explanation : Delhi’s forest and wildlife department is set to install 45 motion-based camera traps across the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary in the coming weeks, in order to collect data on wildlife at the park. About Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the South Delhi Ridge of the Aravalli hill range on the Delhi-Haryana border, located in southern Delhi. The sanctuary is part of the Southern Ridge and has biodiversity significance as it merges with the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It is an important part of the North Aravalli Leopard Wildlife Corridor, which starts from Sariska National Park in Rajasthan, passes through various districts of Haryana, and finally meets the Delhi Ridge. Vegetation: As per Champion & Seth (1968), the vegetation falls under the Northern Tropical Thorn Forests type. The native plants exhibit xerophytic adaptations such as thorny appendages, wax-coated, succulent, and tomentose leaves. Flora: The sanctuary’s flora includes trees like the Neem, Peepal, and Jamun. Fauna: The sanctuary is also home to mammals like the Nilgai, Indian Porcupine, Indian Hare, and Indian Grey Mongoose. The sanctuary has over 200 species of birds, including the Indian Peafowl, Red Junglefowl, and the Indian Grey Hornbill. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/delhi-forest-dept-set-to-install-45-camera-traps-across-asola-bhatti-101743738798067.html

Answer 12

Kannadippaya Explanation : Kannadippaya, a traditional tribal handicraft from Kerala, has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. What is Kannadippaya? "Kannadippaya" (meaning ‘mirror mat’) originates from its distinct reflective design. It is woven using reed bamboo’s soft inner layers, which give it remarkable thermal properties—it provides warmth in winter and a cooling effect in summer. It is primarily crafted by tribal communities such as the Oorali, Mannan, Muthuva, Malayan, and Kadar tribes, along with Ulladan, Malayarayan, and Hill Pulaya artisans in the Idukki, Thrissur, Ernakulam, and Palakkad districts. The finest Kannadippaya is made from Teinostachyum wightii, locally known by various names such as Njoonjileetta, Njoojoora, Ponneetta, Meieeta, and Neytheetta. Other bamboo species, like Ochlandra sp. (locally called Kareetta, Pereetta, Velleeta, Chitoora, and Kanjoora), are also used. Kannadippaya is the first tribal handicraft from Kerala to receive a GI tag. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kannadippaya-gets-gi-tag-anchoring-tribal-craft-on-global-map/article69408207.ece

Answer 13

Indian Ocean Explanation : The US President imposed a 10% tariff on imports from the Heard and McDonald Islands, despite the islands having no known exports to the US. About Heard and McDonald Islands The Heard and McDonald Islands are a remote sub-Antarctic volcanic island group, located in the southern Indian Ocean, about 4,100 km southwest of Perth (Australia) and 1,600 km north of Antarctica. They are one of Australia’s seven external territories and are governed directly by the Australian government. The islands are volcanic in origin, with Big Ben volcano on Heard Island reaching 2,745 meters (Mawson Peak), making it Australia's highest mountain outside mainland and Tasmania. McDonald Island is much smaller but has shown recent volcanic activity, with eruptions in the late 1990s and 2000s doubling its size. They are the only volcanically active sub-Antarctic islands, making them a natural laboratory for studying earth's crustal processes, oceanic and atmospheric warming, and glacial dynamics. The islands are part of a UNESCO World Heritage Site (since 1997) due to their pristine sub-Antarctic ecosystem, managed as a strict nature reserve (IUCN Category Ia). They support large populations of marine birds and mammals, including penguins, elephant seals, and seabirds. Importantly, the islands are free of invasive species, making them ideal for biodiversity and evolutionary studies. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/among-tariffed-islands-where-only-penguins-us-military-live-9923584/

Answer 14

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Seaweed farming is gaining global recognition as a sustainable and profitable industry. Why in the News? The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to boost India's seaweed production to 1.12 million tonnes over five years. The $5.6 billion global seaweed industry is expanding rapidly, with India's contribution increasing steadily. What is Seaweed? Seaweed is a marine plant that grows in oceans and seas. It is nutrient-dense, containing 54 trace elements, vitamins, minerals, and amino acids. It helps combat cancer, diabetes, arthritis, heart disease and high blood pressure while also boosting immunity. Unlike traditional crops, seaweed does not require land, freshwater, fertilizers, or pesticides, making it an eco-friendly and sustainable agricultural resource. Microscopic seaweeds, such as phytoplankton, form the foundation of marine food chains and play a key role in oceanic primary productivity. Large seaweeds, like giant kelp, create dense underwater forests that serve as biodiversity hotspots, offering shelter and food to a variety of species. Seaweeds contribute to oxygen generation and carbon sequestration, playing a significant role in climate regulation. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118317

Answer 15

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Delhi’s Environment Minister recently chaired a meeting with key government agencies to explore the feasibility of artificial rain through cloud seeding. About Artificial Rains Artificial rain refers to the process of inducing precipitation through cloud seeding, a weather modification technique. It is primarily used to enhance rainfall, combat drought conditions, and reduce air pollution. How Does It Work? The method involves dispersing chemicals like silver iodide, potassium iodide, and dry ice into clouds to encourage the formation of raindrops using aircraft or helicopters. These chemicals act as nuclei around which water vapour condenses to form larger droplets, eventually leading to rainfall. The success of cloud seeding depends on the presence of sufficient moisture and appropriate atmospheric conditions. Types of Cloud Seeding Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding: Accelerates the merging of droplets in liquid clouds, making them large enough to fall as rain. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding: Introduces ice-forming agents into supercooled clouds, converting water vapour into ice crystals, which then melt into rain. Alternative Technologies Static artificial rain-inducing system: Uses natural ionisation technology to stimulate precipitation. Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI): A form of solar geoengineering, inspired by volcanic eruptions, where aerosols like sulphur dioxide or other reflective particles are injected into the atmosphere to cool the planet and reduce smog. Diamond dust experiment: Scientists have explored using diamond dust as a non-toxic, long-lasting alternative to sulphur-based aerosols for climate cooling. However, the high cost ($175 trillion) makes it unfeasible. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/artificial-rain-in-delhi-environment-minister-sirsa-holds-meeting-to-brainstorm-ideas-9923598/

Answer 16

Only four Explanation : The recent visit of the Indian Prime Minister to Thailand has strengthened bilateral ties through multiple agreements and partnerships. Geographical and Political Significance Location: Centrally positioned in Mainland Southeast Asia, serving as a land and maritime bridge between India and ASEAN countries. Land Borders: Shares boundaries with Myanmar (NW), Laos (NE), Cambodia (E) and Malaysia (S). Water Bodies: Bordered by Andaman Sea (SW) and Gulf of Thailand (S) critical for Blue Economy and Maritime Security in Indo-Pacific. Capital: Bangkok Currency: Thai Baht (THB) Official Language: Thai Religion: Theravada Buddhism is practiced by 95% of the population. Thailand is a key pillar in India’s Act East Policy and Indo-Pacific Vision. Geography of Thailand Mountains: Highest Peak: Doi Inthanon (Approx. 2,565 m) Other notable peaks: Doi Chiang Dao, Doi Luang Chiang Dao Major Rivers: Chao Phraya River: Flows through Bangkok, crucial for transportation and irrigation. Mekong River: Forms a natural border with Laos; one of the longest rivers in Southeast Asia. Other Rivers: Mae Klong, Nan, Ping Climate: Influenced by Southwest and Northeast Monsoons The Tropical Wet and Dry (Savanna) Climate (Köppen’s classification) dominates most areas. Tropical Monsoon Climate in the south and east; some areas also have a Tropical Rainforest Climate. Natural Resources of Thailand: Major Resources: Rubber, Rice, Tin, Natural Gas, Timber, Tungsten, Tantalum Thailand is a leading global exporter of rubber, fruits, vegetables, and rice. Other resources include lead, fish, gypsum, fluorite, and lignite. World Heritage Sites in Thailand; Historic City of Ayutthaya Sukhothai Historical Park Wat Pho (Temple of the Reclining Buddha) – iconic Buddhist temple in Bangkok International Environmental Agreements Thailand is a signatory to key global environmental treaties, including: Biodiversity Conservation Kyoto Protocol (Climate Change Commitments) Endangered Species Protection Marine Life Conservation & Ozone Layer Protection United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118351

Answer 17

Karnataka Explanation : Using the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), an international team of astronomers recently detected a new warm Jupiter exoplanet located more than 1,000 light years away. About Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary: It is situated in the Chamarajanagar and Ramanagara districts of Karnataka, and it was established in 1987. The Cauvery River passes through its midst. It was established in 1987. The Sanctuary spans an area of 1027.535 square kilometers. On its east, it adjoins Dharmapuri forest division of Tamil Nadu state. The central and eastern parts of the sanctuary are well forested, Hogenakkal falls (Smoking rock in Kannada), Mekedatu (Goats leap), Sangam (The point where the Arkavathi river joins the Cauvery) and Muthathi (The religious place where lord Anjaneya temple is situated) are of cultural, historical and tourist interest. Flora: The Major portion of the forests are of South Indian dry deciduous type. Fauna: It is home to mammals like elephant, wild boar, leopard, dhole, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, chevrotain, common langur, bonnet macaque, honey badger (ratel), malabar giant squirrel, smooth-coated otter and Grizzled giant squirrel. The river cauvery also houses various species of reptiles like the Mugger crocodile,Indian mud turtles, and various species of snakes. This is also one of the few places to find mahseer fish. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bear-dies-in-cauvery-wildlife-sanctuary-after-consuming-explosive-3478858

Answer 18

Greece Explanation : A groundbreaking archaeological find in Lefkada, Greece, has unveiled the first-ever ancient Greek theater discovered in the Ionian Islands. About Ionian Islands: The Ionian Islands are a group of islands that are located off the western coast of Greece in the eastern part of the Ionian Sea. Collectively, the Ionian islands occupy a total land area of 2,306.94 sq.km. and comprise seven major islands and several smaller islands. These islands are also often referred to as “Heptanese” or “Seven Islands.” The major islands in the Ionian Island group include Kerkyra (Corfu), Paxi, Lefkada, Ithaki, Kefalonia, Zakynthos, and Kythira. Kefalonia/Cephalonia is the largest among all the Ionian islands. Mount Ainos, which rises to an elevation of 1,628 m, is the highest point on Ionian Island. History: Controlled by Venice in the 15th and 16th centuries, they were taken by Russian and Turkish forces in 1799. In 1815 the Treaty of Paris placed them under the control of Britain; the British ceded them to Greece in 1864. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indiandefencereview.com/ancient-greek-theater-ionian-islands/

Answer 19

1 only Explanation : NATO members Poland, Finland and all three Baltic states have queued up over the past few weeks to withdraw from the Ottawa Convention. About Ottawa Convention: The Ottawa Convention, also referred to as the "Mine Ban Treaty," prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines (APLs). It requires states-parties to destroy their stockpiled APLs within four years and eliminate all APL holdings, including mines currently planted in the soil, within 10 years. Countries may request a renewable extension, which can be up to 10 years long, to fulfill their destruction obligations. States-parties are also required annually to report their total APL stockpiles, the technical characteristics of their APLs, the location of all mined areas, and the status of APL destruction programs. The convention, which is of unlimited duration and open to all nations, entered into force on March 1, 1999. 164 countries had ratified or acceded to the treaty. Some key current and past producers and users of landmines, including the United States, China, India, Pakistan, and Russia, have not signed the treaty. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/which-countries-are-quitting-a-key-landmine-treaty-and-why-9925686/

Answer 20

A flying trainer aircraft. Explanation : The indigenously developed Hansa-3 trainer aircraft has been cleared for use to train aircrew for obtaining pilot licences, and the aircraft will now be manufactured in India by the private industry. About Hansa-3 Trainer Aircraft: It is India’s first indigenous flying trainer aircraft. It was designed and developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories, Bangalore, under the aegis of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). It is designed to meet the Indian flying club’s needs and it is an ideal aircraft for Commercial Pilot Licensing (CPL) due to its low cost and low fuel consumption. Features: It is a two-seater, low-wing aircraft. It is powered by a Rotax Digital Control Engine with unique features like Just-In-Time Prepreg (JIPREG) Composite lightweight Airframe, Glass Cockpit, Bubble Canopy with wide panoramic view, electrically operated flaps etc. It has an advanced electronic fuel injection system, which controls the fuel and air mixtures electronically and provides optimum fuel air mixture at every altitude. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/indias-first-indigenous-trainer-aircraft-hansa-3-launched-for-pilot-training/

Answer 21

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : In a remarkable addition to Arunachal Pradesh’s rich avian diversity, the rare Pale-chinned Flycatcher (Cyornis poliogenys) was recently sighted in the Nong Loung (Bor Beel) forest area of Namsai district. About Pale-Chinned Flycatcher: It is a small, insectivorous songbird known for its subtle charm, discrete behavior, and preference for shady forest interiors. It belongs to the family Muscicapidae. It is a sparrow-sized bird. Scientific Name: Cyornis poliogenys Distribution Range Includes: India (Eastern Ghats, NE states, Eastern Himalayas, and West Bengal). Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, and parts of Southeast Asia. Sundarbans (fringe forests and quiet forest trails) – Rare but possible in suitable undisturbed patches. Habitat: It prefers dense, moist forest habitats, especially evergreen and semi-evergreen forests with rich undergrowth. Features: Size: Small, about 13–14 cm (5.1–5.5 inches) in length. Weight: Approximately 10–12 grams. Males: Dull blue upperparts with a greyish throat and chin, light olive or brownish wash on flanks. Females: Similar but duller, with more brown tones and less distinct bluish hues. Pale chin or throat patch separating the dull blue-grey head and breast. Fine black bill, ideal for insect foraging. Frequently tail-flicking and flitting low among vegetation. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/04/05/rare-pale-chinned-flycatcher-spotted-in-arunachals-nong-loung-forest/

Answer 22

Bihar Explanation : The seventh edition of the Khelo India Youth Games will be staged in five cities of Bihar from May 4 to 15. About the news: Bihar is set to host the Khelo India Youth Games and the Khelo India Para Games in May 2025. The Khelo India initiative, launched in 2018, aims to revive India's sports culture by encouraging youth participation and identifying potential Olympians. Key Components of Khelo India : Sports Competitions and Talent Development: Organizes annual events like the Khelo India Youth Games, University Games, and Winter Games to identify and nurture young talent. Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure: Develops and enhances sports facilities nationwide to provide world-class training environments. Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies: Establishes centers and academies offering specialized coaching across various sports disciplines. Fit India Movement: Promotes physical fitness and a healthy lifestyle among citizens through various initiatives. Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports: Focuses on gender equality, disability inclusion, and the promotion of indigenous sports to ensure widespread participation. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sport/other-sports/khelo-india-youth-games-in-bihar-in-may/article69412927.ece

Answer 23

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Cabinet recently approved the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) - II for the period 2024-2029, as a 100% centrally funded scheme. About Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) Launched in 2023, the VVP is a centrally sponsored initiative aimed at the comprehensive development of villages along India’s northern border. The goal is to improve the quality of life for residents and enhance border security. The programme covers the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and the Union Territory of Ladakh. Objectives of the VVP: Improve living conditions and create livelihood opportunities in border villages. Strengthen border security by involving local populations as support for border forces. Control trans-border crime and promote the integration of border communities with the rest of the nation. VVP-II The VVP-II will be a 100% Centre-funded programme with a total outlay of ₹6,839 crore. It will be implemented in select strategic villages in the following states and UTs: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir (UT), Ladakh (UT), Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, through FY 2028-29. Both VVP-I and VVP-II are transformative initiatives designed to make border villages self-reliant and vibrant. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2118730

Answer 24

A percentage of the value of the import Explanation : China imposes 34% reciprocal tariffs on imports of US goods in retaliation for Trump’s trade war. About Tariffs A tariff is a tax imposed by a government on imported goods or services to raise revenue, protect domestic industries, or influence trade balances. Types of Tariffs: Specific Tariff: A fixed amount charged on a particular quantity of an import (e.g., $5 per ton of steel). Ad Valorem Tariff: A percentage of the value of the import (e.g., 10% of the value of a car). Purpose of Tariffs: Revenue Generation: Governments can generate revenue by imposing tariffs on imported goods. Protectionism: Tariffs protect domestic industries by making foreign products more expensive, thus encouraging consumers to buy domestic goods. Retaliation: Tariffs are often used as retaliatory measures in trade disputes between countries. Strategic Influence: Used to influence trade negotiations, compel trading partners to comply with certain conditions. Other Tariffs: Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs): Beyond tariffs, countries may impose other barriers to trade such as quotas, licensing requirements, and anti-dumping measures. Sanctions: Tariffs can be part of broader sanctions regimes aimed at pressuring countries for political or security reasons (e.g., sanctions on Iran or North Korea). Role of WTO (World Trade Organization) Regulation of Tariffs: The WTO regulates the imposition of tariffs under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). WTO members are committed to maintaining a tariff ceiling or bound rates. Dispute Resolution: The WTO provides a mechanism for resolving trade disputes, which includes reviewing whether tariffs are applied in compliance with international agreements. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://edition.cnn.com/2025/04/04/business/china-us-tariffs-retaliation-hnk-intl/index.html

Answer 25

Article 201 Explanation : President has withheld assent to Tamil Nadu’s Bill seeking exemption from the mandate of NEET-based admissions for undergraduate medical courses in government medical colleges. About Anti NEET Bill In September 2021, the Tamil Nadu Assembly passed the Tamil Nadu Admission to Undergraduate Medical Degree Courses Bill, 2021, commonly referred to as the Anti-NEET Bill. This legislation seeks to exempt the state from the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) for medical admissions, advocating for the selection process to be based on Class 12 examination marks. It was introduced following concerns that NEET disproportionately affects students from disadvantaged backgrounds. Since its passage, the bill has been awaiting the President's approval, however, it has been withheld assent based on the recommendations of the Union government. Veto Power of President over State Legislation Article 200 & 201: State bills require the President’s assent to become law. Governor’s Role: The state Governor reviews the bill and sends it to the President. Presidential Assent: The President can: Grant assent (bill becomes law). Withhold assent (bill may be reconsidered). Reserve the bill for further consideration. Bills Needing Presidential Assent: Bills affecting national policies or conflicting with Union laws. Bills on Concurrent List topics, like medical education (e.g., Anti-NEET Bill in Tamil Nadu). Money Bills: Do not need presidential assent. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/president-withholds-assent-for-tn-neet-exemption-bill-cm-stalin-to-hold-all-party-meeting-on-april-9/article69411915.ece

Answer 26

Assam Explanation : Assam To Withdraw Foreigner Tribunal Cases Against Indigenous Koch-Rajbongshi Community. About Koch-Rajbongshi The Koch-Rajbongshi community is an ethnic group primarily found in the northeastern region of India, particularly in the states of Assam, West Bengal and parts of Meghalaya. They are a blend of two historically distinct communities: the Koch and Rajbongshi. While these groups share cultural similarities and have had a long history of coexistence, they also retain some distinct identities. Demand for ST: The community is seeking recognition as a Scheduled Tribe in Assam and other states to access government welfare and legal protections. Koches (or Kocch) Historically, the Koches were a group of people who once ruled parts of what is now Assam, Bengal, and Bihar. They are thought to have descended from the ancient Kachari Kingdom, which ruled the region for centuries before being absorbed by the Ahoms in Assam. The Koches were originally a Mongoloid ethnic group, and they are believed to have gradually merged with the local communities over time. Rajbongshis The Rajbongshi people were originally a part of the Koch dynasty, but later developed a distinct identity. Over time, they spread into regions of Bengal and Assam. They were part of the Bengali-speaking people in the past and often associated with the agricultural and peasant classes. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/assam-to-withdraw-foreigner-tribunal-cases-against-indigenous-koch-rajbongshi-community-8085900

Answer 27

Only two Explanation : Pakistan reportedly discovered a massive cache of antimony in the conflict-torn region of Balochistan. About Antimony: Antimony is a chemical element with the symbol Sb and atomic number 51. Classified as a metalloid, Antimony is a solid at room temperature. It exhibits poor electrical and heat conductivity properties. Commercial forms of antimony are generally ingots, broken pieces, granular, or cast cake. Antimony ores occur both in deposits associated with volcanic rocks and also in more deep-seated veins formed under moderate to high temperatures and pressure. The chief ore of antimony is stibnite. It is more commonly obtained as a byproduct in lead-zinc-silver mines. Producers: China produces 88% of the world’s antimony. Other producers are Bolivia, Russia, and Tajikistan. Uses: Antimony is used in the electronics industry to make some semiconductor devices, such as infrared detectors and diodes. It is alloyed with lead or other metals to improve their hardness and strength. A lead-antimony alloy is used in batteries. Other uses of antimony alloys include type metal (in printing presses), bullets, and cable sheathing. Antimony compounds are used to make flame-retardant materials, paints, enamels, glass, and pottery. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.india.com/news/world/pakistan-gold-mines-pakistan-to-become-super-rich-discovers-jackpot-in-balochistan-the-treasure-is-worth-billions-usd-finds-gold-mines-in-gilgit-baltistan-pakistan-antimony-reserves-7727667/

Answer 28

Rajasthan Explanation : A massive fire, triggered by stone-crushing sparks, erupted in Mukundra Tiger Reserve recently. About Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve: It is situated near Kota in southeastern Rajasthan. It is named after two continuous flat-topped, almost parallel hills with narrow central ridges, forming part of the Vindhyan range and extending from the Chambal River to Kalisindh, with a length of almost 80 km. and the width ranging from 2 to 5 km. The tiger reserve was constituted in the year 2013, which encompasses the area of Mukundra National Park, Dara Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary, and part of Chambal Sanctuary (from Garadia Mahadev to Jawahar Sagar Dam), forming its core/ ritical tiger habitat. It was once a hunting preserve belonging to the Maharaja of Kota. It is traversed by four rivers: Chambal, Kali, Ahu, and Ramzan. Vegetation: Dry Deciduous Forest Flora: Anogeissus pendula (Kala Dhok or Kaladhi) is the predominant species, along with Khair (Acacia catechu), Ber (Zizyphus mauratiana), Kakan (Flacourtia indica), Raunj (Acacia lecofolia), etc. Fauna: The important fauna include: Leopard, Sloth bear, Nilgai, Chinkara, Spotted Deer, Small Indian Civet, Toddy Cat, Jackal, Hyena, Jungle Cat, Common Langur, etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/fire-engulfs-part-of-mukundra-tiger-reserve-in-kota/articleshow/120010455.cms

Answer 29

Sarayu Explanation : Devotees in large numbers continue to take holy dip in the Saryu River as they arrive at Ram temple in Ayodhya, on the occasion of Ram Navami. About Saryu River: It is a river that flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. It is also known as the Sarayu or Sarju River. This river is of ancient significance, finding mentions in the Vedas and the Ramayana. Course: It rises at Sarmul (or Sarmool), which is located in the extreme north of the district Bageshwar of Uttarakhand on the southern slope of a ridge of the Nanda Kot. It flows through the Kumaon Himalayas, and passes by the towns of Kapkot, Bageshwar, and Seraghat before flowing into the Sharada River at Pancheshwar at the India-Nepal border. Sharada River (also known as the Kali River) then flows into the Ghaghara River in Sitapur District, Uttar Pradesh. Lower Ghaghara is popularly known as Sarayu in India, especially while it flows through the city of Ayodhya. Length: Approximately 350–400 kilometers long. Ayodhya, the birthplace of Lord Rama, is situated on the banks of the river Sarayu. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/video/devotees-in-large-numbers-take-holy-dip-in-the-saryu-river-on-ram-navami-922906

Answer 30

1 only Explanation : India has been ranked 10th in the world with significant private investments in Artificial Intelligence (AI) in 2023, according to the 2025 Technology and Innovation Report. About Technology and Innovation Report: It was released by the UN Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). It seeks to address issues in science, technology and innovation that are topical and important for developing countries in a comprehensive way with an emphasis on policy-relevant analysis and conclusions. The 2025 edition of the report, entitled: Inclusive artificial intelligence for development, aims to guide policymakers through the complex Artificial Intelligence (AI) landscape and support them in designing science, technology and innovation policies that foster inclusive and equitable technological progress. Highlights of the Report: It shows that just 100 companies, mostly in the United States and China, are behind 40 percent of the world’s private investment in research and development, highlighting a sharp concentration of power. At the same time, 118 countries – mostly from the Global South – are missing from global AI governance discussions altogether. The report estimates that up to 40 percent of global jobs could be affected by AI. To avoid being left behind, developing countries need to strengthen what UNCTAD calls the “three key leverage points”: infrastructure, data and skills. India and China are the only developing countries in the world with significant private investments in AI in 2023. The US leads the world in terms of private investment in AI, at 67 billion US dollars in 2023, or 70 percent of global AI private investment. China was in second position, with 7.8 billion US dollars, and India in tenth position, with 1.4 billion dollars. India ranked 36th in 2024 out of 170 nations on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index, improving its position from 48th in 2022. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-ranks-10th-with-1-4-billion-private-investment-in-ai-un/

Answer 31

Gujarat Explanation : A group of 300 Pakistani citizens of Indian origin, residing in Pakistan’s Sindh, recently visited the Dwarkadhish Temple, Devbhumi Dwarka in Gujarat and offered prayers. About Dwarkadhish Temple: Located in Dwarka, Gujarat, India, the Dwarkadhish temple, also known as the Jagat Mandir, is a revered Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Krishna, who is referred to as Dwarkadhish, which means the 'King of Dwarka'. This temple holds immense significance as it is one of the destinations along the Char Dham pilgrimage circuit, which includes the other pilgrimage sites, Badrinath, Rameshwaram, and Puri. According to archaeological findings, the original temple was built in 200 BCE at the earliest. It is believed to have been constructed by Vajranabha, the great-grandson of Lord Krishna, over the hari-griha (Krishna's residential place). The temple was rebuilt and made bigger in the 16th century. The temple has a five-story building supported by 72 pillars, which are made of limestone and sand. Bearing the imprints of the 16th-century Chalukya style of architecture, the temple has intricately carved walls with mythical characters and legends on them. The temple is a Pushtimarg temple, which means that it follows the teachings and rituals of Vallabhacharya, a 15th-century Hindu saint and philosopher. Vallabhacharya propounded the philosophy of Shuddhadvaita, or pure non-dualism, which emphasizes the devotion and grace of Krishna. The temple is managed by the descendants of Vallabhacharya, who are known as Vallabha Kul. The temple has a special relationship with the Nathdwara temple in Rajasthan, which is the main seat of the Pushtimarg sect. The temple is one of the 108 Divya Desams, or holy abodes of Vishnu, which are glorified by the Alwars, the 12th-century Tamil poet-saints. The temple is the 98th Divya Desam and is praised by four Alwars: Nammalwar, Thirumangai Alwar, Thirumalisai Alwar, and Periyalwar. The temple is also mentioned in the works of other Hindu saints and scholars, such as Adi Shankara, Ramanuja, Madhvacharya, and Narsinh Mehta. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://theprint.in/world/300-indian-origin-pakistani-citizens-visit-dwarkadhish-temple-in-gujarat/2579802/

Answer 32

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Delhi government has signed an MoU with the National Health Authority to roll out the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, making Delhi the 35th Union Territory/state to implement this flagship health insurance scheme. West Bengal remains the only state yet to adopt it. Ayushman Bharat Scheme Overview Ayushman Bharat is a flagship healthcare initiative by the Government of India, designed to provide accessible and affordable healthcare services to vulnerable sections of society. Launched on 23rd September 2018, the scheme is officially known as Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). It is recognized as the largest health assurance scheme in the world. Key Features Coverage of Medical Procedures: The scheme offers free and cashless treatment for 1,961 medical procedures across 27 specialities. This includes a wide range of services such as: Medicines, Diagnostic services, Hospitalisation, ICU care, Surgeries. Financial Coverage: Under Ayushman Bharat, eligible families are provided with an annual health coverage of up to Rs 10 lakh: Rs 5 lakh from the Central Government. Rs 5 lakh as a top-up from the States/UTs Government. Implementation and Governance The National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme. Impact and Reach The scheme aims to cover 55+ crore beneficiaries, targeting 12 crore families, which constitutes approximately 40% of India’s vulnerable population. As a result of the Ayushman Bharat initiative, the out-of-pocket expenditure for healthcare has significantly decreased, from 62% in 2014 to just 38% today. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: PIB

Answer 33

2 and 3 only Explanation : The flowerpot snake, one of the world’s smallest snakes, has three sets of chromosomes instead of two, and has 40 chromosomes, organised into three subgenomes. By analysing the flowerpot snake’s unique genome, scientists are uncovering how the reptile repairs its DNA and prevents harmful mutations. The findings provide insights into genetic repair mechanisms that could deepen our understanding of human gene evolution and also provide insights into human trisomy conditions, such as Down Syndrome. Flowerpot Snake (Ramphotyphlops braminus) Overview The Flowerpot Snake, also known as the Brahminy Blind Snake, is a small, harmless species of blind snake. It is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in Southeast Asia, although it has been introduced to other parts of the world as well. Key Characteristics Common Name: Flowerpot Snake (Brahminy Blind Snake) Size: One of the smallest snakes in the world, typically growing to a length of 10-20 cm (4-8 inches). Non-Venomous: These snakes are completely harmless to humans and are non-venomous. Burrower: They spend the majority of their time underground, where they feed on small invertebrates like ants and termites. Unique Features Blindness: The Flowerpot Snake doesn’t have functional eyes, hence the term "blind" in its common name. It relies on other senses to navigate and survive. Appearance: Due to their small size and appearance, they are often mistaken for earthworms. Habitat and Behavior Flowerpot Snake Habitat: They are often found in potted plants, which is why they are called flowerpot snakes. They tend to hide in the soil of these plants, making them a frequent discovery by gardeners. Reproductive and Genetic Uniqueness Chromosomal Uniqueness: The Flowerpot Snake is the only known snake species with three sets of chromosomes (trisomy) instead of the usual two. Asexual Reproduction: One of the fascinating traits of the Flowerpot Snake is its ability to reproduce asexually, meaning it does not require a mate for reproduction. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Science Advances

Answer 34

Cambodia Explanation : The Ream Naval Base is located on Cambodia’s Gulf of Thailand coast, near Sihanoukville. It has become a significant focal point of international attention due to its expansion and Chinese military involvement. Recent Developments Inauguration and Expansion: On April 5, 2025, Cambodian Prime Minister Hun Manet officially inaugurated the expanded Ream Naval Base. The project received substantial financial and technical support from China. While Cambodian officials maintain that these developments serve national defense interests, there are persistent concerns about the potential Chinese military presence at the base. Strategic Significance Geostrategic Importance: The Ream Naval Base holds significant strategic importance due to its proximity to the Malacca Strait, one of the world’s most vital maritime passages for global trade and energy shipments. China’s involvement in the base's development has raised concerns about its broader intentions to establish a strategic foothold in the Indo-Pacific region. This could potentially encircle India and bolster China’s naval presence in the South China Sea, a region of increasing geopolitical importance. Global Concerns: The expansion of Ream Naval Base has drawn reactions from multiple international stakeholders: Satellite imagery has revealed the presence of Chinese warships at the base, heightening suspicions about the base’s potential role as a Chinese military outpost. Implications for India and the Indo-Pacific Concerns for India: The expansion of Ream Naval Base has direct implications for India, especially regarding its maritime interests in the Indo-Pacific region. The base’s proximity to critical sea lanes frequently used by the Indian Navy raises concerns about the risk of strategic encirclement. If the People’s Liberation Army Navy (PLAN) establishes a presence at Ream, it could disrupt India’s operations in the region, particularly during regional conflicts. Impact on Maritime Security China's enhanced presence at Ream would increase its naval capabilities in Southeast Asia, potentially challenging India’s interests in the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean Region. India may need to strengthen its naval presence in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands to better monitor and counter Chinese activities in these strategic waters. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: TH

Answer 35

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Pamban Rail Bridge, also known as the Rameswaram Bridge, is a historic cantilever bridge that connects Rameswaram Island to the mainland of India. Opened in 1914, it has served as a vital transportation link for over a century, playing a key role in both regional and national connectivity. Key Developments and Upgrades Modernization and Upgrades: In recent years, the Pamban Rail Bridge has undergone significant upgrades to enhance its functionality and accommodate modern transportation needs: Vertical Lift Span: In 2025, a new vertical lift span was added, making the Pamban Bridge India's first vertical lift sea bridge. This feature allows the central span to lift, providing 22 meters of clearance for ships, an improvement from the previous 19 meters. Faster Train Operations: The upgraded bridge now supports double-line electrification, allowing for faster train operations between the mainland and Rameswaram Island. Operational Timeline: The modernization project began in 2019 and was completed by March 2025, with the newly upgraded bridge becoming operational during this period. Historical Background Construction and Inauguration: The Pamban Bridge was commissioned on February 24, 1914, to improve connectivity between the mainland and Rameswaram Island. Over the years, it has become a key landmark in the region. Strategic Importance Sole Link: For much of its history, the bridge was the only link between Rameswaram Island and the mainland, making it a crucial infrastructure piece for both transportation and economic activities. Pilgrimage Significance: The bridge has played a pivotal role in facilitating the movement of pilgrims traveling to the Rameswaram Temple, a major religious site in Tamil Nadu. Humanitarian Role: During the Sri Lankan Civil War, the bridge also served as an important route for refugees seeking asylum in India, further emphasizing its strategic significance. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Mint

Answer 36

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Star-Rating System for Environmental Clearances On January 17, 2022, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) introduced a star-rating system to evaluate State Environmental Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAAs). The purpose was to assess their efficiency in granting clearances for industrial and infrastructure projects. The star ratings ranged from 0 to 7, with higher ratings reflecting: Faster approval times. Stricter adherence to timelines set out in the 2006 Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification. Objective and Purpose Promoting Ease of Doing Business: The Ministry’s aim was to streamline the environmental clearance process to foster a more business-friendly environment, while also maintaining regulatory standards. Incentivizing States: The star-rating system was designed to: Recognize and incentivize states that adhered to timelines and regulatory standards. Encourage environmental bodies to expedite the clearance process without compromising the environment. Challenges and Legal Dispute The introduction of the star-rating system faced significant opposition, particularly from environmental advocacy groups. Concerns Raised by Tamil Nadu Fishermen's Association: The Tamil Nadu Fishermen's Association argued that the star-rating system could compromise the scrutiny of environmental clearances. Their concern was that the emphasis on speeding up the clearance process could dilute the thoroughness required in assessing projects that may impact environmentally sensitive areas. They emphasized the risk of weakening the environmental safeguards essential for protecting local ecosystems, biodiversity, and community livelihoods. Legal Challenge: The dispute led to intervention by the National Green Tribunal (NGT). The NGT issued an order noting that the MoEF&CC had effectively "given up" on the system. The Ministry withdrew the original Office Memorandum (OM) dated January 17, 2022, with a possibility of issuing a revised memorandum in the future. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: NIE

Answer 37

Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures Explanation : Every year on April 7, World Health Day is observed to increase global awareness of a varied range of health-related concerns. About World Health Day 2025: World Health Day is observed on April 07 every year. This day marks the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948 and has been celebrated since 1950. Each year, World Health Day is used as an opportunity to draw attention to a specific health topic that affects people all over the world. By emphasizing one particular theme every year, World Health Day encourages governments, healthcare organisations, and individuals to work collectively toward improving health standards and access to healthcare. The theme for World Health Day 2025 is 'Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures.' This year's theme will kick off a year-long campaign on maternal and newborn health. This initiative will encourage governments and the healthcare sector to intensify their actions to eliminate preventable maternal and newborn deaths. It will also focus on the long-term health and well-being of women. The campaign will aim to promote information and strategies that can help support healthy pregnancies and births, and better postnatal health. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/lifestyle/world-health-day-2025-theme-significance-history-messages-and-more-nc-125040300416_1.html

Answer 38

All three Explanation : Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Government of India, recently released the 26th edition of its publication titled “Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data”. About Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data: It was published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Government of India. It offers a comprehensive overview of the gender landscape in India, presenting selected indicators and data across key areas like population, education, health, economic participation, and decision-making, all sourced from various Ministries/ Departments/Organizations. Utilizing official statistics, it presents gender-disaggregated data across urban-rural divides and geographic regions, facilitating a nuanced understanding of the challenges and opportunities faced by women and men. Highlights of the 2024 Report: Gender Parity Index (GPI) for enrolments at the primary and higher secondary was higher in FY24 than in FY23 and FY22, meaning more girls are being enrolled now. At upper primary and elementary levels, the enrolment numbers were more or less the same for boys and girls. The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15 and above improved significantly, rising from 49.8% in 2017-18 to 60.1% in 2023-24. In the financial sector, women own 39.2% of all bank accounts and contribute to 39.7% of total deposits, with their presence most prominent in rural areas, where they account for 42.2% of account holders. Female participation in the capital market is also growing, but overall numbers are small. Between March 2021 and November 2024, the number of DEMAT accounts surged from 33.26 million to 143.02 million. Of these, the number of women account holders rose from 6.67 million in 2021 to 27.71 million in 2024. A Rising percentage of female-headed proprietary establishments across manufacturing, trade, and other services sectors over the years 2021-22, 2022-23, and 2023-24 has been observed. The number of male and female voters grew from 173.2 million in 1952 to 978 million in 2024, with an increasing share of females. In the 2024 general elections, female voter turnout (65.8%) surpassed male turnout, even as it dipped slightly from 67.2% in 2019. Female entrepreneurship is also on the rise. The number of startups recognized by DPIIT with at least one woman director rose sharply from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2119441®=3&lang=1

Answer 39

1 only Explanation : In 2023, India accounted for the second highest maternal deaths globally, tied with the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) with 19,000 and second only to Nigeria, according to the Trends in Maternal Mortality 2000-2023 report released recently. About Trends in Maternal Mortality 2000-2023 Report: It is a new report from the United Nations Maternal Mortality Estimation Inter-Agency Group (MMEIG), comprising WHO, UNICEF, UNFPA, the World Bank Group, and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA/population division). It presents the most up-to-date, internationally comparable estimates of maternal deaths at global, regional, and country levels. Highlights of the Report: In 2023, an estimated 260,000 maternal deaths occurred worldwide, equivalent to 712 deaths each day. This marks a 40% reduction in maternal mortality since 2000, reflecting sustained global efforts to improve access to essential health services. For the first time, no country was estimated to have an extremely high maternal mortality ratio (MMR), and no region was classified as having a very high MMR. Despite these gains, disparities remain stark. Sub-Saharan Africa accounted for 70% of global maternal deaths, with Central and Southern Asia contributing nearly 17%. In 2023, 37 countries were classified as being in conflict or experiencing institutional or social fragility, yet they accounted for 64% of global maternal deaths. Nigeria had the highest number of maternal deaths and accounted for more than a quarter (28.7 percent) of all estimated global maternal deaths in 2023, with approximately 75,000 deaths. Only three other countries had more than 10,000 maternal deaths in 2023—India, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Pakistan (11,000). India and DRC accounted for 7.2 percent each, while Pakistan accounted for 4.1 percent of global maternal deaths. Together, these four countries accounted for almost half (47 percent) of all maternal deaths globally in 2023. China, the only other country on the planet comparable to India by population, registered just 1,400 maternal deaths in 2023. The statistics reveal that India’s maternal mortality rate (MMR)—or the rate at which women per lakh die due to childbirth or pregnancy-related issues—was 362 in 2000 and came down to 80 in 2023, marking a decline of 78 percent over the period. The report also provides the first global account of the COVID-19 pandemic’s impact on maternal survival. In 2021, when the second wave of COVID was at its peak in most parts of the world, an estimated 40,000 more women died due to pregnancy or childbirth, taking the total number of deaths that year to 3,22,000 from 282,000 the previous year. Haemorrhage is a direct obstetric cause of death and remains the leading cause of maternal mortality globally. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://theprint.in/health/india-saw-52-maternal-deaths-each-day-in-2023-second-highest-after-nigeria-un-report/2580367/

Answer 40

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The wildlife wing of Himachal Pradesh Forest Department (HPFD) recently captured the first-ever photographic evidence of the elusive Woolly Flying Squirrel at Miyar Valley in Lahaul and Spiti district. About Woolly Flying Squirrel: Woolly Flying Squirrel, also known as Western Woolly Flying Squirrel, is one of the rarest and least known mammals in Asia. It is endemic to the northwestern Himalayas. Scientific Name: Eupetaurus cinereus It is the sole species of the genus Eupetaurus. It was long believed to be extinct until its rediscovery in 1994 — nearly after seventy years. Habitat: It appears to live in a fragmented habitat within a very limited area in a thin elevational band of dry conifer woodland. Distribution: It is native to northern Pakistan and northwestern India. Since 1994, specimens have been captured in the Sai Valley, Gorabad, and Balti Gali, all in northern Pakistan. Features: Like other flying squirrels, it has elastic membranes on each side of the body connecting the fore and hind legs. The body is covered by a dense coat of straight, silky hairs. The dorsal pelage appears blue-gray, while the underside is pale gray in color. Creamy white hairs cover the throat and ears, and dense, black fur covers the soles of the feet except for the naked, pinkish brown toe pads. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/himachal-pradesh/first-photograph-of-rare-woolly-flying-squirrel-recorded-in-himachals-miyar-valley-3479851

Answer 41

Odisha Explanation : A recent study found that dense vegetation in Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary, home to spotted deer and blackbucks, has shrunk from 41.8% in 1993 to 37.1% in 2023. About Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in Puri district, Odisha. It was declared a sanctuary on 23 April 1984. It has an area of 87 sq.km. It was established on the sandy tract covered by plantation of casurina and cashew trees, along the coast between Puri and Konark. It is traversed by the rivulets such as Nuanai River, Kusabhadra River, Kadua River, and Prachi River. Flora: Apart from cashew and casurina plantation, Australian acacia and eucalyptus plantations has also been done. Jamun, ficus, neem, karanj, and polang trees are also found, mostly along the course of the Kusabhadra and Nuanai rivers. Fauna: It is home to herds of herbivores (spotted deer), monkeys, jungle cat, hyena, monitor lizard, snakes, etc. Olive Ridley sea turtles have been seen nesting on the beach. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/balukhand-konark-wildlife-sanctuary-facing-ecological-challenges-study/articleshow/120041931.cms

Answer 42

GLP-1 receptor agonist Explanation : A recent international, multicentre clinical study has found that semaglutide, a medication primarily used to treat type 2 diabetes and obesity, can reduce the risk of major cardiovascular events by 14%. What is Semaglutide? Semaglutide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA). It mimics GLP-1, a natural hormone that helps regulate blood sugar and appetite. It is used to: Treat type 2 diabetes by enhancing insulin secretion and lowering blood sugar levels. Aid weight loss in overweight or obese individuals, along with proper diet and exercise. It is available in two forms: injectable and oral tablets. The SOUL trial specifically tested the oral version, known as Rybelsus (by Novo Nordisk). Key Findings from the SOUL Trial The SOUL trial, launched in 2019, was a phase three, double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled study designed to assess whether oral semaglutide can lower the incidence of major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) in people with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) who also suffer from cardiovascular disease (CVD) or chronic kidney disease (CKD). The study enrolled 9,650 participants worldwide, including 788 individuals across 32 centres in India, making it a significant part of global research efforts. The primary composite endpoint of the trial was a reduction in cardiovascular death, non-fatal heart attacks (myocardial infarction), and non-fatal strokes. The results revealed a statistically significant 14% reduction in the risk of such cardiovascular events in patients using oral semaglutide as compared to those receiving a placebo, alongside standard care. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/semaglutide-reduces-risk-of-cardiovascular-events-in-patients-with-type-2-diabetes-finds-study/article69415845.ece

Answer 43

Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Explanation : Recently, a rare long-snouted vine snake (Ahaetulla longirostris) was rediscovered in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh during a rhino release operation in the Palia Kheri division. Why in the News? This marks the first recorded sighting in Uttar Pradesh and only the second documented instance in India. The species was previously seen only in Valmiki Tiger Reserve, Bihar, and some parts of Odisha, with its natural range usually in Southeast Asia. About Ahaetulla longirostris It belongs to the Colubridae family, which includes mostly non-venomous snakes. It has a long, slender body that is typically bright green or brown, helping it to camouflage in foliage. A distinctive elongated snout (rostral extension) differentiates it from other vine snakes. It is an arboreal species, living on trees and easily blends with leaves and branches. It is mildly venomous, but not dangerous to humans. About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Located on the Indo-Nepal border in Lakhimpur Kheri district, Uttar Pradesh. The reserve includes Dudhwa National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, and forest areas of North Kheri, South Kheri, and Shahjahanpur. It lies within the Tarai-Bhabar zone of the Upper Gangetic Plains Biogeographic Province. Major Rivers in the Region: Sharda River near Kishanpur Sanctuary Geruwa River through Katarniaghat Sanctuary Suheli and Mohana Rivers in Dudhwa National Park All are tributaries of the Ghaghara River Vegetation and Flora: Features North Indian Moist Deciduous Forests, dominated by Sal trees (Shorea robusta). Other important trees include: Terminalia alata (Asna) Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha) Adina cordifolia (Haldu) Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu) Gmelina arborea (Ghamhar) Holoptelea integrifolia (Kanju) Major Mammals: Tiger, Leopard (Guldar), Fishing cat, Langur, Jackal, Civet, Mongoose Birds: Dabchick, Spot-billed Pelican, Large and Little Cormorants, Grey Heron, White and Black Stork, White Ibis Reptiles: Gharial, Mugger crocodile, Python, Banded krait, Russell’s viper, Sand boa, Rat snake Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/rare-long-snouted-vine-snake-rediscovered-in-dudhwa-tiger-reserve/article69411596.ece

Answer 44

The earliest known solid outer layer of the Earth Explanation : A new international study led by Macquarie University, Australia, suggests that the chemical signatures attributed to plate tectonics were already present in the Hadean protocrust. What is the Hadean Protocrust? The Hadean protocrust refers to the earliest known crust of the Earth—its outermost solid layer—that formed during the Hadean aeon, the planet’s first geologic era, which began around 4.6 billion years ago. This period is named after ‘Hades’, the Greek god of the underworld, due to the extremely hot, hostile, and unstable conditions that prevailed on early Earth. Geological Conditions During the Hadean Aeon The Earth, within its first 200 million years, had a surface that was partially molten, with widespread volcanic activity and constant meteorite bombardment from space. During this time, the magma ocean—a vast reservoir of molten rock covering Earth’s surface—began to cool gradually. As the surface cooled, early fragments of solid crust began to form. These fragments were not stable and often broke off, while new layers solidified, creating a flaky, unstable crustal layer. Some thicker segments of this primitive crust eventually consolidated into the first proto-continents, floating on the underlying asthenospheric mantle—a semi-fluid layer extending up to 400 km beneath the surface. Birth of Plate Tectonics As these crustal plates drifted across the mantle, they began to interact in various ways: colliding, sliding past, or subducting (diving under) one another. These early plate movements laid the foundation for plate tectonics, a key process in shaping the Earth's geological features. Over time, these interactions left distinct chemical signatures in the Earth’s crust, enabling scientists to reconstruct the history of tectonic activity. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/hadean-protocrust-plate-tectonics-macquarie-study-anomaly/article69416265.ece

Answer 45

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : ZSI study on blackflies offers hope for river blindness control, Researchers worked on four species collected from eight locations in the central Himalayan region. Why in the News? A new study by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has introduced DNA barcoding to accurately identify blackfly species—the carriers of Onchocerca volvulus, the parasitic worm that causes river blindness (onchocerciasis). This innovation is expected to enhance disease control and vector management, especially in vulnerable ecological zones like the central Himalayas. What is River Blindness (Onchocerciasis)? River blindness is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus. The disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blackflies belonging to the genus Simulium, which breed in fast-flowing rivers and streams. Symptoms include intense skin itching, disfiguring skin changes, and in advanced cases, permanent vision loss or blindness. Globally, it is second only to trachoma in causing infection-related blindness, especially affecting rural populations in sub-Saharan Africa, Yemen, and parts of Latin America. Treatment relies on mass drug administration (MDA) using ivermectin, with a minimum 80% therapeutic coverage required for effective control. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), river blindness remains one of the most neglected tropical diseases, especially in remote and rural areas. Five countries have been officially declared free of the disease by WHO: Colombia (2013) Ecuador (2014) Mexico (2015) Guatemala (2016) Niger (2025) – the first African country to achieve this milestone. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/zsi-study-on-blackflies-offers-hope-for-river-blindness-control/article69413836.ece

Answer 46

UGC Explanation : The University Grants Commission (UGC) has notified the “Recognition and Grant of Equivalence to Qualifications Obtained from Foreign Educational Institutions Regulations, 2025”. Why in the New? These regulations were finalised after public feedback on the 2023 draft and aim to provide a transparent, structured, and standardised process for recognising foreign academic qualifications. This move aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasises the internationalisation of Indian higher education and the need to seamlessly integrate international students and returning Indian students into India’s education and employment systems. What Are Equivalence Certificates? An equivalence certificate is an official document that certifies a foreign qualification (degree/diploma/certificate) as equivalent to a corresponding Indian qualification. These certificates are now to be issued by the UGC, replacing the previous system managed by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).

Answer 47

Iraq, Kuwait, Turkey, and Syria Explanation : Researchers recently discovered an extensive and remarkably well-preserved system of ancient irrigation canals in the Eridu region of southern Mesopotamia, offering fresh insights into early agricultural practices. About Mesopotamia: Mesopotamia is located in the region now known as the Middle East, which includes parts of southwest Asia and lands around the eastern Mediterranean Sea. It is part of the Fertile Crescent, an area also known as the “Cradle of Civilization” for the number of innovations that arose from the early societies in this region, which are among some of the earliest known human civilizations on earth. The word “mesopotamia” is formed from the ancient words “meso,” meaning between or in the middle of, and “potamos,” meaning river. Situated in the fertile valleys between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers, the region is now home to modern-day Iraq, Kuwait, Turkey, and Syria. It was home to the ancient civilizations of Sumer, Assyria, and Babylonia. It was one of the first places where humans started practicing settled agriculture, and the earliest known writing system, cuneiform, originated there as well. For some three thousand years, Mesopotamia remained the preeminent force in the Near East. Decline: In 539 BC, however, Cyrus the Great captured Babylon and incorporated Mesopotamia into the Persian Empire. Periods of Greek and Parthian rule followed, and by about AD 100 Mesopotamian culture had effectively come to an end. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://scitechdaily.com/ancient-6000-year-old-irrigation-network-discovered-in-mesopotamia/

Answer 48

1 only Explanation : India is preparing to operationalise INS Varsha, a dedicated naval base for nuclear-powered submarines, on the eastern coast near Rambilli in Andhra Pradesh by 2026. About INS Varsha: It is a strategically designed submarine base to house India's nuclear-powered submarines, both ballistic missile (SSBNs) and attack (SSNs) variants. The high-security facility, part of the long-planned Project Varsha, is designed to support India’s growing fleet of nuclear submarines and enhance the survivability of its sea-based deterrent. The new base will be located near the coastal village of Rambilli, approximately 50 kilometers from Eastern Naval Command headquarters in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. It will feature underground pens and tunnels to house nuclear submarines, ensuring stealthy operations in the Bay of Bengal. The project covers an area of 20 square kilometers and will accommodate at least 10 nuclear submarines. Similar to China’s extensive nuclear submarine base at Hainan Island, the water depth at Rambilli will enable submarines to enter and exit the base without being spotted by satellites. This level of stealth is vital for SSBNs (nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines), which need to remain hidden during their long patrols, often carrying nuclear-armed missiles. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://swarajyamag.com/defence/as-nuclear-submarine-fleet-grows-india-set-to-operationalise-dedicated-base-with-underground-bunkers-by-next-year

Answer 49

Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart Explanation : CAPTCHA is a crucial security tool to verify human users and protect websites from bots, but faces challenges. About CAPTCHA: CAPTCHA stands for the Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart. The term “Turing test” is central to CAPTCHAs. A Turing test evaluates a computer’s capacity to simulate human behavior. In 1950, Alan Turing, an early pioneer of computing and artificial intelligence (AI), created the Turing test. A computer program “passes” the Turing test if its actions throughout the test cannot be distinguished from that of a person, i.e., if it behaves as a human would. A Turing test is not based on answering questions correctly; rather, it is concerned with how “human” the responses seem, irrespective of whether they are accurate. CAPTCHAs are tools you can use to differentiate between real users and automated users, such as bots. CAPTCHAs provide challenges that are difficult for computers to perform but relatively easy for humans. For example, a CAPTCHA may ask the user to enter the characters displayed in a blurred image or identify all of the images in a grid that contain a traffic light. Some newer CAPTCHAs ask the user to click in a box stating that they are not a robot and use various metrics to differentiate between human and automated visitors. CAPTCHAs are used by any website that wishes to restrict usage by bots. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/captcha-a-digital-border-between-humans-and-bots/article69420004.ece

Answer 50

Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance Explanation : The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology recently launched the Digital Threat Report 2024 for the Banking, Financial Services, and insurance (BFSI) sector. About Digital Threat Report 2024: It is a collaborative effort by SISA (Strategic Information Services Agreement), a global cybersecurity company, in collaboration with the Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology) and CSIRT-Fin. It offers an in-depth analysis of the growing cybersecurity risks in India’s Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance (BFSI) sector. Built on frontline threat intelligence and real-world incident data, the report outlines a unified view of the cyber threat landscape and the shifting dynamics of digital security in an era of rapid technological transformation. Key Highlights from the Report: Social Engineering on the Rise: Business Email Compromise (BEC) and phishing attacks have become more precise and damaging, targeting BFSI institutions with tailored tactics that bypass traditional security barriers. Supply Chain Vulnerabilities: Breaches through third-party vendors and open-source software have introduced threats at scale, underlining the need for stricter vendor risk management. Compliance Evolution: Regulatory frameworks are moving toward harmonization, transforming compliance from a rigid obligation into a strategic tool that can drive growth, improve operations, and build cyber resilience. Persistent Control Gaps: Misconfigurations, over-privileged access, and weak access controls continue to plague even the most security-conscious organizations. AI-Powered Threats: With artificial intelligence being leveraged by both defenders and attackers, the report warns of a future dominated by highly personalized, large-scale cyber attacks driven by AI technologies. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/meity-launches-digital-threat-report-2024-for-banking-financial-services-insurance-sector/

Answer 51

Philippines Explanation : A dramatic eruption of Mount Kanlaon, one of the Philippines' most active volcanoes, sent a towering ash plume 4,000 meters (2.5 miles) into the sky recently. About Mount Kanlaon: It is a stratovolcano in the north-central part of the island of Negros., Philippines. It is the highest mountain on the island of Negros and the 42nd tallest peak on an island in the world. It is one of the active volcanoes in the Philippines and part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. The volcano comprises a number of pyroclastic cones and craters. The summit of Canlaon contains a broad, elongated northern caldera with a crater lake and a smaller, but higher, historically active crater to the south. The base of Kanlaon covers an area of 30 km x 14 km. It is underlain by tropical volcanic materials composed of sheeted lava flows, lahar deposits, airfall tephra, and apron pyroclastic materials. It is biologically diverse; and home to a number of species of flora and fauna. The slopes are also headwater catchments of major river systems on the entire Negros Island. Historical eruptions, recorded since 1866, have typically consisted of phreatic explosions of small-to-moderate size that produce minor ashfalls near the volcano. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.republicworld.com/world-news/fiery-fury-massive-kanlaon-volcano-eruption-sends-ash-towering-4-km-into-the-sky-watch

Answer 52

They exhibit distinct physical properties on their surface compared to their interior. Explanation : The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology, marking 100 years since quantum theory began to revolutionise science. What are Topological Materials? Topological materials are substances that exhibit different physical properties on their surface and in their interior. These materials may behave like a metal on the outside (conducting electricity) but like an insulator on the inside (not conducting electricity). The term "topological" refers to the unique geometric and quantum properties of the material, which remain unchanged even if the shape of the material is distorted. Discovered in the latter half of the 20th century, these materials represent a new class of quantum matter. Nobel Prize in Physics (2016) was awarded to scientists (David Thouless, Duncan Haldane, and Michael Kosterlitz) for their theoretical discoveries in this field. How Do They Work? These materials exhibit a metallic surface (conducting electrons freely) while maintaining an insulating core (electrons remain localized). This strange duality arises from quantum mechanical effects, especially the topology of electronic band structures. The behaviour is deeply rooted in the principles of quantum mechanics, where electron spin and momentum interplay due to a phenomenon called spin-orbit coupling. The interaction of light and matter, the collective behavior of electrons, and phase transitions are governed by quantum principles. The UN declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology, marking 100 years since the foundation of quantum mechanics. Mirror Analogy A mirror appears to be a single object, but it has two materials: A glass front (an insulator that lets light through) A thin metallic back (a conductor that reflects light) This setup makes it possible to see your reflection clearly, as the metal reflects light that passed through the glass. Why Do Metals and Insulators Differ? In metals, electrons are free to move — like a soup of charge, allowing conduction of electricity and heat. In insulators, electrons are bound tightly to their atoms and do not move freely, hence they do not conduct electricity. When light (an electromagnetic wave) hits these materials: In metals, electrons move collectively and reflect light. In insulators, electrons move individually, allowing light to pass through. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-magic-of-a-mirror-how-is-it-able-to-show-your-reflection/article69423216.ece

Answer 53

1 only Explanation : CRISPR-Based Test for Rapid Diagnosis of Rare Blood Cancer: APL. What is Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)? Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) is a rare but aggressive form of leukemia, a cancer affecting blood cells. APL is a subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) and contributes to approximately 10-15% of newly diagnosed AML cases. The condition arises due to a genetic mutation where two genes—PML and RARA—fuse together abnormally, disrupting normal blood cell formation. This fusion leads to a significant drop in white blood cells and platelets, impairing the body’s ability to fight infections and control bleeding. APL is particularly dangerous because it can cause sudden internal bleeding in vital organs like the lungs and brain, which can be fatal within days if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment, however, can cure most patients, making timely detection crucial. Symptoms and Diagnosis The median age of diagnosis in India is 34 years, with a male-to-female ratio of 1.5:1. Common symptoms include: Sudden bleeding from gums and nose Fatigue Unexplained fever Bone pain Although these symptoms may resemble other illnesses, histopathological parameters such as complete blood count (CBC) and cell morphology are essential for definitive diagnosis. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/rare-blood-cancer-now-detectable-using-a-crispr-based-test/article69413020.ece

Answer 54

A space research platform developed by ISRO Explanation : Recently, POEM-4 re-entered the Earth's atmosphere and impacted the Indian Ocean, as monitored by ISRO’s IS4OM (System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations Management). What is POEM-4? POEM-4, or PSLV Orbital Experiment Module-4, is a space research platform developed by ISRO that utilizes the spent fourth stage (PS4) of the PSLV rocket as an orbiting experimental module in space. It is part of the SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission and represents the fourth deployment of the POEM series, following POEM-3. POEM-4 has a three times larger payload capacity than its predecessor, POEM-3, marking a major advancement in reusing upper rocket stages for scientific research. Total of 24 payloads were hosted on POEM-4: 14 payloads from ISRO and 10 payloads from non-government entities (NGEs) including start-ups and academic institutions Notable payloads include: Walking Robotic Arm (RRM-TD): A robotic manipulator capable of inchworm-like motion, aimed at enabling inspection and servicing tasks in space. Debris Capture Robotic Manipulator: Developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), this innovation assists in space debris collection and manipulation, aligning with global efforts in space clean-up. Gradient Control Reaction Wheel Assembly (RWA): Designed by ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU), this system enhances attitude control and stabilization of the POEM platform using reaction wheels. Launch and Mission Details POEM-4 was launched on December 30, 2024, aboard PSLV-C60, which also carried twin SPADEX satellites to a 475 km altitude. After satellite deployment, the PS4 upper stage was reconfigured as POEM-4 and continued in a nearby orbit, serving as an experimental platform. POEM-4 was then de-orbited by restarting its engine and brought to a circular orbit at 350 km altitude with a 55.2° inclination. The stage was passivated (leftover fuel vented) to prevent accidental break-up and ensure safe operations in orbit. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-poem-4-makes-atmospheric-re-entry/article69414284.ece

Answer 55

Major Megalithic burials and structures Explanation : Ancient relics estimated to be 2,000 years old, belonging to the Megalithic Period, were recently unearthed at Manimoola village in Bandadukka, Kerala. What Are Megaliths? A Megalith is a large stone used in the construction of prehistoric monuments, either alone or with other stones. They were constructed for: Burial purposes (sepulchral) Commemorative rituals (non-sepulchral) Most Indian Megaliths date to the Iron Age: 1500 BCE to 500 BCE Some megalithic sites even precede the Iron Age, extending back to 2000 BCE Types of Megalithic Monuments Burial Types: Dolmenoid cists – box-shaped stone burial chambers Cairn circles – circular arrangements of stones marking burial spots Capstones – mushroom-shaped stones mostly found in Kerala Urns or Sarcophagi – made of terracotta, often used for cremated remains Non-burial Types: Menhirs – upright memorial stones, typically not used for burials Artefacts Recovered from the Site These artefacts were found during excavation works under the Jal Jeevan Mission, which involved digging trenches for water pipelines. Key items recovered include: A black ware pot, Five four-legged jars, Pots of different sizes, Clay utensils that resembled lids of large vessels, An iron stove stand with three support stones and Iron tools resembling penknives Megalithic Structures Identified Nearby A local stone monument called Pathaya Kallu is believed to be a Megalithic-era burial site. Similar stone burial chambers in the region are known by folk names such as: Pandava Guha, Peerangi Guha, Muniyara, Swamikundu and Kalpatthayam. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/ancient-megalithic-era-artefacts-unearthed-in-manimoola-during-jal-jeevan-mission-works/article69419310.ece?cx_testId=81&cx_testVariant=cx_1&cx_artPos=0&cx_experienceId=EXPO56ZDYSGX&cx_experienceActionId=showRecommendationsX1R7QXU17VG227#cxrecs_s

Answer 56

A Chinese research outpost in Antarctica for environmental monitoring Explanation : China has recently launched the "Three Gorges Antarctic Eye," a 3.2-metre aperture radio/millimetre-wave telescope, at the Zhongshan Station in Antarctica. About Three Gorges Antarctic Eye It is a 3.2-metre radio/millimeter-wave telescope, located at Zhongshan Station, Antarctica. It builds upon China’s earlier achievements, such as the Antarctic Survey Telescopes (AST3). Purpose: Studying interstellar gas (hydrogen and ammonia), star formation. Challenge overcome: Built to withstand Antarctica's extreme cold and strong winds. Developed by: China Three Gorges University and Shanghai Normal University. News: https://english.www.gov.cn/news/202504/08/content_WS67f45d3bc6d0868f4e8f17cb.html

Answer 57

Alauddin Khalji Explanation : Alauddin Khilji, a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, introduced the "Dagh" (branding of horses) and "Chehra" (descriptive rolls of soldiers) system to reform the military. Dagh (Branding of Horses): Alauddin Khilji implemented a system of branding horses to ensure their quality and prevent the use of substandard mounts. Chehra (Descriptive Rolls): He also maintained a descriptive role of soldiers, known as "Chehra," to verify their identity and ensure accurate records of the army. These reforms were part of Alauddin Khilji's broader efforts to create a strong and efficient military, which was directly paid by the state. The system was later refined by Sher Shah Suri and Akbar, with the latter expanding it under the Mansabdari system. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 58

Both exploited political fragmentation in India. Explanation : Muhammad bin Qasim led the Arab invasion of Sindh, taking advantage of the fragmented political landscape, particularly the weak rule of Raja Dahir. The conquest was driven by a mix of military expansion, economic interests, and religious motivations but did not establish a long-lasting empire in India. Turkish Invasions (11th–13th Century CE): Mahmud of Ghazni and Muhammad Ghori similarly capitalized on India's political disunity, particularly the lack of strong central authority among Rajput kingdoms. The later Delhi Sultanate, established after the Battle of Tarain (1192 CE), was a result of this fragmentation. While religion was a motivation, it was not the primary goal of either invasion. Both invasions were also driven by political and economic motives, including territorial expansion and resource plunder. Though trade played a role, neither conquest was primarily aimed at controlling Indian Ocean trade routes. The Turkish invasions, in particular, were more focused on territorial conquest. The Arab conquest did not result in a lasting empire in North India. However, the Turkish invasions eventually led to the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate, which ruled for centuries. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 59

The Raichur Doab Explanation : The Battle of Raichur (1520) between Krishnadevaraya (Vijayanagara) and Ismail Adil Shah (Bijapur Sultanate) was a major turning point. The Bahmani-Vijayanagara conflict was primarily fought over control of the fertile Raichur Doab region located between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers, a strategically important area for both kingdoms. The Raichur Doab: This region, situated in modern-day Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka, was a fertile area that touched the southern boundary of the Bahmani kingdom and the northern boundary of the Vijayanagara empire. Strategic Importance: Both kingdoms sought to control the Raichur Doab because it was a rich source of revenue and resources, making it a key area for economic and political dominance. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 60

Krishnadevaraya Explanation : Krishnadevaraya, who ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509 until his death in 1529, was a renowned ruler and a great patron of arts and literature. Ashtadiggajas: In his court, eight Telugu poets were regarded as the "Ashtadiggajas" (meaning "eight elephants of the directions") and were considered the pillars of his literary assembly. Ashtadiggajas' Contribution: The Ashtadiggajas were instrumental in shaping Telugu literature, particularly the "Prabandha" form, and their works are considered masterpieces. The Ashtadiggajas: Allasani Peddana, Nandi Thimmana, Madayyagari Mallana, Dhurjati, Ayyalaraju Ramabhadrudu, Pingali Surana, Ramarajabhushanudu, and Tenali Ramakrishna Krishnadevaraya's reign is known as the golden age of Telugu literature, with Telugu culture and literature reaching its zenith. Krishnadevaraya himself was a scholar and poet, composing the epic poem "Amuktamalyada" in Telugu. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 61

Bidar Explanation : Initial Capital: The Bahmani Kingdom, a Persianized Muslim state in the Deccan region of South India, initially had its capital at Gulbarga (also known as Ahsanabad). Shift to Bidar: The capital was later moved to Bidar (also known as Muhammadabad). Reason for the Shift: Shifted by Ahmad Shah I Wali (1422-1436 CE), not just for strategic reasons, but also due to internal revolts and factional conflicts in Gulbarga. Bidar's Significance: Bidar became a center for art and culture, particularly known for its Bidriware, a metal handicraft featuring intricate inlay work on copper and silver. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 62

Basavanna Explanation : Basava (1131–1196), also called Basavēśvara and Basavaṇṇa, was an Indian philosopher, poet, Lingayat social reformer in the Shiva-focused bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty. His teachings are compiled in Vachanas (poetic verses). Social Reform: Basava's movement was also a social reform movement, challenging the rigid caste system and promoting equality and social justice. Key Beliefs: Lingayats believe in the exclusive worship of Lord Shiva and reject idolatry and caste discrimination. They are known for their distinct practices, such as wearing the Ishtalinga (a small lingam).

Answer 63

False Explanation : While some Islamic scholars have been conservative about music, the Sufis, including the Chishti, have embraced it as a way to connect with the divine. The Chishtis (e.g., Nizamuddin Auliya) embraced sama as a spiritual tool, unlike the orthodox Naqshbandis. Sama, a spiritual ceremony of music, song, and dance, is used to foster a connection with the divine. Qawwali, a form of devotional music, is often associated with the Sama of the Chishti Sufi Order. Nizamuddin Auliya and Amir Khusrau were notable patrons Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer 64

False Explanation : Alauddin Khalji implemented price controls and related reforms to stabilize prices, prevent price gouging, and protect the interests of the common people. He banned hoarding and regrating, appointed supervisors and spies to ensure compliance with regulations, and severely punished violators. Price Controls: He fixed prices for a wide range of goods, including grains, cloth, slaves, and animals While his price controls (Mandi system) temporarily stabilized prices, they were unsustainable long-term due to administrative corruption and resistance from traders. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer

Answer 65

1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d Explanation : 1. Diwan-i-Arz (a) Military department: This department, headed by the Ariz-i-Mumalik, was responsible for the military organization, recruitment, and maintenance of the royal army. 2. Diwan-i-Insha (b) Royal correspondence: This department, headed by the Dabir-i-Khas, handled royal correspondence and communication. 3. Diwan-i-Wizarat (c) Finance ministry: This department, headed by the Wazir, was responsible for the financial administration of the state, including revenue collection and expenditure. 4. Diwan-i-Qaza (d) Judiciary: This department, headed by the Qazi-i-Mamalik, was responsible for the administration of justice and religious affairs.

Answer 66

1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d Explanation : Ramanuja (1017–1137 CE) – Vishishtadvaita (Qualified Non-Dualism): He proposed that the individual soul (Jivatma) and Brahman (Paramatma) are distinct but inseparably connected, like body and soul. Devotion (Bhakti) to Vishnu was central to his teachings. Madhvacharya (1238–1317 CE) – Dvaita (Dualism): He strongly opposed Advaita Vedanta and maintained that the individual soul and Brahman are eternally distinct. He emphasized devotion to Vishnu as the supreme being. Vallabhacharya (1479–1531 CE) – Shuddhadvaita (Pure Non-Dualism): He taught that Krishna is the absolute Brahman and that the world is a real manifestation of Him, not an illusion (Maya). His philosophy formed the basis of the Pushtimarg tradition. Nimbarka (12th century CE) – Dvaitadvaita (Dualistic Non-Dualism): He proposed that the soul and Brahman are both distinct and non-distinct at the same time, like the sun and its rays. Radha-Krishna worship was central to his teachings. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 67

2 only Explanation : A team of researchers from India and the U.K. recently discovered a species of land snail from the Konkan region of Maharashtra and named it, ‘Theobaldius konkanensis’. About Theobaldius konkanensis: It is a new species of land snail discovered from the Konkan region of Maharashtra. It is endemic to the northern Western Ghats. The species was principally found in tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests. The live specimens were found on the forest floor in leaf litter and on damp fallen branches from June to September, and at other times of the year only shells were observed. Features: It is active during the day and night, with live individuals being easily found in the afternoon in well-shaded places under the forest canopy. It co-occurs with other ground-living land-snail genera. It is unique for its slightly flattened shell and raised centre. Also near the snail’s neck, where the shell begins, a triangular-shaped outline of the shell is jutting out, and the protective cover has a raised edge and tiny spines. The shell is corneous yellow with brown striations, and the body is stout and rounded. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-snail-theobaldius-konkanensis-named-after-maharashtras-konkan-region/article69418893.ece

Answer 68

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) recently notified the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme, marking a significant step towards strengthening India’s position as a global hub for electronics manufacturing. About Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme: It is the first dedicated production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme to promote the manufacturing of select passive electronic components, including resistors, capacitors, speakers, microphones, special ceramics, relays, switches, and connectors. The scheme will offer three incentive structures: Turnover-linked incentive (based on revenue) Capex-linked incentive (for investments in plants & machinery) Hybrid incentive model (a combination of both) Incentives for incremental investments and turnover range from 1–10% depending on the year and the component. Employment generation will be a mandatory requirement for all applicants, including both component manufacturers and capital equipment producers. Thus, the scheme not only boosts manufacturing but also creates skilled jobs. This scheme has a tenure of six years, with a one-year gestation period. The scheme focuses particularly on passive electronic components. In contrast, active components fall under the purview of the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM). This scheme is set to benefit a number of industries, such as automobiles, consumer electronics, and electronics. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2120240®=3&lang=1

Answer 69

To serve as a crew transport vehicle to and from space stations. Explanation : A Soyuz spacecraft, adorned to commemorate the 80th anniversary of World War II's conclusion, departed from Kazakhstan's Baikonur Cosmodrome recently, transporting an American and two Russians to the International Space Station (ISS). About Soyuz Spacecraft: The Soyuz spacecraft is a Russian (formerly Soviet) spacecraft that has been used since the 1960s to transport astronauts and cosmonauts to and from space. The Soyuz programme is the longest operational human spacecraft programme in the history of space exploration. The first crewed flight into space was on 23 April 1967. Soyuz means "union" in Russian. Although they were conceived by the Soviet Union at the start of the sixties, the Soyuz spacecraft are still used today, but with important modifications. It has served mainly as a crew ferry to and from Earth-orbiting space stations, specifically the Salyut stations, Mir, and the International Space Station (ISS). The Soyuz vehicles are launched by Russian rockets of the same name, which have already had over 1680 successful launches in total, including satellites and manned spacecraft. Neither the Soyuz rockets nor the Soyuz vehicles are reusable. The journey of the Soyuz to the ISS can last six hours or two days depending on the mission profile. The return journey, in contrast, lasts only 3 hours. Features: The Soyuz spacecraft weigh 7 tonnes; they measure 7.2 m in length and 2.7 m in diameter. With the solar panels open (they remain closed during launch), the Soyuz measures 10.6 m across. A Soyuz vehicle can carry up to three astronauts. A Soyuz is made up of three modules: the service, the orbital, and the reentry modules. The orbital module (the “tip” of the spacecraft) carries the equipment necessary to dock with the International Space Station. The service module (the lower part) transports, among other things, telecommunications and altitude control equipment and the coupling of the solar panels. The descent module (in the middle) is where the astronauts travel, and it is the only section that reenters the atmosphere – the orbital module breaks up during reentry. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/watch-us-russia-crew-launches-to-iss-on-soyuz-spacecraft/articleshow/120088468.cms

Answer 70

2 only Explanation : The European Space Agency (ESA) is preparing to launch its newest space satellite, called Biomass. About Biomass Satellite Mission: It is a European Space Agency (ESA) mission to provide more accurate measurements of forest biomass to enhance our understanding of the carbon cycle. It will provide detailed 3D maps of the world's most dense and remote tropical forests. The mission will lift off aboard the Vega C rocket from Europe’s spaceport in French Guiana. It will be placed in a sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) — a type of orbit in which satellites are in sync with the Sun — at an altitude of around 666 km. It is the first space satellite to carry a long-wavelength radar, called P-band. This special radar means that it can scan deep through the forest canopy and collect information on different parts of the forest, such as tree trunks, branches, and stems, where trees store most of their carbon. This will allow the satellite to provide experts on the ground with new information on forest height and above-ground forest biomass from space. Scientists will then be able to find out more about the state of our forests and how they are changing, and further our knowledge about the role that forests play in the carbon cycle. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.bbc.co.uk/newsround/articles/cjewv32ed1qo

Answer 71

1 only Explanation : Lok Sabha Speaker recently delivered the keynote address on ‘Parliamentary Action for Social Development and Justice’ at the 150th Assembly of Inter-Parliamentary Union in Tashkent. About Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU): The IPU is the global organization of national parliaments. It was founded in 1889 as the first multilateral political organization in the world, encouraging cooperation and dialogue between all nations. The slogan of IPU is “For democracy. For everyone.” Today, the IPU comprises 181 national Member Parliaments. It also has 15 Associate Members – mostly parliaments drawn from groups of nations, or similar bodies. It promotes democracy and helps parliaments become stronger, younger, gender-balanced and more diverse. It also defends the human rights of parliamentarians through a dedicated committee made up of MPs from around the world. Twice a year, the IPU convenes over 1,500 parliamentary delegates and partners in a world assembly, bringing a parliamentary dimension to global governance, including the work of the United Nations and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The IPU's principal administrative and policy-making body is the Governing Council, which meets at each Assembly. The Governing Council is made up of three MPs from each Member Parliament. The headquarters of IPU is in Geneva, Switzerland. Funding: It is financed primarily by its members out of public funds. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/in-recent-years-parliament-has-passed-several-laws-that-promote-social-justice-inclusion-lok-sabha-speaker/article69419682.ece

Answer 72

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Supreme Court Fixes Timeline for Governor’s Action on State Bills. Background The Supreme Court of India in a landmark verdict reprimanded Tamil Nadu Governor R.N. Ravi for withholding assent or delaying action on 10 state bills, which were re-presented by the state legislature. The Governor had reserved these bills for the President’s consideration, which the Court held to be unconstitutional. Case Context In 2023, the Tamil Nadu government approached SC, citing deliberate delay by the Governor. 12 bills (including one from 2020) were pending assent. On Nov 13, 2023, the Governor withhold assent to 10 bills. The Assembly re-enacted these bills on Nov 18, 2023. The Governor again reserved some bills for the President on Nov 28, 2023. Key Constitutional Provisions Involved Article 200: Deals with the powers of the Governor regarding bills passed by the State Legislature. The Governor can: Give assent Withhold assent Reserve the bill for President's consideration Article 201 – President’s veto power on bills reserved by the Governor. Article 142 – Supreme Court’s plenary power to ensure complete justice. Supreme Court's Major Observations The Governor’s action of reserving 10 bills for the President was declared illegal and arbitrary. Bills re-presented to the Governor shall be deemed to have received assent from the date of re-presentation. The Governor does not have discretion under Article 200 and must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot exercise an “absolute veto” or “pocket veto” by sitting indefinitely on bills. Delays in granting assent cripple the legislative process and are against the spirit of federalism and democracy. Judicial Oversight Introduced If these timelines are not followed, the Governor’s inaction becomes subject to Judicial Review. The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 to declare the bills as deemed to have received assent. Reaffirmation of Democratic Principles The Governor cannot act as an obstructionist. Elected legislators, being representatives of the people, are best placed to enact laws. The Governor must act as a “friend, philosopher and guide”, not as a political actor. The Governor must facilitate governance, not paralyze it. Clarification on Reserve Power (Article 200) Once a bill is re-passed by the Assembly, the Governor cannot reserve it again unless the content has materially changed. Any attempt to delay action violates the Governor’s constitutional oath. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/sc-pulls-up-tn-governor-for-sitting-on-bills-sets-timeline-in-a-first-101744101923182.html

Answer 73

The ability of a quantum computer to solve a problem that classical computers cannot solve efficiently. Explanation : Researchers from the University of Oxford and Universidad de Sevilla demonstrated quantum supremacy through a simple mathematical game, published in Physical Review Letters. What is Quantum Supremacy? Quantum supremacy refers to the ability of a quantum computer to solve a problem that classical computers cannot solve efficiently. It marks a milestone in quantum computing, proving that quantum machines can outperform classical computers for certain specific tasks. Demonstrating quantum supremacy has been a long-standing challenge due to the complexity of designing problems that showcase this advantage in an unambiguous and easily verifiable way. The Quantum Supremacy Game The game is based on the "odd-cycle graph colouring problem": Can you colour a circle with an odd number of sections using only two colours, such that no two adjacent sections share the same colour? Mathematically, this is impossible in classical terms for any odd-numbered cycle. It uses only two entangled qubits, making the setup far simpler than earlier quantum supremacy demonstrations. Google’s 2019 experiment used random circuit sampling on its Sycamore processor with 53 superconducting qubits, which required massive computational resources. China’s Jiuzhang quantum computer used Gaussian boson sampling, again demanding complex tools and mathematics. In contrast, this new game-based method is minimalist yet powerful, demonstrating clear quantum advantage with far fewer resources. Quantum vs Classical Computing Classical Computers operate on bits (0 or 1) and rely on classical physics. Quantum Computers work on qubits, which can exist in superposition — being 0 and 1 at the same time. Qubits also exhibit entanglement, where the state of one qubit instantly affects another, regardless of distance. Superposition and Entanglement: Superposition allows a quantum processor to perform many computations simultaneously. Entanglement creates non-classical correlations, which are central to quantum communication, cryptography, and computation. Power of Qubits: As the number of qubits increases, the computational capacity increases exponentially compared to classical bits. For instance, a 50-qubit quantum processor can potentially outperform the fastest classical supercomputer. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Scientists demonstrate clear quantum advantage using simple game - The Hindu.

Answer 74

It announced the birth of genetically modified grey wolf pups as part of its de-extinction project. Explanation : A US-based bioscience company, Colossal Biosciences, has recently made headlines by announcing the birth of three genetically modified grey wolf pups. What is De-Extinction? De-extinction refers to the scientific process of reviving extinct species by using their genetic material, often through gene editing and cloning techniques. It involves reconstructing the genome of an extinct species and modifying the DNA of a closely related living organism to resemble the extinct one. About The Dire Wolf The dire wolf (Aenocyon dirus) was a large prehistoric canine that once roamed across southern Canada and the United States. It became extinct around 13,000 years ago. Although they resembled modern grey wolves (Canis lupus), dire wolves were larger, with thicker white coats, and hunted large prey like bison, horses, and even mammoths. Their extinction is believed to be linked to the disappearance of their prey species, possibly accelerated by human hunting activities. Scientific Process: How Was It Done? The de-extinction process followed by Colossal involved the following steps: DNA extraction: Scientists obtained DNA from two ancient dire wolf specimens: a 13,000-year-old tooth and a 72,000-year-old skull. The petrous bone from the skull, known for its preserved DNA, was crucial in this process. Genome reconstruction: The DNA was sequenced to recreate the complete genome of the dire wolf. This was then compared with genomes from closely related canids like coyotes, jackals, dholes, and particularly, grey wolves, which were found to share 99.5% of their DNA with dire wolves. Gene editing: Using gene editing tools, scientists made 20 unique changes to 14 genes in the grey wolf genome. These edits aimed to reproduce features such as: Light-colored coat Increased hair length Distinct coat patterns Larger body size Enhanced musculature Surrogacy and Birth: The genetically modified embryos were implanted into surrogate dog mothers, leading to the birth of the pups. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-word-means-roma-romani-9932302/

Answer 75

Only five Explanation : The President’s visit to Portugal and Slovakia represents a significant step in India’s foreign diplomacy, especially concerning strengthening engagement with Europe. Geopolitical and Geographical Key Facts Portugal Portugal is the westernmost country in continental Europe, situated on the western edge of the Iberian Peninsula. It is bordered by Spain on the north and east, and the North Atlantic Ocean on the south and west. Portugal also administers two autonomous regions: the Madeira and Azores archipelagos, located in the Atlantic Ocean. Lisbon, its capital, is among the oldest cities in Europe, rich in maritime and colonial history. Climate: The country experiences a maritime temperate climate—cool and rainy in the north, and warmer and drier in the south. Terrain: The Tagus River flows westward and divides Portugal into mountainous northern regions and rolling plains in the south. The highest point in Portugal is Ponta do Pico (Pico Alto), located in the Azores. Visit to Portugal The visit is historic, as it aligns with the 50th anniversary of India-Portugal diplomatic relations. Bilateral trade between India and Portugal currently stands at USD 1.5 billion and is witnessing steady growth. Notably, Portugal was the first European nation to sign a Migration and Mobility Agreement with India, showcasing the strength of people-to-people and institutional ties. Slovakia Slovakia is a landlocked country in Central Europe, strategically located at the crossroads of Eastern and Western Europe. It shares borders with Poland to the north, Ukraine to the east, Hungary to the south, Austria to the west, and the Czech Republic to the northwest. The terrain is dominated by the Carpathian Mountain range, which includes the Tatra Mountains, a well-known tourist and ecological zone. The highest peak is Gerlachovský Peak, part of the High Tatras. Major rivers flowing through Slovakia include the Danube, Váh, and Hron, vital for inland navigation and hydroelectric power. Visit to Slovakia This visit coincides with the 30th anniversary of the Indian Embassy in Bratislava, underlining three decades of diplomatic engagement. India’s gratitude is evident for Slovakia’s strategic support during the 2022 evacuation of Indian students from war-torn Ukraine, highlighting solidarity in times of crisis. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2119961

Answer 76

Ministry of Home Affairs Explanation : The Registrar General of India (RGI) has recently issued a strong caution to both government and private hospitals across the country for failing to comply with legal requirements concerning the timely reporting of births and deaths. About Registrar General of India (RGI) In 1949, the Government of India established a permanent organisation under the Ministry of Home Affairs, headed by the Registrar General and Ex-Officio Census Commissioner of India. This position's role is mainly to ensure a systematic collection of statistics related to India’s population size, growth, and distribution. The RGI is also responsible for implementing the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969. Administrative Structure: The Registrar General is typically a civil servant of Joint Secretary rank. The office also conducts demographic and linguistic surveys in addition to the decennial Census. Key Functions of the RGI Conducting the Census of India: The Census of India offers detailed data about the demographic, socio-economic, and geographic characteristics of the population. Since its first complete round in 1881, the Census has been conducted 15 times, with the most recent in 2011. Post-1949, the Census was conducted under the RGI and Census Commissioner. Linguistic Survey of India (LSI): Conducted alongside the decennial Census, this survey provides a comprehensive picture of the linguistic diversity in India. It is instrumental for educational and social planning in different States. The first Linguistic Survey was completed by George Abraham Grierson in 1928. Civil Registration System (CRS): It is a mandatory system for birth and death registration in India. It serves as a real-time, continuous population data collection mechanism. Hospitals, especially government ones, are expected to act as registration authorities. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/private-government-hospitals-must-register-births-and-deaths-within-21-days-rgi/article69428102.ece

Answer 77

Widespread investor pessimism and liquidation of assets Explanation : S&P 500 —- a stock market index that tracks the performance of 500 of the largest publicly traded companies in the US — briefly entered bear market territory for the first time since 2022 recently. About Bear Market: A bear market is a financial market experiencing prolonged price declines, generally of 20% or more. A bear market usually occurs along with widespread investor pessimism, large-scale liquidation of securities and other assets, and a weakening economy. A bear is an investor who expects prices to decline and, on this assumption, sells a borrowed security or commodity in the hope of buying it back later at a lower price, a speculative transaction called selling short. Bear markets are often associated with declines in an overall market or index, but individual securities or commodities can also be considered to be in a bear market if they experience a decline of 20% or more over a sustained period of time, typically two months or more. Bear markets also may accompany general economic downturns such as a recession. They are seen as the opposite of upward-trending bull markets. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/us-stocks-bear-market-9930783/

Answer 78

1 only Explanation : The Thar Desert in India saw a striking 38 percent rise in greening annually over the last two decades, driven by a significant increase in monsoon rainfall and agricultural expansion, a new study showed. About Thar Desert: The Thar Desert, also called the Great Indian Desert, is a large, arid region located in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent. It is considered to be the 9th largest subtropical desert in the world. It lies mostly in the Indian state of Rajasthan. The desert also extends into the southern portion of Haryana and Punjab states and into the northern part of Gujarat. A portion of the desert (15 percent) lies in the Punjab and Sind regions of Pakistan. It covers some 200,000 sq.km. of territory. The name Thar is derived from thul, the general term for the region’s sand ridges. Boundaries: It is bounded on the north-west by the Sutlej River and on the east by the Aravalli Mountain Ranges. It is also bounded on the south by the salt marsh known as the Rann of Kutch district, and on the west by the Indus Valley. About a tenth of the ecoregion is sand dunes, while the rest is craggy rock formations and compacted salt lake bottoms. It does not have any Oasis which is unusual compared to other large deserts. Climate: The Thar Desert has an extreme climate: Summers are very hot, with temperatures reaching 50°C. Winters are cold, with temperatures dropping to near freezing. Rainfall is very low, between 100–500 mm per year, mostly during the monsoon season. Strong dust storms are common in the summer. There is a single river that flows through the desert, the Luni River. The sparse vegetation consists of plants adapted to growing in dry conditions, known as xerophilous plants. It is the most densely populated desert in the world (83 people per sq. km). Mineral Resource: It is rich in a variety of minerals, including one of the largest coal reserves in India. It is also a major source of gypsum, Limestone, salt, Bauxite, silica, etc. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/thar-desert-is-greening-thanks-to-higher-rainfall-excessive-groundwater-pumping#google_vignette

Answer 79

1 only Explanation : Tiruvallur district in Tamil Nadu is making inroads in cultivating Adenium obesum, more popularly known as 'desert rose', a unique flowering plant that has drawn major attention for its novelty as an ornamental houseplant. About Adenium obesum: The Adenium obesum, commonly known as the Desert Rose, is a succulent shrub in the dogbane family (Apocynaceae). It grows primarily in the desert or dry shrubland biome. It is native to the arid regions of Africa and the Arabian Peninsula. It is often used as a houseplant for its beautiful flowers and charming, small tree-like shape. Desert rose is also used in bonsai (an art of growing and training of a plant to a miniature form). Features: It has striking, trumpet-shaped flowers and a unique swollen trunk. Its vibrant blooms can range from white to deep red. The flowers are highly fragrant and attract a variety of pollinators, including bees and butterflies. Special features of the Adenium include its drought tolerance and the ability to store water in its thick trunk, allowing it to survive long periods without rainfall. It is a slow-growing plant, only growing about 12 inches per year. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!offbeat/this-desert-rose-plant-fetches-upto-rs-12-lakh-complete-guide-to-growing-adenium-obsesum-enn25040601435

Answer 80

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India recently offered the indigenous Akash air defence missile system to the UAE. About Akash Air Defence Missile System: It is a Short-Range surface-to-air missile System to protect vulnerable areas and points from air attacks. It was indigenously designed and developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and is produced by Hyderabad-based Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL). The missile was inducted into the Indian Air Force in 2014 and in the Indian Army in 2015. In 2022, Armenia became the first foreign country to buy this missile system. Features: It is 5.8 m long, has a diameter of 350 mm and a wingspan of 1,105mm. Range of Operation : 4.5 km to 25 km Altitude of Operation : 100 m up to 20 km Guidance System : Command Guidance Target types: Helicopters, Fighter aircrafts, UAVs etc. It can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or Autonomous Mode. It has built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) features. It has high immunity against active and passive jamming. The entire weapon system has been configured on mobile platforms. Open system architecture ensures adaptability to existing and futuristic Air Defence environments. The most important element of the Akash SAM system battery is its high-power, multi-function Rajendra phased array radar. The 3D passive electronically scanned array Rajendra radar (PESA) can electronically scan and guide the missile towards targets. It provides information on the range, azimuth, and height of a flying target. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/rajnath-offers-made-in-india-akash-defence-missile-system-to-uae/articleshow/120107195.cms

Answer 81

A mutation in a gene that makes hemoglobin Explanation : Scientists at Raman Research Institute (RRI) recently developed an affordable electro-fluidic device that aids in the preliminary screening of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD). About Sickle Cell Disease (SCD): It is the most common inherited blood disorder that affects your red blood cells (RBCs). It is marked by flawed hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the molecule in red blood cells (RBCs) that carries oxygen to the tissues of the body. Sickle cell disease interferes with the delivery of oxygen to the tissues. How does it affect blood flow? Normally, RBCs are disc-shaped and flexible enough to move easily through the blood vessels. People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort RBCs into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickled RBCs do not bend or move easily and can block blood flow to the rest of the body. It can lead to serious complications, including pain, infections and organ damage and failure. Additionally, sickle-shaped cells don’t last as long as normal-shaped RBCs, causing a constant shortage of RBCs and leading to anemia. What causes it? SCD is caused by a variant (change) in a gene that has instructions for your body to make one part of the hemoglobin. This changed gene is sometimes called a sickle cell gene. People with SCD are born with two sickle cell genes, one from each parent. If you are born with one sickle cell gene, it's called sickle cell trait. People with sickle cell trait are generally healthy, but they can pass the defective gene on to their children. Symptoms: Early stage: Extreme tiredness or fussiness from anemia, painfully swollen hands and feet, and jaundice. Later stage: Severe pain, anemia, organ damage, and infections. Treatments: A bone marrow transplant (stem cell transplant) can cure sickle cell disease. However, there are treatments that can help relieve symptoms, lessen complications, and prolong life. Gene therapy is also being explored as another potential cure. The UK recently became the first country to approve gene therapy treatment for sickle cell disease. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/rri-scientists-develop-affordable-device-for-preliminary-screening-of-sickle-cell-disease/article69426825.ece

Answer 82

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The 2024 Arctic Report Card by the US NOAA confirms this trend, noting that frequent fires and fossil fuel pollution are turning the Arctic tundra into a carbon source. The Arctic Tundra Biome The Arctic tundra is a treeless plain with permafrost within a meter of the soil surface. Summers cause only the top layer to thaw, limiting plant growth and root penetration. Despite its rocky, nutrient-poor soil, the tundra holds large amounts of carbon in peat (decayed moss) and humus (organic matter), making it a critical carbon sink. The Arctic tundra biome spans 11.5 million km², covering land north of the Arctic Circle, including parts of Canada, Greenland, Iceland, and Eurasia. The climate here is extremely cold, with temperatures from -60°C in winter to 15.5°C in summer. Annual precipitation is low (150–250 mm), mostly in snow and sleet form. Vegetation is herbaceous, including grasses, lichens, mosses, and low shrubs like dwarf willows, adapted to cold, wind, and poor soil. Animal life includes caribou, polar bears, arctic foxes, musk ox, and migratory birds like loons and snow geese. Insects like mosquitoes flourish in summer due to melting snow. Human habitation is limited, mainly to coastal areas, with indigenous communities like the Eskimos living semi-nomadic lives and relying on fishing and hunting. Resource extraction has increased in recent decades. Examples include gold mining in Alaska, petroleum in Kenai Peninsula, and iron ore in Labrador, Canada, and Kiruna, Sweden. Infrastructure like railways and Arctic ports have enabled the transport of minerals, timber, and furs, especially from Siberia, assisted by modern icebreakers Arctic Boreal Zone (ABZ): From Carbon Sink to Carbon Source The Arctic Boreal Zone (ABZ) — comprising tundra, coniferous forests, and wetlands — has historically acted as a major carbon sink, storing vast amounts of organic matter in permafrost. A study in Nature Climate Change (2025) found that over 30% of the ABZ has stopped sequestering carbon and is now releasing it, reversing centuries of carbon absorption. Permafrost Thaw: Permafrost is permanently frozen ground rich in organic material. As global warming raises topsoil temperatures, this material decomposes, releasing carbon dioxide and methane. This triggers a feedback loop: Wildfires release carbon, increasing global warming, which in turn thaws more permafrost, leading to more fires and emissions. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/wildfires-arctic-boreal-zone-carbon-sink-emissions/article69360974.ece

Answer 83

France Explanation : Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), chaired by the Prime Minister, approved a ₹63,000-crore deal for procuring 26 Rafale-M fighter jets from France for the Indian Navy. Background Initially, under the MMRCA tender (2007), India planned to acquire 126 jets with technology transfer, which was shelved in 2015. A direct deal in 2016 led to 36 Rafale jets for the IAF, delivered between 2019-2022. Details of the Deal The deal includes 22 single-seater Rafale-M jets for carrier operations and 4 twin-seater trainer variants, which are non-carrier compatible. The jets are meant to operate from INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant, India’s two operational aircraft carriers. The agreement is expected to be signed during the upcoming visit of the French Defence Minister. About the Rafale Fighter Jet Dassault Rafale is a 4.5 generation, twin-engine, delta-wing, multirole fighter aircraft manufactured by Dassault Aviation. Capable of speeds up to Mach 1.8 and a combat radius exceeding 1000 km. Designed for air superiority, ground support, reconnaissance, and anti-ship missions. Key Features and Avionics Equipped with RBE2 AESA radar, SPECTRA electronic warfare suite, front sector optronics, and omnidirectional warning systems. Powered by 2 SNECMA M88 turbofan engines, providing supercruise capability (supersonic flight without afterburners). 14 hardpoints can carry external payloads up to 9,500 kg. Rafale Variants Rafale C: Single-seat Air Force version. Rafale B: Twin-seat version for training with full combat capability. Rafale M: Naval variant, designed for carrier-based operations, with reinforced landing gear and tailhook for short-deck landings. Other variants include Rafale N (nuclear strike) and Rafale R (research and development). Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-clears-mega-deal-to-buy-26-rafale-marine-fighter-jets-from-france-for-navy/article69430486.ece

Answer 84

Gallium, Germanium, Lithium Explanation : The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to boost self-reliance in the critical minerals sector and support India’s clean energy goals. What are Critical Minerals? Critical minerals are those that are essential for modern technologies and national security, but have supply chain risks due to their limited availability or geographical concentration. Their ‘criticality’ changes over time depending on technological demand and supply dynamics. Applications of Critical Minerals Solar Panels: Use silicon, tellurium, indium, gallium. Wind Turbines: Use rare earth elements like neodymium, dysprosium. Electric Vehicles (EVs): Rely on lithium, cobalt, nickel for batteries. Energy Storage Systems: Use lithium-ion batteries. Also used in electronics, defence, aerospace, and medical technologies. Legal and Regulatory Framework 30 critical minerals were identified by a Ministry of Mines committee in 2022. List of India’s 30 Critical Minerals: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium, and Cadmium. 24 minerals added to Part D of Schedule I of the MMDR Act, 1957, granting the Central Government exclusive auctioning powers. A Centre of Excellence for Critical Minerals (CECM) will regularly review the mineral list and advise policy. Key Institutions and Their Role Geological Survey of India (GSI): Leading exploration under UNFC classification and MEMC Rules, 2015. Department of Atomic Energy: Identified 1,11,845 tonnes of REE oxide in Balotra, Rajasthan. IREL (India) Limited: Leading processing of beach sand minerals and operating Rare Earth Extraction and Refining Units. International Cooperation KABIL (Khanij Bidesh India Ltd) signed agreements with: CAMYEN SE (Argentina) for lithium exploration over 15,703 hectares. Critical Minerals Office, Australia for lithium and cobalt projects. Collaboration includes off-take agreements, funding support, and MEA coordination. Top Global Producers of Critical Minerals: Chile, Indonesia, Congo, China, Australia, and South Africa. About the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) is a strategic initiative by the Ministry of Mines aimed at ensuring long-term availability, security, and processing of critical minerals that are vital for clean energy technologies, economic development, and national security. It aligns with India’s commitments to net-zero emissions by 2070 and reducing the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 (from 2005 levels). Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2120525#:~:text=The%20Government%20of%20India%20launched,%2D25%20to%202030%2D31.

Answer 85

Baryons Explanation : Recently, physicists at CERN’s Large Hadron Collider beauty (LHCb) experiment reported confirmed evidence of Charge-Parity (CP) violation in a class of particles called baryons. This is the first statistically significant confirmation of CP violation in baryons, marking a potential breakthrough in understanding the matter-antimatter asymmetry in the universe. Matter Matter is anything that has mass and occupies space, composed of atoms and molecules. Primary States: Solid: Fixed shape and volume. Liquid: Fixed volume, no fixed shape. Gas: No fixed shape or volume. Fourth State – Plasma: Consists of ionized particles. Found in stars and high-energy environments. State Changes: Driven by temperature and pressure, e.g., melting, evaporation, condensation. Antimatter Antimatter consists of particles that are mirror counterparts of matter, with opposite electric charge. Electron → Positron, Proton → Antiproton, Neutron → Antineutron Creation: Both matter and antimatter were created during the Big Bang in equal amounts. Interaction: When matter and antimatter collide, they annihilate each other, producing gamma rays. Sources: Natural: Cosmic rays and radioactive decay. Artificial: Particle accelerators like the LHC simulate conditions similar to the Big Bang, producing antiparticles. Key Concepts and Definitions CP Violation (Charge-Parity Violation): CP violation refers to a discrepancy in the behavior of matter and antimatter counterparts under a combination of charge conjugation (C) and parity transformation (P). Charge conjugation (C) changes a particle into its antiparticle, while parity (P) flips the spatial coordinates (like a mirror reflection). Ideally, CP symmetry implies that matter and antimatter should behave identically in physical processes. Violation of this principle hints at an inherent asymmetry. Baryons and Antibaryons: Baryons are subatomic particles made of three quarks. The most common examples are protons and neutrons. Their antimatter counterparts, called antibaryons, are composed of three antiquarks. Latest Discovery: What Did the LHCb Find? Physicists studied a baryon called the lambda-b (Λb) particle, composed of up (u), down (d), and bottom (b) quarks. The lambda-b baryon was observed decaying into a proton, a kaon, and two pions. A small but statistically significant difference was found in the decay rate between the lambda-b baryon and its antimatter counterpart, indicating CP violation. This is the first discovery of CP violation in baryons to surpass the five-sigma statistical threshold, a standard benchmark for declaring a scientific discovery. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/matter-antimatter-mismatch-baryons

Answer 86

1 only Explanation : A recent study on hantavirus transmission in Madagascar highlights a critical intersection between invasive species, land-use patterns, and emerging zoonotic diseases. Key Findings of the Study Black rats (Rattus rattus) have been identified as the exclusive carriers of hantavirus in rural Madagascar. These rats, originally from Asia, were introduced to Madagascar between the 10th and 14th centuries and have since spread widely across the island. Despite Madagascar’s rich biodiversity, none of the other small animals, including bats and native rodents, tested positive for the virus in this study. Nearly 2,000 animals were tested. Hantavirus: Nature and Transmission Hantavirus is a rare but deadly virus that spreads through urine, feces, and saliva of infected rodents. Transmission primarily occurs through aerosolization of rodent waste, direct contact, or rarely, through bites. Human-to-human transmission is extremely rare, making environmental exposure the main concern. Symptoms and Risk Groups The disease typically progresses in two stages: Prodromal Phase (1–8 weeks post-exposure): Includes flu-like symptoms such as fever, chills, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Severe Phase: May escalate to Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) or Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS), involving respiratory distress, fluid accumulation in lungs, and potential heart failure. High-risk groups include: Farmers, field workers, and construction workers. Campers, hikers, and individuals who come into contact with rodent-infested environments. Children under five, pregnant women, and the immunocompromised are especially vulnerable and should avoid contact with pet rodents. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/environment/story/how-black-rats-and-farmland-are-driving-madagascar-hantavirus-risk-2706500-2025-04-09

Answer 87

South China Sea and East China Sea Explanation : China launches aggressive military drills in Taiwan Strait. About Taiwan Strait The Taiwan Strait is a strategically significant and geopolitically sensitive body of water separating mainland China from the island of Taiwan. Approximately 180 kilometers (110 miles) wide at its broadest point and narrowing to about 130 kilometers (81 miles), it connects the South China Sea to the East China Sea. The strait is relatively shallow, with depths averaging around 70 meters (230 feet), and encompasses the Pescadores (Penghu) Islands, which are administered by Taiwan. The strait was named Formosa (“Beautiful”) by Portuguese navigators in the late 16th century; although it is still known in the West by its European name, the Chinese and now most Westerners use the name Taiwan Strait. The strait is also one of the most important fishing grounds in China, and more than a hundred economically important fish species are found here. The Taiwan Strait is vital for global trade, with nearly 40% of the world's container ships passing through it annually. Taiwan Strait History The Taiwan Strait has been a focal point of military and political tensions since the conclusion of the Chinese Civil War in 1949. Following the retreat of the Nationalist government to Taiwan, the strait became a de facto boundary between the People's Republic of China (PRC) and the Republic of China (ROC). Notable flashpoints include the Taiwan Strait Crises of 1954–55 and 1958, during which the PRC conducted artillery bombardments of ROC-held islands, prompting U.S. intervention to deter further escalation. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://edition.cnn.com/2025/04/07/world/video/china-launches-military-drills-taiwan-ripley-dnt-ebof-digvid

Answer 88

Least Concern Explanation : A rare sighting of the Indian giant flying squirrel has been reported in Ranikhet, a picturesque hill station in Uttarakhand. About Indian Giant Flying Squirrel Size: One of the largest flying squirrels, with a body length of about 30 – 45 cm and a tail measuring up to 60 cm. Features: They have a rufous coat, grey underparts, and large, round eyes. Their flying membrane extends from their wrists to their ankles, which enables them to glide from tree to tree. Habitat: Found in tropical and subtropical forests across central and southern India. Evergreen, semi-evergreen and deciduous forests frequent forest edges. Diet: Primarily feeds on fruits, nuts, leaves, and bark, contributing to seed dispersal. Behaviour: Nocturnal and arboreal, it glides between trees in search of food, covering distances up to 60 meters. Owls have been found to predate on them and they are found giving alarm calls on seeing or hearing owl’s calls. The Indian Giant Flying Squirrel is widely distributed and plays a significant role in maintaining forest ecosystems, making it a keystone species in its habitat. Protection under WPA: The Indian giant flying squirrel is listed in Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. IUCN Status: The Indian giant flying squirrel (Petaurista philippensis) is currently listed as "Least Concern" by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). While the global status is "Least Concern," its population in India is facing threats like habitat loss and degradation, which have led to a "Near Threatened" status within the country. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Apr/10/rare-sighting-of-indian-giant-flying-squirrel-in-uttarakhands-ranikhet-thrills-naturalists

Answer 89

1 only Explanation : Health authorities in New South Wales (NSW) have issued a public alert following a spike in Legionnaires' disease cases in Sydney, prompting concerns over possible contaminated air conditioning systems. About Legionnaires’ Disease About: Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria commonly found in freshwater environments like lakes or streams but can also thrive in man-made water systems. Types: Legionella most commonly causes one of two lung diseases: Legionnaires' disease is a type of severe pneumonia Pontiac fever is mild respiratory disease Symptoms: The symptoms of Legionnaires' disease are similar to those of other types of pneumonia and typically include cough, fever, headaches, muscle aches, and shortness of breath. In some cases, individuals may also experience confusion, diarrhea, or nausea. Transmission: The most common form of transmission of Legionella is inhalation of contaminated aerosols from contaminated water. It is not contagious, meaning it is not spread from person-to-person. Treatment: Treatments exist, but there is no vaccine currently available for Legionnaires’ disease. Patients with Legionnaires’ disease always require antibiotic treatment following diagnosis. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.daijiworld.com/news/newsDisplay?newsID=1277238

Answer 90

Short-range ballistic missile Explanation : India unveiled the BM-04 missile at a defense exhibition in Hyderabad last month. This next-generation short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) reflects India’s focus on enhancing its conventional counterforce capabilities. About BM-04 Missile The BM-04 is India's latest short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Unveiled at the Vigyan Vaibhav 2025 defense exhibition in Hyderabad, it represents a significant advancement in India's missile technology. Features: Size: The BM-04 is 10.2 meters long, 1.2 meters in diameter and weighs 11,500 kg. Range: The missile has a two-stage solid-fuel propulsion system; it can engage targets located at a maximum distance of up to 1,500 km, with a 500 kg conventional warhead, and has a 30-meter circular error probability (CEP). Deployment: It can be deployed using a six-wheel indigenous transport erector launcher (TEL). Like the existing missiles in the Indian arsenal, the BM-04 is canisterized, which allows the warheads to be mated with the delivery systems in advance, thus reducing the time required to fire the projectile. The BM-04 incorporates a Common Hypersonic Glide Body (C-HGB), enabling it to maneuver during flight and evade enemy missile defenses. This design allows for unpredictable flight paths, enhancing its survivability against anti-access/area denial (A2/AD) systems. BM-04 missiles can be regularly upgraded with new warheads, sensors, and propulsion systems as the threat matrix evolves. This will make the BM-04 a robust and reliable system that can withstand future threats. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) DRDO is India's premier military research agency, dedicated to developing advanced technologies for national defence and security. Established in 1958 with the motto “Balasya Mulam Vigyanam,” DRDO undertakes indigenous design and development leading to the production of state-of-the-art weapon systems and technologies for the Indian armed forces. DRDO has seven technology clusters: Aeronautics, Armament, Combat Engineering, Electronics and Communication Systems, Microelectronic Devices and computational Systems, Life Sciences, and Naval Systems. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://thediplomat.com/2025/04/the-bm-04-missile-indias-next-generation-conventional-counterforce-weapon/

Answer 91

Jyotirao Phule Explanation : Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Union Home Minister Amit Shah paid tribute to social reformer Mahatma Jyotirao Phule on his birth anniversary. About Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Mahatma Jyotiba Phule (1827–1890) was a pioneering Indian social reformer, educator, and writer from Maharashtra, renowned for his relentless fight against caste discrimination and gender inequality. Born on April 11, 1827, in Pune, Maharashtra, Jyotirao Govindrao Phule belonged to the Mali caste. Despite societal barriers, he pursued education at the Scottish Mission High School in Pune, which exposed him to progressive Western ideas that shaped his reformist vision. A personal experience of caste-based discrimination at a friend’s wedding in 1848 profoundly impacted him and inspired his lifelong fight against social injustices. His wife, Savitribai Phule, became India's first female teacher and an equal partner in his reforms. Together, they championed women's education and opened the first school for girls in Pune in 1848. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Contributions Education: Established schools for girls and marginalised communities when educating them was considered taboo. Founded night schools for working-class individuals to ensure access to education irrespective of caste or gender. Social Reforms: Satyashodhak Samaj (1873): Founded this "Society of Truth Seekers" to promote social equality and challenge caste oppression. It was open to people from all religions and castes. Women's Rights: Advocated for widow remarriage and fought against child marriage and female infanticide. Literary Contributions: Authored works like Gulamgiri (Slavery) critiquing caste oppression and Shetkaryacha Asud (Cultivator’s Whip) highlighting farmer exploitation by upper-caste landlords. Critique of Brahmanical Orthodoxy: Strongly opposed the caste system perpetuated by Brahmanical traditions and called for its abolition to achieve true social justice. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/pm-modi-amit-shah-remember-mahatma-phule-s-legacy-on-his-birth-anniversary-125041100213_1.html

Answer 92

Ministry of Education Explanation : The Government of India has approved a 9.5% hike in material cost under the PM-POSHAN scheme, resulting in an additional central expenditure of ₹954 crore for the financial year 2025–26, effective from May 1, 2025. About PM-POSHAN Scheme The PM-POSHAN Scheme, formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Education. It aims to provide one hot cooked meal per school day to 11.20 crore children studying in Balvatikas (pre-primary), and Classes 1 to 8 across 10.36 lakh government and government-aided schools. The scheme addresses twin objectives: Enhancing nutritional status of school-going children. Improving enrollment, retention, and attendance in schools, especially among disadvantaged children. The revised material cost per student per day is: ₹6.78 for Balvatika and Primary students (up from ₹6.19). ₹10.17 for Upper Primary students (up from ₹9.29). These rates represent the minimum mandatory contribution. However, States and Union Territories can contribute more from their budgets to provide meals with higher nutritional value. Nutritional norms under PM-POSHAN include: For Balvatika and Primary classes: 20g pulses, 50g vegetables, and 5g oil. For Upper Primary classes: 30g pulses, 75g vegetables, and 7.5g oil. The Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour supplies data on inflation for the items in the PM-POSHAN meal basket. This data is based on the Consumer Price Index – Rural Labourers (CPI-RL), calculated from 600 sample villages across 20 States. POSHAN Abhiyan is managed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development and aims to improve nutrition among adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children (0–6 years). Mission POSHAN 2.0, launched in 2021, merged POSHAN Abhiyan and the Supplementary Nutrition Programme to streamline efforts under one unified framework. Funding Pattern under POSHAN Abhiyan: 60:40 between Centre and States/UTs with legislature. 90:10 for the Northeastern and Himalayan States. 100% central funding for UTs without legislature. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-to-bear-additional-954-crore-cost-due-to-inflation-in-food-material-cost-under-pm-poshan-scheme/article69436043.ece

Answer 93

A nuclear fusion-powered rocket Explanation : Sunbird is a nuclear fusion-powered rocket being developed by Pulsar Fusion, a British startup, to revolutionise interplanetary travel. About Sunbird Sunbird could potentially reach speeds of up to 805,000 km/h, which is faster than the Parker Solar Probe (692,000 km/h), currently the fastest human-made object. This technology, if successful, could enable missions to Pluto in just 4 years and cut travel time to Mars by nearly half. It aims to revolutionize interplanetary travel by drastically reducing travel time to distant planets like Mars and Pluto. An orbital demonstration is scheduled for 2027, marking a major milestone in space propulsion technology. What is Nuclear Fusion Propulsion? Nuclear Fusion replicates the energy generation process of stars, fusing atoms to release energy. Unlike fission, fusion is cleaner and offers higher energy output with lower radioactive waste. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/sunbird-nuclear-fusion-rocket-mars-time-half-pluto-4-years-9936341/

Answer 94

1 and 3 only Explanation : An algal bloom along the California coast has resulted in a neurotoxin release, which is causing sea lions to become aggressive, leading to attacks on beachgoers and surfers. About Sea Lions Family: Otariidae, which includes five species – California, Northern, Southern, Australian, and New Zealand sea lions. Habitat: Found along the Western coasts of North America, from southeast Alaska to central Mexico, mainly on rocky shores and sandy beaches. Physical Traits: They possess external ear flaps, long foreflippers, mane-like fur in males, and can weigh up to 1200 pounds (approx. 545 kg). Behavior: Typically non-aggressive and social, sea lions are now showing lethal aggression due to neurotoxin-induced neurological disorders. Lifespan: The Average lifespan is 20 to 30 years. What is Causing the Sea Lions' Aggression? Sea lions, typically non-aggressive marine mammals, have shown violent and erratic behaviour, attributed to exposure to a neurotoxin called domoic acid. Domoic acid is secreted by the toxic diatom algae Pseudo-nitzschia, which blooms excessively under nutrient-rich conditions in the ocean. Once released, this neurotoxin enters the marine food chain, affecting not just small fish, but also larger predators like sea lions that consume these fish. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/neurotoxin-released-by-algal-bloom-off-californian-coast-is-making-sea-lions-aggressive-heres-why-climate-change-is-to-be-blamed

Answer 95

‘Noctiluca scintillans’, often referred to as “sea sparkle”, is associated with which of the following natural phenomena? Explanation : Recently, bioluminescent blue waves were observed in the backwaters of Kochi, Kerala, attracting tourists but raising concerns among ecologists and fishers due to underlying environmental degradation. About Bioluminescence Bioluminescence refers to the natural emission of light by organisms such as bacteria, fungi, and algae triggered by mechanical disturbances in coastal and estuarine waters. The species most commonly responsible is Noctiluca scintillans, a type of dinoflagellate plankton, also known as “sea sparkle”. This glow results from chemical reactions inside specialized structures called scintillons and appears primarily blue but can also show red or brown hues depending on species concentration. The phenomenon is commonly observed from March to May, locally termed as "Kavaru" in Malayalam. Scientific Background Eutrophication—caused by nutrient overload (especially nitrates and phosphates) from industrial runoff and sewage discharge—is a major driver. Salinity levels between 30-35 ppt, rising temperatures, and reduced rainfall contribute to bloom formation. When concentrations exceed 500,000 organisms per litre, it leads to red tides, which can severely disrupt marine ecosystems. Ecological and Economic Impacts Plankton, while a key part of marine food chains, in large numbers release substances like dimethyl sulphide, ammonium, and dissolved organic carbon, causing Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs). HABs lead to hypoxia (oxygen depletion), resulting in mass fish mortality and affecting biodiversity and aquaculture operations. Fishing communities experience significant losses as fish migrate away from bloom-affected zones, leading to declining catches and reduced income. Toxins such as domoic acid and those from Alexandrium can cause amnesic or paralytic shellfish poisoning, harming both marine life and human health. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/behind-the-beauty-of-kochis-bioluminescent-backwaters-lies-a-looming-crisis

Answer 96

practice of portraying polluting industries as environmentally friendly Explanation : The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has recently introduced a new category of industries called the ‘Blue Category’, which falls under Essential Environmental Services (EES). What is Blue Washing? ‘Blue Washing’ refers to the practice of portraying polluting industries as environmentally friendly by categorising them under less polluting or cleaner industry labels. This term is now used to describe the reclassification of highly polluting Waste-to-Energy (WTE) incineration industries by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) into the new 'Blue Category'. Blue Category The ‘Blue Category’ is introduced as part of a subset of EES activities like composting, biogas plants, sewage treatment, and material recovery facilities. Waste-to-Energy (WTE) incineration, previously under the ‘Red Category’ with a PI of 97.6, is now reclassified as a ‘Blue Category’ industry. What is WTE Incineration? WTE incineration burns mixed municipal solid waste (MSW) to produce heat and electricity. It generates energy through turbine-driven steam, similar to coal plants, but emits more CO₂ About Pollution Index (PI) The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) introduced a Pollution Index (PI) to categorise industries based on pollution levels. PI is calculated on the basis of emissions (air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous waste, and resource consumption. PI ranges from 0 to 100, with industries classified as: White Category (0–20): Least polluting Green Category (21–40) Orange Category (41–59) Red Category (60–100): Most polluting Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/waste/blue-washing-new-categorisation-by-cpcb-promotes-highly-polluting-incineration-industry?utm_source=website&utm_medium=related-stories

Answer 97

United States Explanation : Dozens of mini-earthquakes have rattled Alaska's Mount Spurr recently, sparking fears among scientists that the towering 11,000-foot volcano may be on the verge of a major eruption. About Mount Spurr: It is an ice- and snow-covered active stratovolcano complex located in the north-central Cook Inlet region about 100 kilometers west of Anchorage, Alaska, United States. The volcano sits at the south edge of a break in the Alaska Range. It is composed mostly of andesite. It consists of a breached stratovolcano, a lava dome at the summit of Mount Spurr, and Crater Peak vent, a small stratocone on the south flank of Mount Spurr volcano. The mountain is 3,000 m high and is topped with a 5 by 6 km caldera. The mountain suffered a crater collapse around 10,000 years ago that created Chakachamna Lake. There is an active icefield in the caldera and multiple glaciers. The volcano last erupted in 1992. That eruption resulted in heavy ashfall and affected air travel in the region. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/alaskas-mt-spurr-volcano-showing-signs-of-eruption-amid-surge-in-quakes-and-gas-emissions/articleshow/120215234.cms

Answer 98

Only three Explanation : Farmer leaders, environmentalists, religious heads, and advocates came together recently to protest the proposed land acquisition by the state government for the Bandura Nala water diversion project in the Mahadayi river basin. About Mahadayi River: The Mahadayi River, also called Mandovi or Mhadei, is a rain-fed river that is shared between Karnataka and Goa for their water needs. Course: It originates from Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Western Ghats in Karnataka. It travels briefly through Maharashtra before entering Goa and emptying into the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa. About 76 km of Mahadayi's 111-km length runs through Goa. Tributaries: It has several tributaries, namely Rogaro, Kushavati, Nanorem, Nanuz, Valvota, and Mapusa. Panaji, the state capital, and the town of Old Goa are situated on the left bank of the Mandovi River. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the island of Chorao in the Mandovi River. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/greens-religious-leaders-oppose-land-acquisition-for-bandura-nala-project-in-mahadayi-river-basin/articleshow/120136350.cms

Answer 99

1 only Explanation : Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the Release Trials of Long-Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) ‘Gaurav’ recently. About Long-Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) 'Gaurav': "Gaurav" is a 1,000-kg class glide bomb designed and developed indigenously by the DRDO. Unlike conventional bombs that fall vertically after release, glide bombs are equipped with fins or wings that allow them to glide forward through the air toward their target. Importantly, a glide bomb does not have an engine. Instead, it relies on the momentum from being dropped from a high-flying aircraft and uses aerodynamic surfaces to cover long distances. This enables the launching aircraft to stay away from the enemy’s radar and air defence systems, thereby reducing risk to pilots while still achieving accurate strikes. Developed by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in Hyderabad, the Gaurav project involved active collaboration with Indian private sector partners such as Adani Defence Systems & Technologies, Bharat Forge, and several Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Features: With a diameter of 0.6 metre, it is four metre long and has a wingspan of 3.4 metre. It is an air-launched glide bomb capable of striking targets at long distances. When launched from high altitudes—typically over 40,000 feet—the Gaurav can glide to a range of over 100 kilometres. It is equipped with a dual guidance system that combines an Inertial Navigation System (INS) with satellite-based GPS. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2120989

Answer 100

Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana Explanation : The Union Cabinet recently approved the ‘Modernisation of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM)’ as a sub-scheme of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY). About Modernization of Command Area Development and Water Management (M-CADWM) Scheme: It is a sub-scheme of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY). This initiative, with an initial outlay of ₹1,600 crore, is set to run from 2025-2026 and is designed to significantly enhance the irrigation infrastructure in India. The key goal of the M-CADWM is to modernise the irrigation water supply network, ensuring that irrigation water reaches the designated farming clusters from existing canals or other water sources. This will help farmers with small land-holdings, by improving water-use efficiency through the use of advanced technologies such as SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) and the Internet of Things (IoT). These technologies will assist in better water accounting and management, directly contributing to increased Water Use Efficiency (WUE) at the farm level. A key feature of the M-CADWM scheme is the implementation of underground pressurised, piped irrigation systems, extending up to 1 hectare per farm. This infrastructure will be developed to enhance micro-irrigation practices, enabling farmers to use water more effectively and ultimately increasing agricultural production and productivity. In addition to modernising the irrigation systems, the scheme aims to build sustainable farming practices. It proposes the Irrigation Management Transfer (IMT) to Water User Societies (WUS), empowering these communities to manage irrigation assets independently. To ensure long-term success, these societies will receive support for the next five years, helping them connect with Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) or Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies (PACS). This is expected to profitably improve sustainable water management practices. The M-CADWM scheme also seeks to make agriculture more appealing to youth by encouraging the adoption of modern irrigation techniques, creating new opportunities for young people in the agricultural sector. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-m-cadwm-sub-scheme-under-pmksy-for-2025-26/article69430893.ece

Answer 101

1 only Explanation : The Railway Minister recently announced that 104 of the 1,300 stations being redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat scheme are complete. About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme: It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission launched in February 2023. It aims to enhance and modernize railway stations throughout the Indian Railways network. The scheme currently intends to upgrade and modernize a total of 1,300 stations across the Indian Railway system. It envisages the development of stations on a continuous basis with a long-term approach. It involves the preparation of Master Plans and their implementation in phases to improve the amenities at the stations, like improvement of station access, circulating areas, waiting halls, toilets, lift/escalators as necessary, cleanliness, free Wi-Fi, kiosks for local products through schemes like ‘One Station One Product’, better passenger information systems, Executive Lounges, nominated spaces for business meetings, landscaping etc. The scheme will cater to each station according to its unique requirements, and also draw inspiration from the local culture, heritage, and architecture of the region in the redesign of every station. The scheme emphasizes upgrading station structures, integrating stations with the surrounding city areas on both sides, promoting multimodal connectivity, providing facilities for individuals with disabilities (Divyangjans), implementing sustainable and eco-friendly solutions, introducing ballastless tracks, incorporating 'Roof Plazas' when required, and considering the feasibility and phasing of improvements. The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into vibrant city centres over the long term. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/railways/redevelopment-work-on-104-train-stations-under-amrit-bharat-scheme-completed-minister-ashwini-vaishnaw/articleshow/120212971.cms?from=mdr

Answer 102

Central Statistics Office (CSO) Explanation : Industrial output grew by only 2.9% in February 2025, marking the slowest growth in six months, well below the market expectation of 4%. About the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key statistical tool used to measure the short-term changes in the volume of production in Indian industries. It provides insight into the growth or contraction of industrial activity over a given period, making it a crucial economic performance indicator. The IIP is published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The current base year for the index is 2011–12. This base year was adopted to reflect modern industrial structure and production patterns, following periodic revisions from earlier base years such as 1937, 1946, 1951, 1956, and so on. Sectoral Composition of IIP (Weight-wise) Manufacturing: 77.63% of total weight (809 items) Mining: 14.37% (29 items) Electricity: 7.99% (1 item) Sectoral Growth (Year-on-Year in February) Mining: Slowed sharply to 1.6%, down from 8.1% in Feb 2024. Manufacturing: Grew at 2.9%, lower than 4.9% a year ago. Electricity: Output growth dropped to 3.6% from 7.6% in Feb 2024. Eight Core Industries (Weight in IIP: 40.27%) Listed in decreasing order of weightage: Refinery Products Electricity Steel Coal Crude Oil Natural Gas Cement Fertilisers Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/industrial-production-slows-iip-at-6-month-low-of-29-in-march-2025/article69440312.ece

Answer 103

Gender equality and climate challenges Explanation : Recently, the Beijing India Report 2024, submitted on the 30th anniversary of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action (1995), highlighted progress on gender equality and exposed gaps in addressing the gender-climate nexus. Background: Beijing Declaration & Platform for Action (1995) It was a landmark global framework adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women by the United Nations. It identified 12 critical areas for action, including poverty, education, health, violence against women, and decision-making. The Declaration emphasized women’s rights as human rights and promoted legal and social reforms to achieve gender equality. India’s Progress: India, as a signatory, has enacted several laws including the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (2005) and the POSH Act (2013) for workplace safety. However, their implementation remains inconsistent, revealing a gap between legislation and lived reality. India’s International Commitments India is a signatory to several international frameworks that mandate gender equity and climate justice, including: Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948), ICCPR (1966), CEDAW (1979), UN Convention Against Corruption (2003), Agenda 2030 for Sustainable Development, and Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action (1995). Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-beijing-india-report-as-milestone-and-opportunity/article69440504.ece

Answer 104

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Asiatic lions are gradually expanding their range beyond Gir forests, often crossing state borders and venturing into coastal areas like Diu Island. About Asiatic Lions The Asiatic lion, also known as the Persian Lion or Indian Lion, belongs to the subspecies Panthera leo persica. It is found exclusively in India, specifically in the Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat. Once widespread across West Asia and the Middle East, the Asiatic lion has now become extinct in these regions, with India being the last refuge of this species. Current distribution: The latest lion census (2020) by the Gujarat Forest Department records 674 lions spread across 30,000 sq km in nine districts and 53 talukas of Saurashtra. Due to sustained conservation, the IUCN moved the Asiatic lion from “Critically Endangered” (1990s) to “Endangered” (since 2008) on its Red List. About Gir and Girnar Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1965 over 1,412 sq km, with an additional buffer zone of 470 sq km, totalling 1,882 sq km of protected habitat. Girnar Wildlife Sanctuary, established in 2008, is located in the Junagadh district and covers the Girnar hills of the Saurashtra region. It comprises dry deciduous forests, with species like teak, dhak, and acacia, and supports a diverse fauna, including Asiatic lions, leopards, Chinkara, Chousingha, and over 300 species of birds. The Girnar Sanctuary functions as an extension habitat for lions beyond Gir National Park. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/in-search-of-new-homes

Answer 105

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The recent La Niña event in the tropical Pacific Ocean has officially ended, with the climate system now transitioning to ENSO-neutral conditions as confirmed by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). Key Points about ENSO and its Phases ENSO (El Niño Southern Oscillation): ENSO is a significant climate phenomenon that involves changes in sea-surface temperatures (SST) in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. It affects various global weather patterns, including wind behavior, atmospheric pressure, and rainfall distribution. El Niño: Warmer-than-usual sea surface temperatures, associated with unusual global warming patterns. La Niña: Cooler-than-usual sea surface temperatures, often linked with colder atmospheric patterns and stronger trade winds. ENSO-Neutral: Neither El Niño nor La Niña dominates the climate system, making forecasts less certain, but often acting as a transitional phase between the two extreme conditions. ENSO-Neutral Phase The ENSO-neutral phase is typically seen as a transition period between El Niño and La Niña. In March 2025, NOAA scientists observed that SST anomalies in the Niño-3.4 region had reached -0.01°C, much warmer than the La Niña threshold of -0.5°C. The cool waters that had characterized La Niña in previous months have now faded. Despite the presence of some La Niña-like atmospheric conditions (like strong trade winds), the lack of cool SSTs has led to the declaration of ENSO-neutral conditions. Temperature and Atmospheric Changes: The shift to neutral conditions occurred as warm waters spread westward across the eastern Pacific. Simultaneously, the pool of cool water beneath the surface began to shrink. Although signs of La Niña (like strong trade winds) persisted for a short time, the absence of cold surface waters meant the system no longer met the criteria to be classified as La Niña. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/science-technology/la-ni%C3%B1a-fades-as-enso-neutral-conditions-take-hold-across-the-pacific

Answer 106

Measure the mass of the electron antineutrino Explanation : Latest update from the KATRIN experiment (April 2025) has brought significant advancement in particle physics. What are Neutrinos? Neutrinos are electrically neutral subatomic particles that are produced in processes like radioactive decay and nuclear reactions, including those occurring in the sun and stars. They are one of the fundamental particles in the Standard Model of particle physics, but their mass remains unknown. Unlike other fundamental particles, neutrinos are extremely lightweight, with masses less than a millionth that of an electron. What is the KATRIN Experiment? KATRIN stands for Karlsruhe Tritium Neutrino experiment, and it is located in Karlsruhe, Germany. Its primary aim is to precisely measure the mass of the electron antineutrino, a type of neutrino produced in beta decay. The experiment focuses on studying the decay of tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, which emits both an electron and an electron antineutrino. The energy of the emitted electron is affected by the mass of the neutrino — hence, measuring electron energies helps infer the upper limit of the neutrino’s mass. Recent Findings In its latest analysis, KATRIN has reduced the upper limit of the neutrino mass to less than 0.45 electron volts (eV). This is a significant improvement over its earlier result and represents a nearly 50% reduction in the previously estimated maximum value. The data is based on the precise measurement of energies from 36 million electrons produced in tritium decay. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/neutrino-mass-shrinks-katrin-electron

Answer 107

It is one of the oldest living fossil species. Explanation : A team of researchers recently reported rediscovering a long-lost species of the velvet worm (phylum Onychophora), named Typhloperipatus williamsoni, one of the oldest living fossils in the world, after 111 years. About Typhloperipatus williamsoni: It is an ancient velvet worm species (phylum Onychophora), one of the oldest living fossils in the world. Onychophora is a very old group, easily older than 350 million years. It has only two families and not more than 200 species. The diversity is very less. These were evolving almost simultaneously with dinosaurs. When the mass extinction happened, probably a lot of them were wiped out. What we see today is mostly those species which escaped extinction. T. williamsoni was rediscovered after 111 years from the Siang Valley in Arunachal Pradesh. T. williamsoni was first collected during the “Abor expedition” by Stanley Kemp, the erstwhile superintendent of the Indian Museum, Calcutta, and his team in December 1911 in Siang Valley. Since Kemp’s discovery, there have been no documented records of it from India. The molecular data from T. williamsoni indicated that South Asian onychophoras split from their neotropical (Central and South America), including southern parts of Mexico and the Caribbean) and only African relatives around 237 million years ago. Interestingly, the Asian onycophora were found to have no relatives in Australian onychophoras. This is unusual given that invertebrates found in Southeast Asia and India are usually related to those in Australia. Asian Onychophora is one of the few exceptions to this relationship. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/atree-researchers-rediscover-long-lost-species-after-111-years/article69442309.ece

Answer 108

1 only Explanation : China’s state-run defence firm Norinco recently said that it has developed the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon, dubbed the Bullet Curtain. About Bullet Curtain: It is the world’s first close-in anti-drone barrage weapon. It is capable of countering a broad range of low-flying aerial threats including rockets, helicopters, missiles, and most notably, drone swarms. It has been made by China's state-run defence firm Norinco. The system was inspired by Metal Storm, which is a rapid-fire weapon concept jointly developed by Australia and the United States in the late 1990s. Breaking from convention: Conventional anti-air systems typically rely on “point-to-point” interception, aiming directly at incoming threats. By allowing multiple guns to fire together, the Bullet Curtain system creates a plane of fire that increases the probability of intercepting fast, unpredictable targets. Bullet Curtain Features: The system uses a “plane-to-point” interception model, which forms a wall of projectiles to blanket incoming targets with overlapping firepower. The system reportedly uses a 4x4 tight arrangement of 35mm gun barrels for various types of ammunition to deliver a high rate of fire while maintaining quick reload capabilities. It fires 35mm advanced hit efficiency and destruction (AHEAD) ammunition that spits hundreds of sub-projectiles each to form a barrage against drones. The system reportedly integrates radar, an optical detection system, a fire-control system, an integrated management system, and ammunition with the platform. The system has been fitted on a 6x6 truck and configured as a road-mobile air-defence cover embedded in mechanised units. Its modular design means it can also be integrated with various platforms, including wheeled and tracked armoured vehicles, naval ships, and fixed installations, allowing rapid deployment across different combat scenarios while staying compatible with existing military infrastructure. A computer-based system adjusts the volume and type of fire depending on the target’s nature, allowing dynamic threat engagement. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://swarajyamag.com/news-brief/china-unveils-worlds-first-anti-drone-barrage-weapon-capable-of-countering-swarms-and-missiles

Answer 109

Rajasthan Explanation : Work has started for revival of the historic Ramgarh lake near Jaipur, which was once a lifeline for water supply to the Rajasthan Capital. About Ramgarh Lake: It is situated near the Jamwa Ramgarh subdivision of the Jaipur district in the Indian state Rajasthan. It is a man-made water body created by forming an embankment on the forested hills. Erstwhile Jaipur ruler Sawai Ram Singh II had built the Ramgarh lake in 1876 to provide relief to the inhabitants of the region. It lies at a distance of 32 kilometres from Jaipur city and encompasses an area of about 15.5 sq.km. It measures 2 kilometres in width and 4 kilometres in length. Once, the lake served as the main source of water supply for the city of Jaipur. In the present time, the four rivers, Roda, Banganga, Tala, and Madhoveni, which used to bring water to the lake, have gone dry due to the deforestation and mining activity carried out in the catchment area. Ramgarh Lake has a historical record of hosting a rowing event during Asian Games of 1982. Jamwa Mata temple is situated at a downward course of Ramgarh Lake. The Polo Ground at Ramgarh, that sits in the middle of the Ramgarh Lake and the Aravalli Hills, is regarded as one of the best of its kind in the country. The thick forest near Ramgarh Lake is the abode to many wildlife species such as Nilgai, Chital, and lions. The region was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in the year 1982 by the Government of India. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rajasthan/ramgarh-dams-catchment-area-being-surveyed-for-removal-of-encroachments/article68460732.ece

Answer 110

Civilian aircraft Explanation : The Saras Mk2, an updated version of an India-designed civilian aircraft, is set to test-fly in December 2027, Director, CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories (CSIR-NAL) told recently. About Saras Mk2: It is a 19-seater, multi-purpose civilian aircraft. It is the first Indian multi-purpose civilian aircraft in the light transport aircraft category. It is being developed by National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL), Bengaluru, in collaboration with the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). It is an upgraded version of the Saras Mk 1. It can be used for multiple purposes, including for medical emergencies or in the event of natural disasters. It can also help in transporting passengers from Tier-1 cities to Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities. Features: It will be a 7.5-ton aircraft and will have an endurance of 6 hours with a service ceiling of 29,000 ft. It will have a maximum range of 775 km with a max load of 19 passengers and 2450 km with 7 passengers. Its maximum cruise speed will be 500 kmph and stall speed 185 kmph. The take-off distance for SARAS MK2 is going to be 790m, landing distance of 740m. The aircraft will be powered by 2 Pratt & Whitney Canada PT6A-67A turboprop engines. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/first-test-flight-of-saras-mk2-plane-expected-in-december-2027-official/article69443472.ece

Answer 111

Mizoram Explanation : Forest fires that had erupted in several parts of Mizoram’s Phawngpui National Park have affected nearly one-ninth of the park’s total area, state forest officials said recently. About Phawngpui National Park: Phawngpui National Park, also known as the Blue Mountain National Park, is located in the southeastern corner of Mizoram, near the India-Myanmar border. It is the highest peak in the state, rising to an altitude of 2,157 meters above sea level. It overlooks the Chhimtuipui River and the hill ranges of Myanmar. The national park covers an area of 50 sq.km. The local Mizo people consider the national park as a sacred place, and believe that it is inhabited by the spirits of their ancestors. The national park is often enveloped by clouds, and appears blue from a distance. Flora: The thick forests are interspersed with small patches of grassy glades and are replete with diverse fauna typical of Montane Subtropical forests including oak, rhododendrons, and rare species of bamboos. Fauna: It is home to an amazing variety of birdlife, including the rare Blyth’s Tragopan, Dark Rumped Swift, and Mrs. Hume’s Pheasant, the Mizoram state bird, and endangered mammals like the Slow Loris, Tiger, Leopard, Leopard Cat, Serow, Goral, Asiatic Black Bear, Stump-tailed Macaque, and Capped Langur. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/forest-fires-affected-one-ninth-of-phawngpui-national-park-in-mizoram-official-101744292750022.html

Answer 112

Tuberculosis Explanation : Researchers from Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology (SCTIMST), Thiruvananthapuram, have successfully developed a novel, indigenous, real-time LAMP (rt-LAMP) assay for the early detection of Tuberculosis (TB). What is the rt-LAMP Assay? The rt-LAMP assay is a molecular diagnostic tool similar to GeneXpert and Truenat, providing high sensitivity and specificity. It can detect TB DNA even when only 10 copies per microlitre are present, enabling early-stage diagnosis. Unlike RT-PCR, which requires three different temperature cycles, **rt-LAMP works at a single temperature, simplifying the testing process. The test uses six primers for DNA amplification (compared to two in RT-PCR), ensuring faster and more specific detection. The researchers used a fluorescent dye (Syto 16)—commonly used in cell biology—which does not inhibit the reaction, solving the long-standing issue of false negatives in earlier LAMP tests. Results can be detected in 10–20 minutes, significantly reducing diagnostic time compared to RT-PCR. Regulatory Status The rt-LAMP assay has been licensed to the industry for production. It has received approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO). The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is currently validating the technology. The World Health Organization’s Health Technology Access Pool (HTAP) also evaluates the test, pending ICMR validation. Significance for India’s TB Control Strategy As of 2023, around 79% of presumptive TB cases in India were still being diagnosed using sputum smear microscopy, while only 21% used molecular tests. Despite the rise in molecular testing labs (from 5,090 in 2022 to 6,496 in 2023), India still falls short of the targets set under the National Strategic Plan (2017–2025) to reduce reliance on smear microscopy. The indigenous rt-LAMP assay could help bridge the diagnostic gap, by providing a low-cost, rapid, scalable, and accurate alternative to outdated smear techniques. It supports the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP) by enabling faster case detection, reducing disease transmission, and improving public health outcomes. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/indigenous-tb-test-c

Answer 113

International Maritime Organization Explanation : Recently, India, along with 62 other countries, voted in favour of the first global carbon tax on the shipping industry, adopted by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) in London. About Carbon Tax A Carbon Tax is an environmental tax levied on the carbon content of fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas. The objective is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by creating a financial disincentive for pollution and encouraging clean energy alternatives. It is calculated based on the amount of CO₂ or other GHGs emitted and promotes a market-based climate solution. Types of Carbon Tax Emissions tax: Tax on total GHG emissions, based on the carbon content of fuels used. Energy tax: Levied on fossil fuel consumption, calculated from carbon or energy usage. Cap-and-Trade System: Sets a cap on emissions; permits traded in a carbon market to incentivise reduction. Border tax adjustment: Applies carbon tax on imported goods based on emissions during production to prevent carbon leakage. Carbon Tax in India India currently does not have a nationwide carbon tax, but there have been proposals to introduce one. In 2015, India proposed a carbon tax of INR 50 per metric ton on coal production/import, but it remains unimplemented. Some states, like Tamil Nadu, have introduced state-level carbon levies, particularly on coal used in electricity generation. India promotes clean energy and emission reductions through initiatives like: National Clean Energy Fund National Solar Mission Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) About the International Maritime Organization (IMO) The IMO is a United Nations specialised agency responsible for the safety, security, and environmental performance of international shipping. It contributes to SDG 14: Conserve and sustainably use oceans, seas, and marine resources. While the IMO sets global maritime rules, their enforcement depends on member states converting them into national laws. The IMO also deals with legal matters like liability, compensation, and maritime traffic facilitation. IMO – Quick Facts Established: Founded in 1948 as IMCO; became a UN specialised agency in 1959; renamed IMO in 1982. Members: 174 Member States. Headquarters: London, United Kingdom. Main bodies: Assembly (highest body), Council (executive), Five Committees (policy-making). Funding: Funded by member contributions, voluntary donations, and commercial income. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-votes-in-favour-of-first-global-carbon-tax-on-shipping/article69443058.ece

Answer 114

1 only Explanation : A multinational study led by scientists from Nankai University, University of Massachusetts Amherst, and other institutions revealed that plant leaves can absorb microplastics and nanoplastics directly from the air. About Microplastics Definition: Microplastics are defined as plastic particles up to 5 millimetres in diameter, while nanoplastics are even smaller, measuring less than 1,000 nanometres. Types: Primary microplastics (e.g., cosmetics, microfibers) and secondary microplastics (formed from the breakdown of larger plastics). Environmental entry: Through product use, abrasion, or breakdown in natural settings. Persistence: Microplastics are non-biodegradable, mobile, and accumulate in ecosystems. Impact on Organisms: It can be ingested by marine and terrestrial organisms, causing toxicity and bioaccumulation. Chemical risk: Microplastics can carry pollutants and toxic chemicals, further endangering ecological and human health. How Microplastics Enter Plants The study demonstrated that plastic particles entered leaves via multiple pathways, primarily through surface structures such as stomata and the cuticle. Stomata are tiny pores formed by specialised cells on leaves that regulate gas exchange. The cuticle is a wax-coated protective membrane on leaf surfaces that is particularly conducive to absorbing airborne particles like microplastics. Once inside, microplastics moved between plant cells and could accumulate in tiny, hair-like structures called trichomes on the surface of leaves. These particles were also found to travel through the plant’s water and nutrient transport systems, reaching other tissues, although trichomes acted as “sinks” by trapping many external particles and thereby limiting their movement to roots. Ecological and Health Implications The study highlights significant ecological and public health risks due to atmospheric plastic pollution, as micro- and nanoplastics bioaccumulate through the food chain. Despite these findings, the long-term impact on human health remains unclear, prompting a call for further investigation into: The extent of dietary exposure, The absorption efficiency of microplastics in the human digestive system, And the potential for plastic particles to reach internal organs. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/microplastics-in-air-enter-plant-leaves-pass-to-animals-humans-study

Answer 115

All four Explanation : Recently, India and Italy have agreed to deepen their strategic cooperation across key sectors, including trade, defence, clean energy, and high technology. Why in the News? This commitment was reaffirmed during a meeting between External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar and Italian Deputy Prime Minister Antonio Tajani held in April 2025. The discussions prominently focused on advancing ties under the Joint Strategic Action Plan (JSAP) 2025–2029, which serves as a structured roadmap to diversify bilateral cooperation. The JSAP was jointly announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni during their meeting in November 2024 in Rio de Janeiro. About the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) IMEEC is a multimodal connectivity initiative aiming to improve infrastructure for trade and transport between India, the Middle East, and Europe. It was officially launched through a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed by India, the European Union, France, Germany, Italy, Saudi Arabia, UAE, and the US during the G20 Summit in New Delhi (2023). IMEEC is a part of the broader Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), which was initially announced at the G7 Summit 2021 in the UK. It is widely regarded as a strategic counter to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Structure of IMEEC: IMEEC will comprise two main corridors: Eastern Corridor: Connecting India to the Gulf region. Northern Corridor: Connecting the Gulf to Europe. Expansion of Bilateral Cooperation India and Italy agreed to deepen cooperation in critical areas such as: Trade and Investment, Defence and Security, Clean Energy Transition, High-end Technology, Space and Scientific Research and People-to-People Exchanges. The ministers also identified vast potential for collaboration in sectors including: Artificial Intelligence (AI), Cybersecurity and Telecommunications, Digital Technologies, Renewable Energy and Biofuels and Higher Education and Youth Mobility. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-italy-imeec-initiative-jaishankar-antonio-tajani-9940938/

Answer 116

Kathak Explanation : Renowned Kathak dancer Kumudini Lakhia passed away recently at the age of 94. About Kathak The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Katha’, meaning ‘story’. Nature of Performance: It originated as a temple performance where stories from scriptures were enacted and evolved into a court dance during the Mughal period. Major gharanas (schools): Prominent gharanas include the Lucknow, Jaipur, and Benaras gharanas. Dance style: Focus is on footwork (Tatkaar), pirouettes (Chakkars), mudras, and facial expressions. Dancers wear ankle bells (ghungroos) and perform with graceful yet intricate movements. Musical association: It is the only classical dance form linked to Hindustani (North Indian) music. Mughal influence: Under the Mughals, Kathak was transformed into a refined court art, emphasizing grace and intricate rhythmic patterns. Patronage: Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, played a major role in its artistic development and patronage. Prominent exponents: Key figures include Birju Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Shovana Narayan, and Aditi Mangaldas. Kumudini Lakhia Contributions Kumudini Lakhia challenged the classical notion that Kathak must always revolve around storytelling based on mythological or literary themes like Radha-Krishna or Shiva-Parvati. She believed in “art for art’s sake”, focusing on movement, rhythm, and form over narrative content. Over a career spanning seven decades, she transformed Kathak from a solo narrative-based art form to a group ensemble format, incorporating contemporary themes and abstract concepts. Awards and Recognition: She was conferred Padma Shri in 1987, Padma Bhushan in 2010, and Padma Vibhushan in 2024 for her outstanding contribution to Indian classical dance. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/kathak-icon-kumudini-lakhia-who-questioned-tradition-dies-at-94-9941195/

Answer 117

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India recently conducted a successful trial of the Mk-II(A) Laser- Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) that can disable fixed-wing and swarm drones, becoming one of the only four nations to have developed the technology. About Mk-II(A) Laser- Directed Energy Weapon (DEW): It is a 30-kilowatt laser-based weapon system designed to take down helicopters, swarm drones, and radars. The Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS), Hyderabad, developed the system along with several academic institutions and Indian industries. It is one of the most potent counter-drone systems in the world due to its lightning speed of engagement, precision, and lethal action within a few seconds. The laser system engages fixed-wing drones from a long range and can thwart multiple drone attacks at a time, destroying surveillance sensors and antennae. Once a target is identified by a radar or by its inbuilt Electro Optic (EO) system, it uses an intense beam of powerful light (laser beam) to cut through the target, causing structural failures or even more lethal damage. The development of this laser weapon can lower the risk of collateral damage and reduce reliance on expensive ammunition during conflict. With this, India has joined a list of selected countries, such as the US, China, and Russia, with such capabilities. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-joins-us-china-russia-as-only-nation-to-have-star-wars-laser-weapon-101744547925596.html

Answer 118

Hyderabad Explanation : The Telangana state government will build a bridge spanning 2.5 km across the Mir Alam Tank in Hyderabad and develop three island zones there in the style of Gardens by the Bay in Singapore. About Mir Alam Tank: It is a freshwater tank in Hyderabad, Telangana. It is located in the southern part of the Musi River. It covers an area of approximately 260 acres and has a capacity of 21 million cubic meters of water. The tank is fed by several streams and springs that flow down from the nearby hills. It was the primary source of drinking water for Hyderabad before the Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar reservoirs were built by the last Nizam of Hyderabad between 1913-25. History: The tank was named after Mir Alam Bahadur, then the Prime Minister of Hyderabad during Asaf Jah III’s reign, the third Nizam of Hyderabad state. Mir Alam Bahadur is believed to have laid the foundation for the tank on July 20, 1804, which was then completed in a period of two years and declared open on June 8, 1806. It was built by a French engineering company comprising 21 semicircular arches for a total area of approximately one mile. It was reportedly planned by Michel Joachim Marie Raymond, the Frenchman to whom Hyderabad’s Raymond Tomb has been dedicated. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2025/Apr/12/hyderabad-plans-25-km-bridge-over-mir-alam-tank-island-zones-to-mirror-singapores-gardens-by-the-bay

Answer 119

Only one Explanation : Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), or "monkey fever," is currently surging in Karnataka's Shivamogga and Chikkamagaluru districts recently. About Kyasanur Forest Disease: KFD, also referred to as Monkey Fever, is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic disease, which can be fatal to humans and other primates. It is mostly found in southern India. The disease was first reported from the Kyasanur Forest of Karnataka in India in 1957; hence, it is known as KFD. The causal agent, Kyasanur Forest Disease Virus (family Flaviviridae, genus Flavivirus), is a member of the tick-borne encephalitis (TBE) complex. The epidemic period usually begins in October or November and peaks from January to April, then declines by May and June. Transmission: Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) spread the KFD virus to people and to animals, like monkeys and rodents. No person-to-person transmission has been established yet. Symptoms: Most people with KFD have a sudden onset of chills, fever and headache. Severe muscle pain, vomiting, gastrointestinal symptoms, and bleeding can follow 3 or 4 days after symptoms begin. Most patients recover one to two weeks after symptoms begin. About 10 to 20% of patients experience a second wave of symptoms, including severe headache, mental disturbances, tremors, and vision problems. Between 5 and 10% of people who are known to be affected by KFD die. Treatment: There is no cure for KFD. Supportive care is crucial, including fluid balance, providing oxygen, managing blood pressure, and treating additional infections. Vaccine: A vaccine for KFD is available and recommended in the parts of India where KFD is found. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/kyasanur-forest-disease-spreading-in-karnataka-what-are-its-symptoms/articleshow/120214023.cms

Answer 120

Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : Camera traps installed at the Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh detected nine big cats at the park. About Pakke Tiger Reserve: It is located in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh. It is surrounded by the Tenga Reserve Forest to the north, Doimara Reserve Forest on the west, Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam) on the south, and some agricultural land as well as Papum Reserve Forest on the east. It lies within the Eastern Himalayas foothills and is surrounded by the Kameng River in the west and north, and the Pakke River across the east. It covers an area of 862 sq km. Climate: It has a subtropical climate with cold winters. The Nyishi tribe inhabits the area and plays a great role in its conservation. This Tiger Reserve has also won the India Biodiversity Award 2016 in the category of 'Conservation of threatened species' for its Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme. Vegetation: The habitat types in the park include lowland semi-evergreen, evergreen forest, and Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests. Flora: It consists of a wide variety of floral species such as Hoolock (a huge tree), giant bamboos, orchids, pine, oaks, walnuts, spruce, and rhododendrons. Fauna: Tiger, leopard, clouded leopard, jungle cat, wild dog, fishing cat, jackal, bison, elephant, sambar, hog deer, barking deer, wild boar, flying squirrel, and rhesus macaque. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/arunachal-pradeshs-pakke-tiger-reserve-camera-traps-spot-nine-tigers-enn25041100869

Answer 121

United States Explanation : Aviation experts have suggested that 'mast bumping' could be the reason behind the tragic helicopter crash into Manhattan's Hudson River recently. About Hudson River: It is a river in New York State, United States. It flows almost entirely within New York state, the exception being its final segment, where it forms the boundary between New York and New Jersey for 21 miles (34 km). It is named after English sea explorer Henry Hudson. It originates in several small postglacial lakes in the Adirondack Mountains near Mount Marcy (1,629 metres), the highest point in New York, and flows about 315 miles (507 km) through the eastern part of the state. Lake Tear of the Clouds is regarded as the source of its main headstream, the Opalescent River. The water from the Hudson River flows into the Upper New York Bay. It drains an area of 34,628 sq.km. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/explainers/what-is-mast-bumping-and-did-it-cause-hudson-river-helicopter-crash-9296108.html

Answer 122

African nations Explanation : Recently, the inaugural edition of the Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME), a large-scale multilateral maritime exercise, began in Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania. About Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME) AIKEYME is a large-scale multilateral maritime exercise between India and African nations, inaugurated in April 2025 at Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania. Co-hosting Nations: India and Tanzania jointly host the exercise, reflecting their shared strategic interests in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). 11 nations are participating: India, Tanzania, Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, and South Africa. The primary aim is to develop cooperative solutions to regional maritime challenges and to enhance naval interoperability and coordination between partner navies. Strategic vision: The exercise aligns with India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) vision and MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions) initiative, which PM unveiled in March 2025. Indian naval participation: INS Chennai (Destroyer), INS Kesari (Landing Ship Tank), and INS Sunayna are deployed as part of the engagement. IOS Sagar initiative: INS Sunayna is sailing under the Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) SAGAR mission, involving joint surveillance and goodwill port calls in Tanzania, Mozambique, Mauritius, Seychelles, and the Maldives. Exercise duration: Conducted over six days (April 13–18, 2025), divided into harbour and sea phases. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Inaugural India, A

Answer 123

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, a team of Indian scientists has developed novel analytical methods to study and potentially treat Rare Colorectal Cancer (SRCC) more effectively. What is Signet Ring Cell Carcinoma (SRCC)? Signet Ring Cell Carcinoma (SRCC) is a rare and aggressive subtype of colorectal cancer (CRC) that originates in the colon or rectum. It is named for the signet ring-like appearance of its cells under a microscope, caused by mucus pushing the nucleus to one side. SRCC is known for its rapid spread, resistance to conventional therapies, and late-stage diagnosis, making it one of the deadliest colon cancer variants. What Are the Innovative Methods Introduced? The researchers developed Patient-Derived Organoids (PDOs) and Patient-Derived Xenografts (PDXs) — PDOs are miniature 3D tumour models grown from human cancer tissues in lab dishes. PDXs involve implanting human tumour cells into mice, enabling the tumour to grow in a living system. These lab-grown models closely mimic the molecular behaviour of actual human SRCC tumours. This method forms one of the first living biobanks of SRCC models, enabling researchers to study the disease more precisely and test treatments in a controlled environment. A major difficulty in treating SRCC is its tendency to spread to the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, which worsens the prognosis and reduces treatment effectiveness. While SRCC makes up only 1% of all CRC cases globally, in India, it affects a disproportionately larger number of patients — nearly 10 times more, often in younger individuals. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/explained-how-scientists-developed-a-new-way-of-examining-rare-cancer-9942586/

Answer 124

ESA Explanation : The European Space Agency (ESA) is preparing to launch a landmark space mission called the Biomass Mission, which will provide the first-ever comprehensive global measurements of forest biomass. About the Mission The European Space Agency (ESA) is launching a pioneering mission called the Biomass Mission, scheduled for April 29, 2025. The satellite will be launched aboard a Vega C rocket from Korou Spaceport in French Guiana. It will be placed in a sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of approximately 666 km, ensuring the satellite observes the Earth under consistent lighting conditions. Objective and Significance The Biomass Mission aims to generate the first-ever global measurements of forest biomass, providing data that is currently severely lacking at a planetary scale. The mission seeks to map the world’s forests and understand how they are changing over time, contributing to the study of the global carbon cycle. Forests are a vital component of the carbon cycle, acting as carbon sinks. They currently store 861 gigatonnes of carbon in vegetation and soils and absorb around 16 billion metric tonnes of CO₂ annually. By tracking changes in forest carbon content, the mission will improve our understanding of carbon emissions, deforestation, and climate change. The mission responds to urgent concerns: in 2023 alone, the planet lost 3.7 million hectares of tropical forests—equivalent to losing 10 football fields of forest per minute, contributing to about 6% of global CO₂ emissions. Key Technologies Used The satellite is equipped with a 12-meter antenna and utilizes Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) to map the Earth's surface. Notably, it is the first satellite in space to use a P-band SAR, which is a long-wavelength radar system capable of penetrating dense forest canopies. This advanced technology allows measurement of carbon stored both in the canopy and on the forest floor, offering insights into how much biomass and hence, carbon is present. Since longer wavelengths penetrate more deeply than shorter ones, the P-band SAR is uniquely suited for generating 3D images of forests, from the canopy down to the tree roots. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/explained-tracking-the-worlds-forests-how-the-esas-biomass-mission-will-work-9942562/

Answer 125

1 only Explanation : Recently, India’s First Automated Bat Monitoring and Detection System was created by the Indian Institute for Human Settlements (IIHS), Bengaluru. What is BatEchoMon? BatEchoMon stands for “Bat Echolocation Monitoring”. It is India’s first automated, real-time bat monitoring and detection system. The system was developed by bat biologist Kadambari Deshpande and engineer Vedant Barje under the guidance of Jagdish Krishnaswamy. It was designed as part of the Long-Term Urban Ecological Observatory at the School of Environment and Sustainability, Indian Institute for Human Settlements (IIHS), Bengaluru. What Does BatEchoMon Do? BatEchoMon autonomously detects, records, analyses, and classifies bat echolocation calls in real-time — something that previously took researchers months to do manually. It includes: An ultrasonic microphone using a modified AudioMoth device. A Raspberry Pi microprocessor to process and classify calls. A solar-powered battery for power and a Wi-Fi unit for data transmission. The device activates automatically at sunset and continuously records audio through the night. It uses a convolutional neural network (CNN) algorithm to distinguish bat calls from other sounds and to classify them based on peak frequency and call structure. The output includes: Spectrograms (visual frequency-time plots of bat calls), Audio files of bat calls, Species-specific statistical data showing call frequency and timing. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: BatEchoMon, India’s first automated bat monitoring, detection system - The Hindu.

Answer 126

Fruit fly Explanation : Researchers at the University of California, Santa Barbara have discovered that fruit fly larvae possess the ability to detect and respond to electric fields, a sensory ability known as electroreception. About Electroreception Electroreception is the biological ability to detect weak electrostatic fields in the environment. It allows animals to sense electric fields generated by other living organisms or environmental factors. This ability is primarily found in certain vertebrate species, especially aquatic animals like sharks and electric fish, but is now also observed in invertebrates like fruit fly larvae. Electroreceptor organs were first discovered in the 1960s through physiological studies of weakly electric fish by Theodore H. Bullock, an American neuroscientist, and French scientists Thomas Szabo and Alfred Fessard. In some species, electroreception is also used for social communication, indicating its evolutionary importance beyond navigation or hunting. Key Findings The researchers found that only a small cluster of sensory neurons located on either side of the larva’s head were involved in this electroreceptive behavior. Upon closer analysis under a microscope, it was confirmed that a single neuron in this head cluster was directly responsible for detecting the electric field. The neuron exhibited directional sensitivity—it was inhibited when the negative electrode was in front of the larva’s head and activated when the electrode was behind, which triggered the larva to reorient and move accordingly. By eliminating other possible stimuli (confounding factors), the scientists confirmed that the larval response was specifically due to the electric field itself, not other environmental cues. This makes fruit fly larvae one of the few organisms, along with sharks, bees, and the platypus, known to exhibit this rare sensory ability. In controlled experiments, larvae immersed in an electric field were observed to reorient their movement and navigate towards the negative electrode, indicating that they could detect and respond to the direction and strength of the electric field. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/can-fruit-fly-larvae-sense-electric-fields/article69439949.ece

Answer 127

planning integrated generation, transmission and storage with demand response Explanation : On April 11, 2025, the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) launched the STELLAR Model—an advanced, indigenously developed software tool for integrated generation, transmission, and storage expansion planning with demand response. About STELLAR Model The STELLAR Model (State-of-the-art, Totally indigenously developed Resource adequacy model) is designed to help Indian states and discoms prepare comprehensive resource adequacy plans, in line with the Ministry of Power’s guidelines issued in June 2023. It is a vital tool for ensuring that the power sector can reliably meet future electricity demand through optimal planning of generation, transmission, and storage resources STELLAR Model Key Features Integrated Planning: The model enables simultaneous planning for generation, transmission, and storage expansion, incorporating demand response as a key component. Resource Adequacy Compliance: Assists states in meeting the dynamic, annually revised resource adequacy requirements mandated by the Ministry of Power. User-Friendly and Transparent: Developed entirely in India under CEA’s guidance, the tool is transparent and will be regularly updated based on user feedback. Free Distribution: The software will be provided at no cost to all states and discoms, promoting uniformity and ease of use across the country. Collaboration: Developed in partnership with The Lantau Group (TLG) and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) under a technical assistance program. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2121429

Answer 128

Nagaland Explanation : Recently, the Yimkhiung Tribal Council (YTC) led a major protest in Pungro Town, Nagaland, against the Indian government’s plan to fence the Indo-Myanmar border and the recent abolition of the Free Movement Regime (FMR). About Yimkhiung Tribe The Yimkhiung are one of the major Naga tribes, primarily inhabiting eastern Nagaland’s Kiphire district and adjacent areas in Myanmar. Their society is organised around clan-based villages, and there is a strong tradition of oral history, festivals, and communal land ownership. The Yimkhiung community is divided by the international border, with some villages in Myanmar and the rest in India. The border, drawn during colonial times, is seen by the tribe as an “imaginary line” that splits families and ancestral lands. The Yimkhiungrü language belongs to the Sino-Tibetan language family and is spoken by over 100,000 people across more than 100 villages and towns. The tribe celebrates several traditional festivals, with Tsüngkamnyo being the most significant post-harvest festival. The Border Fencing Controversy In February 2024, the Indian government announced the end of the Free Movement Regime (FMR) and plans to construct a border fence along the 1,643 km Indo-Myanmar border, including 215 km in Nagaland. The FMR previously allowed border residents to travel up to 16 km (later reduced to 10 km) into each other’s territory without a visa for social, economic, and cultural reasons. In response to this development, Yimkhiung have submitted a memorandum for the reversal of the fencing plan. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://assamtribune.com/north-east/yimkhiung-tribe-in-nagaland-protests-indo-myanmar-border-fencing-1574026

Answer 129

A neglected tropical disease caused by a parasitic protozoan Explanation : Recently, World Chagas Disease Day was observed on April 14, 2025, to raise awareness about Chagas disease, a neglected tropical disease affecting millions globally. About World Chagas Disease Day World Chagas Disease Day is observed every year on April 14. The 2025 theme, “Prevent, Control, Care: Everyone’s Role in Chagas Disease,” calls for global action to improve awareness, prevention, and access to care for those affected. The World Chagas Disease Day was celebrated for the first time in 2020. In 2025, the theme is “Prevent, Control, Care: Everyone’s role in Chagas disease,” emphasising collective responsibility. Over 7 million people are currently infected worldwide, with more than 100 million at risk, and an estimated 10,000–12,000 deaths annually. The World Health Organization and partners are urging governments, health systems, and communities to strengthen early diagnosis, treatment, and comprehensive care for all. Chagas Disease Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi. The parasite is primarily transmitted to humans by triatomine bugs—commonly called “kissing bugs”—but can also spread through blood transfusions, organ transplants, from mother to child during pregnancy, and, rarely, through contaminated food or laboratory accidents. It is often termed the “silent or silenced disease” due to its asymptomatic nature and prevalence among marginalised populations. Chagas disease is endemic in 21 countries in Latin America but is increasingly detected in the United States, Europe, and other regions due to migration. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.who.int/campaigns/world-chagas-disease-day/2025

Answer 130

Boost to credit growth and investment in the economy Explanation : Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reduced the repo rate by 25 basis points, bringing it down to 6%. About Repo Rate The repo rate is the interest rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities. It serves as a primary tool for the RBI to regulate liquidity, control inflation, and influence overall economic activity. By adjusting the repo rate, RBI can either encourage banks to borrow more (by lowering the rate) or discourage borrowing (by raising the rate), thus influencing the money supply in the economy. Impact of RBI Repo Rate Cut Lower Borrowing Costs: Commercial banks benefit from reduced borrowing costs, enabling them to offer loans at more competitive interest rates. Fixed Deposit (FD) Interest Rates: Banks typically lower FD rates after a repo rate cut, as their own cost of funds decreases. This means new FDs will offer lower returns, while existing FDs remain unaffected until maturity Enhanced Credit Flow: Lower interest rates encourage increased borrowing by businesses and consumers, stimulating investment and consumption. Boost to Real Estate and Infrastructure: Due to more affordable financing options, sectors like real estate and infrastructure may see heightened activity. Support Amid Global Challenges: The RBI's accommodative stance aims to bolster the Indian economy against global uncertainties, such as increased U.S. tariffs impacting exports. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/personal-finance/rbi-repo-rate-cut-impact-sbi-hdfc-yes-pnb-canara-bank-of-india-cut-fixed-deposit-interest-19588665.htm

Answer 131

Tamil Nadu Explanation : In April 2025, opposition to the Sillahalla Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project in the Nilgiris intensified, with local farmers, tribal groups, and environmentalists staging protests and submitting petitions to the Tamil Nadu government. About Sillahalla Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project The Sillahalla Pumped Storage Hydroelectric Project (SPSHEP) is a major infrastructure initiative proposed by the Tamil Nadu Green Energy Corporation Limited (TNGECL) to address the state’s peak power demand and support renewable energy integration. Location: Nilgiris district, Tamil Nadu, within the Kundah region, adjacent to the Silent Valley and Mukurthi National Parks. Aim: To generate 1,000 MW electricity to meet peak power demand. Project Features: Construction of two dams (upper and lower reservoirs). Tunnels of 2.8 km (head race) and 1.56 km (tail race). Underground powerhouse and surface storage points. Environmental Concerns: The potential submergence of around 1,000 acres of farmland and 500 acres of forest land would affect approximately 3,000 farmers. Issue of Joint Pattas: Many affected lands are under joint patta, and farmers will not be able to get the compensation accordingly. Moreover, people who have given their land for road projects are yet to receive compensation in the district. Public Response: Local communities have raised concerns over environmental impacts and loss of livelihoods. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/residents-take-part-in-sillahalla-kaavadi-to-pray-against-nilgiris-hydroelectric-project/article69448810.ece

Answer 132

Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary Explanation : Recently, the Cheetah Project Steering Committee officially approved the relocation of some cheetahs from Kuno National Park to Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh. About Cheetah Relocation from Kuno to Gandhi Sagar The Cheetah Project Steering Committee was set up in May 2023 by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to review, monitor, and advise on the cheetah reintroduction program. Project Cheetah began in 2022 with the translocation of 8 cheetahs from Namibia and 12 from South Africa to Kuno National Park, but the project has faced setbacks, with 8 adult cheetahs and 5 cubs dying so far. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary has been identified as a key part of establishing a cheetah meta-population of 60–70 individuals across the Kuno–Gandhi Sagar landscape, which stretches across Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. As of now, there are 26 cheetahs at Kuno, of which 17 are in the wild and 9 are still inside large enclosures. It is yet to be decided whether the relocated cheetahs will come from the wild or enclosures. According to forest officials, prey species at Gandhi Sagar currently include chinkara, chousingha, nilgai, and chital. About Cheetahs Cheetahs breed year-round, with peak breeding during the rainy season. Females reach sexual maturity between 20–24 months, while males mature later, at 24–30 months. The gestation period of a cheetah is approximately 90–95 days, and they typically give birth to 3–5 cubs. Cheetahs do not roar like other big cats; instead, they communicate using high-pitched chirps, barks, and stutter barks to establish presence or territory. They are solitary animals and use urine sprays, cheek rubbing, and scratch marks on trees to mark territory. Cheetahs are the fastest land animals, capable of reaching speeds up to 120 km/h and can accelerate from 0 to 100 km/h in just 3 seconds. During hunting, they employ a unique tripping technique using their semi-retractable claws to destabilise prey, though their hunting success rate is only 40–50%. Protection Status of Cheetahs Cheetahs are listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. They are protected under Schedule II of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. They are also included in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES), offering the highest level of protection from international trade. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/panel-gives-nod-to-shift-cheetahs-from-kuno-park-to-gandhi-sagar-9944493/

Answer 133

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : China has suspended exports of critical components such as rare earth magnets used in cars, drones, robots, and missiles at several of its ports. About Rare Earth Magnets Rare earth magnets are high-performance permanent magnets made primarily from rare earth elements such as Neodymium (Nd), Samarium (Sm), and Dysprosium (Dy). These magnets are crucial components in a wide array of modern technologies, including: Electric vehicles (EVs) Wind turbines Military defense systems (e.g., missile guidance, radar) Consumer electronics (e.g., smartphones, speakers) Drones and robotics China controls over 80% of the global rare earth refining capacity, giving it significant leverage in the global supply chain. The strategic importance of rare earth magnets makes them a critical component for both civilian industries and military applications, making supply chain security a concern for nations dependent on imports, especially the United States. About Rare Earth Elements (REEs) This includes Scandium, Yttrium, and the 15 Lanthanides: Lanthanum (La), Cerium (Ce), Praseodymium (Pr), Neodymium (Nd), Promethium (Pm), Samarium (Sm), Europium (Eu), Gadolinium (Gd), Terbium (Tb), Dysprosium (Dy), Holmium (Ho), Erbium (Er), Thulium (Tm), Ytterbium (Yb), and Lutetium (Lu). Classification of REEs: Light Rare Earth Elements (LREEs): These include REEs with atomic numbers 57 to 63, namely La, Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm, Sm, and Eu. Heavy Rare Earth Elements (HREEs): These include elements with atomic numbers 64 to 71, namely Gd, Tb, Dy, Ho, Er, Tm, Yb, and Lu. Though Scandium and Yttrium are light in weight, they are classified with HREEs due to similar physical and chemical properties. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.nytimes.com/2025/04/13/business/china-rare-earths-exports.html

Answer 134

C. Sankaran Nair Explanation : The Prime Minister’s tribute on the 106th anniversary of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre acknowledged Nair’s fearless voice against British tyranny. About Sir Sankaran Nair Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair was born in 1857 in an aristocratic family from Mankara village, located in Malabar’s Palakkad district (present-day Kerala). He was known for his unwavering moral courage, strong convictions, and outspoken opposition to colonial injustice. Nair graduated from Presidency College, Madras, and began his legal career under Sir Horatio Shepherd, who later became Chief Justice of the Madras High Court. Key Positions and Recognitions In 1897, Nair became the youngest President of the Indian National Congress (INC) — and remains the only Malayali to have ever held that post. He was appointed to the Raleigh University Commission by Lord Curzon in 1902. Honored as Companion of the Indian Empire in 1904 and knighted in 1912 for his service. In 1908, he became a permanent judge in the Madras High Court, where he was known for progressive and reform-oriented judgments. In 1915, he joined the Viceroy’s Executive Council, overseeing the education portfolio. Role in the Freedom Movement Nair was a strong nationalist who firmly advocated for India’s right to self-rule. In 1919, he contributed significantly to the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, which introduced dyarchy in provinces and increased Indian participation in administration. Following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre on April 13, 1919, he resigned from the Viceroy’s Council in protest — a bold move that shook the British government. His resignation triggered changes, including the lifting of press censorship in Punjab, the termination of martial law, and the formation of the Hunter Commission to investigate the massacre. The Historic Defamation Trial Against Michael O’Dwyer In his book, Nair accused Michael O’Dwyer, then Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, of being directly responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre due to his repressive policies. O’Dwyer filed a defamation case against Nair in an English court in 1922, expecting support from the British legal system. The trial lasted five and a half weeks and was the longest-running civil trial in Britain. The 12-member English jury, presided over by Justice Henry McCardie, mostly sided with O’Dwyer (11–1 majority), with only Harold Laski, a Marxist theorist, dissenting. Nair was ordered to pay £500 and the trial expenses. He refused to apologize, even when O’Dwyer offered to waive the penalty if he did so. Although Nair lost, the trial exposed the deep bias in the British legal system and galvanised nationalist sentiments in India. Death and Recognition Sir Sankaran Nair passed away in 1934 at the age of 77, but he remains a symbol of fearless resistance and principled leadership in colonial India. His legacy continues to inspire through books like The Case That Shook the Empire by his descendants and upcoming films like Kesari Chapter 2. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/the-fearless-sir-sankaran-nair-and-the-story-of-the-jallianwala-bagh-case-9944386/

Answer 135

All three Explanation : In 2025, sightings of the hornet have surged dramatically, with evidence of the species breeding and overwintering in the UK for the first time, as confirmed by DNA studies. About the Asian Hornet The Asian hornet (Vespa velutina), also known as the yellow-legged hornet, is an invasive species originally native to Southeast Asia. It is not the same as the Asian Giant Hornet (Vespa mandarinia), often wrongly labeled the “murder hornet.” While both are bee predators, the Asian hornet (Vespa velutina) is smaller but equally destructive in ecological terms. These hornets are predatory insects, feeding primarily on social bees and wasps, especially honeybees, which are critical pollinators in ecosystems. The Asian hornet’s specialised hunting tactics make it a lethal threat to honeybee colonies, as it can wait at hive entrances and kill bees mid-flight. Adult Asian hornets typically measure about 25 mm in length. They can be identified by their black velvety thorax, bright orange-yellow abdominal band, and distinctive yellow legs. Their sting is painful, and they are known for their aggressive behavior, especially around nests. Invasion History and Spread The Asian hornet was first introduced to Europe in 2004, most likely via a shipment of Chinese pottery that brought a fertilised queen to France. Since then, the species has spread to 15 European countries, with France alone hosting over 500,000 nests. Britain recorded its first official detection of the Asian hornet in 2016. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/asian-hornet-invasion-threatens-uk-pollinators-as-sightings-surge

Answer 136

It displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid Explanation : For the first time in scientific history, researchers have directly observed a strange phase of water known as Plastic Ice VII, which is believed to exist deep within the interiors of icy planets and moons, such as Neptune, Europa, and Titan. What is Plastic Ice VII? Plastic Ice VII is a hybrid phase of water that displays the dual characteristics of both a solid and a liquid: Like a crystalline solid, the water molecules remain in fixed positions within a cubic crystal lattice. Simultaneously, these molecules can rotate freely, similar to the behavior of molecules in a liquid. This unique plasticity means the ice can deform under pressure like a malleable substance, making it fundamentally different from conventional ice types found on Earth. Why is it called "Plastic" Ice? The term "plastic" refers not to synthetic materials but to its physical property of plasticity—the ability to mold or deform under pressure while still maintaining a solid structure. Physicist Livia Bove, one of the lead researchers, describes it as a solid that can be squeezed through a hole, highlighting its semi-fluid behavior under stress. The Discovery and Methodology This breakthrough was achieved by scientists at the Institut Laue-Langevin in Grenoble, France, using a cutting-edge neutron beam tool capable of analyzing molecular behavior at extreme pressures and temperatures: The experiments involved heating water to 326°C and subjecting it to pressures of up to 60,000 bars, equivalent to 28 times the pressure at the Mariana Trench, Earth’s deepest ocean point. Under these conditions, water molecules exhibited rapid rotational motion while staying in place structurally—confirming the formation of Plastic Ice VII. By analyzing the energy shifts of scattered neutrons, the team could accurately track molecular movements, proving the presence of this exotic state of matter. Comparison with Other Ice Phases Common Earth Ice (Ice Ih): Found in glaciers, snow, and ice cubes; molecules are arranged in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice. Ice VII: Forms above 20,000 bars, has a dense cubic structure, and has been found in diamonds and is theorized to exist inside Earth and other planets. Plastic Ice VII: A phase of Ice VII with mobile water molecules, but within a fixed lattice, existing above 30,000 bars and 177°C. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/plastic-ice-alien-planets-liquid-solid?source=favorites

Answer 137

Beetle Explanation : Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently identified a new species of beetle named, Clinidium lalitae, from the northeast. About Clinidium lalitae: It is a newly found species of beetle. It was discovered in the Talle Valley Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. It has been named 'Clinidium lalitae', in tribute to the late Dr. Lalita Ray Chaudhury, a respected coleopterologist and former scientist at Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) . The 'Clinidium lalitae' beetle is characterised by its unique morphology and belongs to a rare group of ground beetles that inhabit forest floors. These beetles play a significant ecological role in nutrient cycling and soil health. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://assamtribune.com/north-east/new-beetle-species-discovered-in-northeast-by-zsi-scientists-1574238

Answer 138

Manipur Explanation : Tension prevailed near the buffer zone in Manipur's Thangjing Hill range, which separates Kuki and Meitei inhabited areas in Churachandpur district, recently. About Thangjing Hills: Thangjing Hill (also called Thangching Hill and Thangting Hill), is a mountain peak in the Indian state of Manipur. It is in the Churachandpur district, to the west of Moirang. The north-south-running mountain range on which it sits is also called Thangjing range or Thangjing Hills. The range forms part of the western border of the Imphal Valley. It is believed by Manipuris to be the abode of Thangching, the ancestral deity of Moirang. It is considered a sacred site by the Meitei community, who traditionally visit it throughout the Manipur month of 'Sajibu' which generally falls in April. In the Meitei cosmology, the "body" of Manipur is represented with various natural features of the land, including the Thangjing hill as its right leg. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/kuki-zo-protesters-stop-meiteis-from-climbing-thangjing-hill/articleshow/120261601.cms

Answer 139

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Two people are believed to have died from a rare and incurable brain disease called Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) within just a few months of each other in the United States. About Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: It is a rare brain disorder that leads to dementia. It belongs to a group of human and animal diseases known as prion disorders, also known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs). Symptoms of CJD can be similar to those of Alzheimer's disease. But CJD usually gets worse much faster and leads to death. All types of CJD are serious but are very rare. About 1 to 2 cases of CJD are diagnosed per million people around the world each year. The disease most often affects older adults. Cause: CJD and other prion diseases are caused by abnormal forms of proteins called prions. Healthy and harmless prion proteins are found throughout the body but mostly in the nervous system. Their overall role isn’t fully understood. When abnormal prions form, they can transmit their incorrect and damaging form to nearby healthy prion proteins and cause the healthy prions to change into abnormal prions. Once they’re formed, prions can clump together and build up in brain tissue, which may lead to the nerve cell loss and other brain damage seen in CJD and other prion diseases. Symptoms: The main symptoms of CJD are cognitive decline leading to dementia, involuntary muscle jerks (myoclonus), and lack of coordination of movements. Most people with CJD will die within a year of the symptoms starting, usually from infection. This is because the immobility caused by CJD can make people with the condition vulnerable to infection. Treatment: There's currently no cure for CJD, so treatment aims to relieve symptoms and make the affected person feel as comfortable as possible. This can include using medicine such as antidepressants to help with anxiety and depression, and painkillers to relieve pain. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.firstpost.com/health/creutzfeldt-jakob-disease-brain-disease-oregon-us-13880097.html

Answer 140

To provide financial assistance to meritorious students for higher education. Explanation : Amid a slow uptake of the PM Vidyalaxmi scheme, public sector banks (PSBs) recently raised several concerns regarding its implementation. About PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme: It is a Central Sector Scheme to provide financial support to meritorious students in their pursuit of higher education. Eligibility: The scheme targets students who have secured admission to any of India’s top 860 Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs), both private and government, as ranked by the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF). Students who receive any other Central/State Government Scholarship, interest subvention plan, or fee reimbursement are not eligible for benefits under the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme. Students who stop their studies in between or are dismissed from the institution on disciplinary or academic grounds are not eligible for interest subvention or credit guarantee under this scheme. Students can apply for the loans through the PM-Vidyalakshmi portal, which integrates with multiple banks for a seamless and digital application experience. How much loan can you avail under the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme? There is no upper limit on the amount of education loan you can get under the PM Vidyalakshmi scheme. It will depend on course fees and other fees charged by the QHEI and other associated expenses like mess, hostel fees, other refundable and non-refundable fees of the institution, the cost of a reasonable-quality laptop, and a reasonable amount of living expenses required by the student during the course period. Interest subvention: A student whose annual family income is up to Rs 8 lakhs and who is pursuing any course from QHEIs will be eligible to get 3% interest subvention for education loans up to Rs 10 lakhs. If the education loan amount is more than Rs 10 lakhs, interest subvention will be provided for the disbursed total principal amount of loan up to Rs 10 lakhs. Credit Guarantee: When the education loan sanction amount is up to Rs 7.5 lakhs, irrespective of family income, the student will be eligible for a credit guarantee where 75% of outstanding default will be covered by the government. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/psbs-red-flag-technical-glitches-in-implementing-pm-vidyalaxmi-scheme-125041400801_1.html

Answer 141

Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : The Arunachal Pradesh government recently allocated Rs 269.97 Crore for the construction of the Etalin Hydroelectric Project in Dibang Valley. About Etalin Hydroelectric Project: It is a 3,097 MW hydropower project planned in the Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest hydropower projects proposed in the country in terms of installed capacity. EHEP is proposed to be developed as a combination of two run-of-the-river schemes. The project proposes the construction of two concrete gravity dams, 101.5 metres and 80 metres high, on the Dri and Tangon rivers, which are tributaries of the Dibang river. The project area falls under the “richest bio-geographical province of the Himalayan zone” and “one of the mega biodiversity hotspots of the world”. The project area is dominated by indigenous populations belonging to Idu-Mishmi tribes. The project is being executed through the Etalin Hydro Electric Power Company Limited, a JV company of Jindal Power Limited and Hydro Power Development Corporation of Arunachal Pradesh Limited (A Govt of Arunachal Pradesh Undertaking) with an ownership stake of 74% and 26%, respectively. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/04/10/arunachal-govt-allocates-rs-269-97-crore-for-etalin-hydroelectric-project-in-dibang-valley/

Answer 142

frog Explanation : New Frog Species ‘Leptobrachium aryatium’ Discovered in Assam. Why in the News? A new species of frog, named Leptobrachium aryatium, has been officially identified after a 21-year-long study. The frog was first studied in 2004 but was originally misidentified as Leptobrachium smithi. This species was found in the Garbhanga Reserve Forest, located on the southwestern edge of Guwahati, Assam, bordering Meghalaya. It lies adjacent to Deepor Beel, a Ramsar site, and forms a crucial part of the Garbhanga-Rani-Deepar Beel elephant corridor, highlighting its importance in regional wildlife movement. The frog has been named after Arya Vidyapeeth College, a prominent educational institution in Guwahati, in recognition of its role in transforming the local area from a liquor brewing hub to an educationally respected zone. Key Biological Features of Leptobrachium aryatium Leptobrachium aryatium belongs to the Leptobrachium genus, which includes stocky frogs with broad heads, short hind limbs, and distinctively coloured eyes. This new species is notable for its fiery orange-and-black eyes, a reticulated throat pattern, and a rhythmic dusk-time call. Scientific confirmation of its status as a new species was done through morphological examination, DNA analysis, and bioacoustic studies (study of call patterns). Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/studied-over-21-years-new-frog-species-leptobrachium-aryatium-named-after-assam-college/article69448300.ece

Answer 143

Silicon wafers Explanation : Scientists from the US and Europe have successfully fabricated miniature lasers directly on silicon wafers, as published in a recent study in Nature. About Miniature Laser Grown on Silicon Chip This is a major advancement in the field of silicon photonics, as integrating a light source (laser) directly on the chip has long been a technological challenge. Traditionally, lasers are manufactured separately and then attached to chips, which results in slower operation, higher costs, and manufacturing mismatches. The new research resolves this issue by growing the laser directly on a silicon chip using a scalable process and compatible with standard CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) technology, which is the backbone of current semiconductor manufacturing. Initially, electrons carried data within silicon chips. However, modern advancements are replacing electrons with photons, leading to the rise of silicon photonics. Photons carry information faster, with higher bandwidth and lower energy loss than electrons, making them ideal for next-generation computing, especially in data centres, sensors, and quantum computing. Photonic Chip Components and Laser Physics A photonic silicon chip consists of four key parts: A light source (laser), Waveguides to channel the photons, Modulators to encode or decode data onto light signals, and Photodetectors convert light into electrical signals. The laser functions on the principle of stimulated emission, where electrons drop to a lower energy level, releasing coherent photons to form a laser beam. However, silicon has an indirect bandgap, making it inefficient at light emission. Therefore, materials like gallium arsenide (GaAs) with a direct bandgap are preferred for laser construction. The setup was completed with a protective layer of indium gallium phosphide and electrical contacts to power the laser. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/miniature-laser-grown-on-silicon-chip-could-revolutionise-computing/article69448304.ece

Answer 144

All three Explanation : How TPU is Different from CPU and GPU. About Processing Units Processing units are the core hardware components that act as the brain of a computer. They perform tasks such as calculations, processing images, and transmitting data, similar to how the human brain executes complex tasks. What is a CPU (Central Processing Unit)? The CPU is a general-purpose processor that was developed in the 1950s and can handle a wide variety of tasks. It functions like a conductor in an orchestra, coordinating the operations of all other computer parts like GPUs, disk drives, and memory units. A CPU contains cores — individual units that execute instructions. Early CPUs had only one core, but modern CPUs may contain 2 to 16 cores. Each core can handle one task at a time, so a CPU’s multitasking capacity depends on the number of cores. For everyday users, 2 to 8 cores are usually sufficient, and CPUs are so efficient that users rarely notice that tasks are completed sequentially, not simultaneously. What is a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit)? A GPU is a specialised processor designed to perform many tasks simultaneously, using a technique called parallel processing. Unlike CPUs, which process tasks sequentially, GPUs break down complex tasks into thousands or millions of smaller problems, solving them in parallel. Modern GPUs contain thousands of cores, making them far more suitable for intensive computational tasks. Initially developed for rendering graphics in gaming and animation, GPUs are now widely used in machine learning and artificial intelligence. GPUs have evolved into general-purpose parallel processors, making them a key tool in running AI models and handling large data operations. However, GPUs have not replaced CPUs, because certain operations are better handled sequentially, which is the strength of CPUs. What is a TPU (Tensor Processing Unit)? A TPU is also a type of ASIC (Application-Specific Integrated Circuit), meaning it is built for a specific function — in this case, AI tasks. First introduced by Google in 2015, TPUs are specially designed hardware units built from the ground up to handle machine learning operations. TPUs focus on processing tensors — the multidimensional data arrays used in AI model computations. They are optimised to run neural networks efficiently, enabling faster training and execution of AI models than GPUs or CPUs. For example, training an AI model that may take weeks on a GPU can often be completed in hours using a TPU. TPUs are used at the core of Google's major AI services, such as Search, YouTube, and DeepMind's large language models, illustrating their real-world application in high-scale AI infrastructure. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/tpu-cpu-gpu-9945632/

Answer 145

Sudan Explanation : Since the outbreak of civil war on April 15, 2023, between the Sudanese Army and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF), Tuti Island has been devastated by violence and occupation. About Tuti Island Tuti Island, located at the confluence of the Blue and White Nile rivers in Khartoum, Sudan, is one of the city’s oldest settlements, known for its lush greenery and agriculture. The island spans 8 square kilometres and was traditionally dependent on farming and fishing, earning the nickname “Khartoum’s garden.” It holds deep cultural significance for the Mahas community, who settled there in the 15th century, making the island a symbol of indigenous identity and sustainability in the region. As per UN estimates, the war has displaced 13 million people, killed tens of thousands, and pushed 100,000 into famine conditions in Khartoum alone. Climate change has worsened Tuti Island’s vulnerability by disrupting the Nile’s natural flooding cycle, causing flooding, droughts, and desertification. Due to the dual threats of conflict and climate change, the HEART Project (Heritage Empowered Action for Risk in Tuti) was initiated to preserve the Taya system and document community knowledge. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.france24.com/en/live-news/20250415-sudan-war-drains-life-from-once-thriving-island-in-capital-s-heart

Answer 146

Tungabhadra Explanation : Recently, a mantapa at Virupaksha Temple collapsed due to heavy rain, sparking concerns over neglect. About Hampi Hampi was the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire, established in 1336 CE by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama Dynasty. Location: Traditionally known as Pampakshetra of Kishkindha, Hampi is located in central Karnataka on the banks of the Tungabhadra River. Foreign travellers like Domingo Paes described Vijayanagara as “as large and beautiful as Rome”, highlighting its architectural grandeur and prosperity. The empire fell in 1565 CE after the Battle of Talikota, where the Deccan Sultanates defeated Rama Raya, leading to mass destruction. The city reportedly burned for six months. Hampi remained forgotten until the late 18th century when British antiquarian Colin Mackenzie mapped it in 1799, creating the first cartographic records. Early photographs and restoration attempts were made by British officials like Alexander Greenlaw, showcasing colonial-era interest in Indian heritage. The first major conservation initiative, the Hampi National Project, was launched in 1976. Excavations revealed key sites such as the Vitthala Temple bazaar, Pushkarini (stepped tank), and Paan-supari bazaar. Prominent landmarks include the Virupaksha Temple, Lotus Mahal, Queen's Bath, and Elephant Stables. Hampi was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986, recognising it as one of India’s largest archaeological zones, covering 250 sq. km and housing over 1,600 monuments. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/hampi-conservation-ruins-vijayanagara-empire-karnataka-world-heritage-site-asi-9530271/?ref=newlist_hp

Answer 147

Indonesia Explanation : Mount Lewotobi, located in Indonesia's East Nusa Tenggara province, erupted recently, triggering a flight warning and safety advisories. About Lewotobi: It is located in Indonesia’s East Nusa Tenggara province on Flores Island. It is situated along the famous ‘Ring of Fire’ in the Pacific region. It is one of the most frequently active volcanoes in the region. It has two peaks arranged on a NW-SE line separated by 2 km and a 1232 m high saddle. This gave the twin volcano its name, Lewotobi, "husband and wife". The two peaks correspond to the Lewotobi Lakilaki (man) and Lewotobi Perempuan (woman) stratovolcanoes. Lewotobi Lakilaki (1584 m) has a summit crater of 400 m diameter open to the north. Lewotobi Perampuan (1703 m)'s crater is 700 m wide. Lewotobi Lakilaki has been frequently active during the 19th and 20th centuries, while the taller and broader Lewotobi Perempuan has erupted only twice in historical time. Small lava domes have grown during the 20th century in the summit craters of both volcanoes. A prominent flank cone, Iliwokar, occurs on the east flank of Lewotobi Perampuan. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehansindia.com/news/international/mount-lewotobi-in-indonesia-erupts-prompting-aviation-warning-963302

Answer 148

To provide ground-based anti-ship missile capability. Explanation : Philippines recently confirmed the deployment of US anti-ship missile system *NMESIS for this year’s Balikatan military exercises. About NMESIS: It is an anti-ship missile system developed for the US Marine Corps (USMC) to support land-to-sea attacks performed by the US Navy. It features the US Navy’s latest anti-ship missile, the Naval Strike Missile (NSM), mounted atop the chassis of an unmanned variant of the Oshkosh Joint Light Tactical Vehicle (JLTV). The ground vehicle platform, known as Remotely Operated Ground Unit for Expeditionary (ROGUE) Fires vehicle, is supplied by Oshkosh Defense, United States, while the NSM is jointly manufactured by Raytheon Missiles & Defense (Raytheon), United States, and Norwegian company Kongsberg Defence & Aerospace. NMESIS is not considered an autonomous launcher, as its fire control system is not controlled by the self-driving system and autonomy technology. The system is operated by a marine who is responsible for mission planning and firing of the missile. Features of ROGUE Fires: It incorporates advanced autonomous vehicle technologies, off-road mobility, and high payload carrying capacity. The vehicle is remotely operated using the teleoperator or leader-follower modes. The vehicle lacks a crew cab/body. It is integrated with sensors and cameras, with a launcher mounted atop the vehicle. The flexible design of the platform allows it to be configured to meet different mission requirements. Features of NSM: It is a multi-mission cruise missile that can ably neutralise highly secure maritime and land targets. The missile can destroy enemy ships located more than 100 nm (185 km) away. Equipped with an advanced seeker, it provides high-precision capabilities. The missile can escape enemy radars by performing manoeuvres and flying close to sea level. It carries a 226.79 kg-class warhead and programmable fuse. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/videos/world/philippines-us-ready-nmesis-missile-system-for-full-battle-test-russia-eyes-indonesian-air-base-9300498.html

Answer 149

Google Explanation : Google recently introduced Ironwood, their seventh-generation Tensor Processing Unit (TPU), marking a pivotal leap in AI technology. About Ironwood TPU: It is Google’s seventh-generation Tensor Processing Unit (TPU). TPUs are custom-built chipsets aimed at AI and machine learning (ML) workflows. These accelerators offer extremely high parallel processing, especially for deep learning-related tasks, as well as significantly high power efficiency. Designed specifically for inference — a process where AI models make predictions based on learned data — Ironwood is the most powerful, scalable, and energy-efficient TPU Google has ever developed. Ironwood signifies a shift from reactive AI models, which respond to queries, to proactive systems that generate insights independently. This evolution defines what Google calls the “age of inference,” where AI agents autonomously retrieve and synthesise data to offer comprehensive answers, not just raw information. The Ironwood chip comes with a peak compute of 4,614 teraflops (TFLOP), which is a considerably higher throughput compared to its predecessor, Trillium. Google also plans to make these chipsets available as clusters to maximise the processing power for higher-end AI workflows. Ironwood can be scaled up to a cluster of 9,216 liquid-cooled chips linked with an Inter-Chip Interconnect (ICI) network. At its most expansive cluster, Ironwood chipsets can generate up to 42.5 exaflops of computing power. Google claimed that its throughput is more than 24X of the compute generated by the world's largest supercomputer, El Capitan, which offers 1.7 Exaflops per pod. Ironwood TPUs also come with expanded memory, with each chipset offering 192GB, which is six times more than its predecessor, Trillium. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/google-unveils-ironwood-at-cloud-next-2025-a-tpu-for-age-of-ai-inference/article69430483.ece

Answer 150

2 only Explanation : Five military personnel were recently conferred the MacGregor Memorial Medal by Chief of Defence Staff for outstanding contributions in military reconnaissance, exploration and adventure for the years 2023 and 2024. About MacGregor Memorial Medal: It was instituted on 03 July 1888 to commemorate the memory of Maj. Gen. Sir Charles Metcalfe MacGregor, the founder of the United Service Institution of India (USI). Initially this medal was awarded for military reconnaissance and journeys of exploration such as British Army expeditions in Central Asia, Afghanistan, Tibet, and Burma. After independence, it was decided to award this medal for adventure activities as well. The medal is open to all ranks, serving and retired, of the Indian Armed Forces, Territorial Army, and Assam Rifles. Among the notable recipients of this in the past are Capt F E Younghusband (1890), Maj. Gen. Orde Charles Wingate (1943), Maj. ZC Bakshi, VrC (1949), Col. Narinder Kumar for Siachen Glacier exploration (1978-81) and Cdr. Dilip Donde and Lt. Cdr. Abhilash Tomy for their solo global circumnavigations. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/five-military-personnel-honoured-with-macgregor-memorial-medals/article69457233.ece

Answer 151

Uttarakhand Explanation : Union Road Transport and Highways recently termed the breakthrough in the Silkyara bend-Barkot road tunnel a historic milestone, saying this transformative tunnel will save one hour of travel time. About Silkyara Bend-Barkot Tunnel: It is a 4.531 km long, two-lane bi-directional tunnel with an escape passage, located on the Dharasu-Yamunotri section in Uttarakhand. Barkot and Silkyara are the two ends of the tunnel. Part of NH-134 (formerly NH-94), the project is being constructed under the Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) Mode. Around ninety percent of the tunnel is being excavated in phyllite, which is very weak rock. The New Austrian Tunnelling Method (NATM) is used for the construction of the tunnel. NATM is a method of modern tunnel design and construction employing sophisticated monitoring to optimize various wall reinforcement techniques based on the type of rock encountered as tunnelling. Funded under the National Highway Original [NH(O)] Scheme of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways, it is a key component of the ambitious Chardham Plan. It promises to cut travel time by about an hour and improve accessibility, particularly during adverse weather conditions. Yamunotri is just about 50 km from this tunnel. It will provide easy access to devotees to Badrinath and Kedarnath. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.news18.com/india/uttarakhands-silkyara-tunnel-achieves-breakthrough-gadkari-calls-it-historic-milestone-9301904.html

Answer 152

1 only Explanation : Type 5 diabetes has been officially recognised as a distinct form of diabetes by the International Diabetes Federation (IDF). What is Type 5 Diabetes? Type 5 diabetes primarily affects lean, undernourished teenagers and young adults in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs). It is caused by malnutrition-induced reduction in insulin production, unlike Type 2 diabetes, which involves insulin resistance with continuing insulin secretion. In Type 5, the pancreatic beta cells function abnormally, resulting in severely reduced insulin secretion. This form of diabetes has long been neglected in medical research and often misdiagnosed. Historical Background The condition was first reported in Jamaica in 1955 under the term J-type diabetes. In 1985, the World Health Organization (WHO) named it “malnutrition-related diabetes mellitus”, but this was removed in 1999 due to lack of causal evidence linking malnutrition to diabetes. Despite this, similar cases were later reported in India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Uganda, Ethiopia, Rwanda, and Korea, mostly in the Global South. The condition is estimated to affect about 25 million people globally. Clinical Markers of Type 5 Diabetes No autoimmune or genetic cause is associated with this condition. Patients have very low BMI (<18.5 kg/m²), much lower than typical Type 2 diabetic patients. Insulin levels are extremely low, significantly below Type 2 diabetes and slightly above Type 1 diabetes. Body fat percentage is substantially lower than in Type 2 patients. Dietary intake of protein, fibre, and micronutrients is notably inadequate. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/type-5-diabetes-recognised-as-distinct-form-of-disease-why-is-this-significant-9948433/

Answer 153

Uzbekistan Explanation : The 6th edition of the India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK-VI officially commenced on 16 April 2025 at the Foreign Training Node, Aundh (Pune). About Exercise Dustlik-VI Exercise DUSTLIK is an annual bilateral military exercise conducted alternatively in India and Uzbekistan, with the previous edition (DUSTLIK-V) held in Termez District, Uzbekistan in April 2024. The first edition was held in November 2019 in Uzbekistan, marking the beginning of a structured defence partnership. Participants and Representation The Indian contingent consists of 60 personnel, including troops from a battalion of the JAT Regiment and the Indian Air Force (IAF). The Uzbekistan contingent is represented by troops from the Uzbekistan Army, reflecting their ongoing military cooperation with India. Theme and Focus of DUSTLIK-VI The central theme of DUSTLIK-VI is “Joint Multi-Domain Sub-Conventional Operations in a Semi-Urban Scenario”. The exercise simulates response mechanisms to terrorist activities, specifically territorial capture by hostile forces, with coordinated joint battalion-level operations. Activities will include: Establishment of a Joint Operations Centre Counterterrorism operations, such as population control, raids, and search-and-destroy missions Employment of firepower, including air assets, to neutralise terrorist threats Special Forces from both the Army and Air Force will conduct missions such as: Securing a helipad for further operations Reconnaissance, observation, and Special Heliborne Operations (SHBO) Small Team Insertion and Extraction (STIE) Use of helicopters, drones, and counter-Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) measures The Indian Air Force will also provide logistical support to sustain operations in hostile environments, underlining the air-land integration capabilities. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2122061

Answer 154

Meteorology and Oceanography Explanation : Recently, the Indian Navy hosted the 3rd edition of its Meteorological and Oceanological Symposium, titled Meghayan-25. Meghayan-25 Theme and Objective The event commemorated the formation of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and celebrated World Meteorological Day 2025 (23rd March every year). Meghayan-25 was held under the WMO Day 2025 theme, ‘Closing the Early Warning Gap Together’, which highlights the importance of improving early warning systems for climate and disaster preparedness. Major Launches during Meghayan-25 MOSDAC-IN Web Services were launched, a joint initiative of the Directorate of Naval Oceanology and Meteorology (DNOM) and SAC-ISRO. It provides customised satellite-derived weather products with secure, individual log-ins for Naval Meteorological Offices. The Navy also relaunched its professional journal, “Sagarmanthan”, with the 10th edition being published after a decade-long gap. World Meteorological Organization (WMO) The WMO is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN), focused on meteorology, operational hydrology, climate, and related sciences. WMO coordinates global efforts to monitor weather and climate, promotes scientific research, and enables the exchange of data and weather forecasts. The WMO evolved from the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was established in 1873. WMO was officially established in 1950 as a specialized UN agency, building upon the IMO’s foundational work. The headquarters of WMO is located in Geneva, Switzerland. It has 193 member countries and territories, reflecting global participation in meteorological cooperation and research. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2122172

Answer 155

Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Explanation : A Key Initiative Under “Create in India” to Promote Indigenous Innovation in Digital Content Security. Why in the News? The Anti-Piracy Challenge is a flagship initiative under the Create in India Challenge, part of WAVES (World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit) 2025. Organized by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India, WAVES 2025 will be held from May 1–4, 2025, in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The challenge aims to advance technologies like fingerprinting and watermarking to combat the rising threat of digital piracy in India. About WAVES 2025 WAVES (World Audio Visual & Entertainment Summit) is a global event organized by the Government of India. It aims to position India as a hub for media innovation, IP creation, and content development. Sectors covered include: Broadcasting, Films, TV, Radio, Animation, Gaming, Comics, Advertising, and Emerging tech like Generative AI, Augmented/Virtual/Extended Reality (AR/VR/XR) and Digital Media Platforms. Supports the Creative Economy, which is valued at $30 billion and employs nearly 8% of India’s workforce. Contributes to the growth of India’s Media and Entertainment (M&E) sector, projected to reach $44.2 billion by 2028, currently the 5th largest globally. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2122186

Answer 156

Only three Explanation : Tanzania recorded its highest average annual temperature in 2024, with the national average reaching 24.3°C, which is 0.7°C above the long-term normal. About Tanzania Capital: Dodoma Location: East Africa, just south of the Equator Bordering countries: Kenya, Uganda (North); Rwanda, Burundi, DRC (West); Zambia, Malawi, Mozambique (South) Water bodies: Lake Victoria (North), Lake Tanganyika (West), Lake Nyasa (Southwest), Indian Ocean (East) Climate type: Tropical, with a long dry season and two rainy seasons Major lakes: Lake Tanganyika – World’s second deepest Highest peak: Mount Kilimanjaro – Highest in Africa and a dormant volcano Major rivers: Ruvuma, Rufiji Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/tanzania-records-hottest-year-ever-in-2024-amid-surging-nighttime-temperatures

Answer 157

None Explanation : A recent study commissioned by the Principal Scientific Adviser said that the Union Environment Ministry should roll back its 2015 policy mandating all of India’s 537 coal-fired plants to install a class of equipment called Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD). About Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD): In an FGD system, sulphur compounds, particularly sulfur dioxide (SO2), are removed from the exhaust emissions of fossil-fuelled power stations. This is done by means of an industrial process through the addition of absorbents. This can remove up to 95 % of the sulphur dioxide from the flue gas (exhaust gas). The wet process has become the main method of FGD in large, fossil-fuelled power plants. In this method, the flue gases are steam-saturated with the absorbent in aqueous solution. Substances such as ammonia or sodium sulphite are used as absorbents; however, the use of lime or limestone slurry (wet limestone scrubbing) is also widespread. The uncleaned flue gas is sprayed in a scrubber tower (absorber tower) with a mixture of water and limestone (scrubbing slurry), whereby most of the sulphur dioxide is bonded by chemical reaction. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/study-funded-by-principal-scientific-adviser-recommends-end-to-environment-ministrys-order-on-de-sulphurising-coal-plants/article69461308.ece

Answer 158

1 only Explanation : Global Maritime piracy and armed robbery incidents have seen a noticeable increase in the first three months of 2025, according to the International Maritime Bureau (IMB). About International Maritime Bureau (IMB): The ICC - International Maritime Bureau (IMB) is a non-profit-making organisation, established in 1981, to act as a focal point in the fight against all types of maritime fraud, malpractice and piracy. It is a specialised division of the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC). It serves as a platform for cooperation and information sharing among various stakeholders, including governments, shipping companies, and law enforcement agencies. By acting as a central hub for reporting and disseminating information on maritime crimes, the IMB helps in preventing and combating piracy, armed robbery, and other illicit activities that pose a threat to the safety of ships and crew members. The IMB Piracy Reporting Centre (PRC) is located at Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. The key services of the PRC are: Issuing daily status reports on piracy and armed robbery to ships via broadcasts on the Inmarsat-C SafetyNET service. Reporting piracy and armed robbery at sea incidents to law enforcement and the International Maritime Organization (IMO). Helping local law enforcement apprehend pirates and assist in bringing them to justice. Assisting shipowners whose vessels have been attacked or hijacked. Assisting crew members whose vessels have been attacked. Providing updates on pirate activity via the Internet, twitter, and email alerts. Publishing comprehensive quarterly and annual reports detailing piracy statistics. The services of the PRC are provided free of charge to all ships irrespective of their ownership or flag. The IMB also locates lost ships or ships seized by pirates, recovers stolen cargoes, and prepares customised reports on a chargeable basis. The United Nations (UN) International Maritime Organization (IMO), in its resolution A 504 (XII) (9) adopted on 20 November 1981, has, among other things, urged all governments, interests, and organizations to exchange information and provide appropriate co-operation with the IMB. The IMB also has an observer status with the International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO – INTERPOL). Through its expertise and extensive network, the IMB offers mediation and arbitration services, helping parties involved in maritime disputes to reach amicable settlements and avoid costly legal proceedings. IMB actively engages in advocacy and awareness campaigns to promote best practices in maritime security and trade facilitation. It collaborates with international organizations, such as the IMO, to develop guidelines and standards aimed at enhancing the security and efficiency of global shipping operations. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.marineinsight.com/shipping-news/singapore-strait-sees-alarming-rise-in-maritime-piracy-armed-robbery/

Answer 159

Only two Explanation : Marine scientists recently captured the world's first footage of a colossal squid swimming freely in its natural habitat - nearly a century after the species was first identified. About Colossal Squid: It is one of the largest and most elusive invertebrates on Earth. Scientific Name: Mesonychoteuthis hamiltoni Distribution: It is found in the icy depths of the Southern Ocean near Antarctica. Features: This soft-bodied marine animal is somewhat like an octopus, but with a much bulkier frame and far greater length. It has a tube-shaped body, huge eyes, and arms and tentacles with suckers to grab food. It can reach lengths of up to 7 metres (around 23 feet) and weigh as much as 500 kilograms. When they’re young, these creatures are almost see-through, giving them the glassy, ghost-like look that’s typical of many deep-sea juveniles. As they grow, their appearance changes drastically, taking on a deep red or purplish colour and developing thick, muscular arms. Fully grown, they are believed to be the largest invertebrates on Earth, meaning they have no bones but can still grow to massive sizes. What really sets the colossal squid apart, though, are the sharp, swivelling hooks on its tentacles, something no other squid species has. It’s also known for having the largest eyes of any animal ever discovered, believed to help it detect prey and predators in the pitch-black ocean depths. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/colossal-squid-caught-on-camera-for-first-time-in-deep-sea/article69460433.ece

Answer 160

1 only Explanation : A tourist shikara overturned in Srinagar’s iconic Dal Lake recently as strong winds lashed parts of Jammu and Kashmir, sending four people, including a tourist family and a boatman, into the water. About Dal Lake: It is a mid-altitude urban lake located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It is surrounded by the Pir Panjal mountains. It is integral to tourism and recreation in Kashmir and is named the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir” or “Srinagar’s Jewel”. It is also known as the Lake of Flowers. The shoreline of the lake, which is about 15.5 kilometres (9.6 mi), is encompassed by a boulevard lined with Mughal-era gardens, parks, houseboats, and hotels. It has an average depth of almost 5 ft and a maximum depth of 20 ft. It is one of the world's largest natural lakes. The lake covers an area of 18 sq.km. and is part of a natural wetland which covers 21.1 sq.km., including its floating gardens. The floating gardens, known as “Raad” in Kashmiri, blossom with lotus flowers during July and August. The wetland is divided by causeways into four basins; Gagribal, Lokut Dal, Bod Dal, and Nagin (although Nagin is also considered an independent lake). Lokut-dal and Bod-dal each have an island in the centre, known as Rup Lank (or Char Chinari) and Sona Lank, respectively. Dal Lake is also popular for the floating market where vendors have their own Shikaras/wooden boats and approach tourists. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-in-india/tourist-shikara-overturn-in-srinagars-dal-lake-as-winds-lash-region-viral-9949080/

Answer 161

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Trump administration's recent policy changes to end animal testing are garnering support from animal rights groups like PETA. About People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA): It is a nongovernmental organization (NGO) committed to ending abusive treatment of animals in business and society and promoting consideration of animal interests in everyday decision-making and general policies and practices. It is the largest animal rights organization in the world. It is based in Norfolk, Virginia, United States, with entities worldwide. PETA was founded in 1980 by Ingrid Newkirk and Alex Pacheco, who were influenced by Australian ethicist Peter Singer’s book Animal Liberation (1975). Initially recognized for exposing cruelty in research laboratories, PETA has grown into a global entity with over nine million members and considerable annual expenditures. PETA opposes speciesism, a human-supremacist worldview, and focuses on the four areas in which the largest numbers of animals suffer the most intensely for the longest periods of time: in laboratories, in the food industry, in the clothing trade, and in the entertainment business. PETA also works on a variety of other issues, including the cruel killing of rodents, birds, and other animals who are often considered “pests” and cruelty to domesticated animals. PETA works through public education, investigations, research, animal rescue, legislation, protests, and negotiations with companies and regulatory agencies. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/why-peta-animal-rights-group-suddenly-praising-trump-administration-101744692802978.html

Answer 162

Kerala Explanation : Recently, the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB), in partnership with IIT Bombay, has launched a pilot V2G project to test its feasibility in the state. What is Vehicle-to-Grid (V2G) Technology? Vehicle-to-Grid (V2G) is a set of technologies that enable Electric Vehicles (EVs) to send stored electricity back to the power grid when they are not in use. When an EV is idle and connected via a bi-directional charger, it can act as a decentralised battery energy storage system, contributing electricity to the grid. V2G supports both charging (Grid to Vehicle – G2V) and discharging (Vehicle to Grid – V2G) of EV batteries, creating a two-way energy flow. During charging, EV batteries act as a load on the grid, which can be managed using tools like Time of Use (ToU) tariffs and smart charging to reduce stress during peak hours. During discharging, EV batteries serve as distributed energy sources, providing electricity during peak demand periods or when renewable energy (RE) is low. V2G is part of a broader framework including Vehicle to Home (V2H) and Vehicle to Vehicle (V2V) applications, but V2G is the most widely explored use case globally. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/how-can-v2g-technology-help-indias-power-sector-explained/article69462057.ece

Answer 163

a carbon cycle Explanation : Recently, NASA’s Curiosity Rover has discovered carbon-bearing minerals on Mars, marking the first solid evidence of a carbon cycle on the Red Planet. About NASA’s Curiosity Rover Curiosity is a U.S. robotic rover launched on November 26, 2011, aboard an Atlas V rocket and landed on Mars on August 5, 2012. It is part of NASA’s Mars Science Laboratory (MSL) mission and was the first to use a sky crane landing system to reach the Martian surface. The rover runs on a thermoelectric power generator, which utilizes the radioactive decay of plutonium instead of solar panels. Its four primary scientific goals are: Determine whether life ever existed on Mars. Characterize Mars' past and present climate. Understand the geology of Mars. Prepare for future human exploration. The rover is approximately 3 meters long, weighs around 900 kilograms, and is equipped with an onboard chemistry lab for analyzing rock samples. Key Findings from the Rover The discovery was made during the rover’s exploration of an 89-meter stretch of terrain in an ancient lakebed in the Gale Crater, where it drilled into different types of rocks. The Curiosity rover identified a carbonate mineral called siderite, which contains carbon and oxygen, in the sulfate-rich layers of Martian rocks. This is the first time this mineral has been found on Mars. The rocks containing 5–10% siderite by weight suggest that a significant portion of Mars’ past CO₂ may be trapped in the planet's crust, rather than having escaped into space. The rocks also showed the presence of iron oxyhydroxides, indicating that siderite may have dissolved in acidic water, releasing some CO₂ back into the atmosphere. This points to a limited and slow carbon cycle. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.sciencenews.org/article/nasa-curiosity-rover-mars-missing-carbon

Answer 164

1 only Explanation : Recently, scientists have found tentative but strong evidence of possible extraterrestrial life on a distant exoplanet named K2-18b, located 124 light years away from Earth in the Leo constellation. Role of James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), launched in December 2021, is the largest and most powerful space observatory built through a collaboration between NASA, European Space Agency (ESA), and Canadian Space Agency (CSA). JWST orbits the L2 Lagrange Point, about 1.5 million km beyond Earth, enabling a stable position for deep-space observation. The telescope operates primarily in the infrared spectrum and is equipped with components such as: Optical Telescope Element (OTE) – collects light from distant objects. Integrated Science Instrument Module (ISIM) – houses all cameras and instruments. Sunshield – protects sensitive instruments from solar radiation. Spacecraft Bus – provides necessary operational support. Scientific Findings on K2-18b The Cambridge University research team, led by Prof. Nikku Madhusudhan, studied the planet’s atmosphere and detected chemical signatures of gases like dimethyl sulphide (DMS) and dimethyl disulphide (DMDS). On Earth, these gases are known to be produced only by marine phytoplankton and certain bacteria, raising the possibility of biological activity on K2-18b. The amount of DMS detected is thousands of times greater than Earth's levels, suggesting, if biological, that the planet might be teeming with life. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/c39jj9vkr34o

Answer 165

European Union Naval Force Explanation : Recently, the European Union Naval Force (EUNAVFOR) under Operation ATALANTA has proposed a joint naval exercise with the Indian Navy. Why in the News? EUNAVFOR Operation ATALANTA, which operates in the Western Indian Ocean and the Red Sea, has proposed a joint maritime exercise with the Indian Navy to be conducted around the end of May 2025. The primary goal of the proposal is to enhance coordination and maritime cooperation between European naval forces and the Indian Navy, particularly in the face of resurgent piracy threats and geopolitical instability in the Red Sea region. The proposed drill will go beyond the usual Passage Exercises (PASSEX) and will include advanced tactical manoeuvres, counter-piracy operations, and inter-naval communications training, if approved. The Horn of Africa region, once again experiencing piracy amidst Houthi rebel activity in the Red Sea, has prompted a need for enhanced maritime coordination, even though incidents have decreased recently. About Operation ATALANTA Launched in 2008, Operation ATALANTA is the EU's counter-piracy mission in the Western Indian Ocean and the Red Sea, initially targeting piracy off the Somali coast. Its expanded mandate includes: Protection of World Food Programme (WFP) vessels Surveillance of arms embargo on Somalia Monitoring drug and arms trafficking Combating Illegal, Unreported and Unregulated (IUU) fishing Disruption of illegal charcoal trade. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/eu-naval-force-proposes-exercise-to-strengthen-maritime-cooperation/article69461892.ece

Answer 166

All seven Explanation : Recently, the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) signed an official agreement with the Government of India, formally establishing India as the headquarters and secretariat of the alliance. About the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in April 2023 during the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger. Formally approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2024. Implementation agency: The IBCA is implemented through the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Objective: To conserve seven major big cat species across the world: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar and Cheetah. Current ratifying members: India, Nicaragua, Eswatini, Somalia, Liberia are the initial countries that ratified the IBCA Framework Agreement. Membership: Membership is open to all UN Member States, including: Range countries, where big cats naturally occur. Non-range countries that are interested in supporting global conservation of big cats. IBCA as a Global Legal Entity India formally joined the IBCA in September 2023, after ratifying the framework agreement. The IBCA became a treaty-based intergovernmental organisation after five countries ratified the framework agreement. These include India, Nicaragua, Eswatini, Somalia, and Liberia. Institutional Support and Funding: India has committed ₹150 crore (for the period 2023–2028) as budgetary support for: Creating a corpus fund, Building infrastructure, and Covering recurring expenses of the IBCA. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-sign-agreement-international-big-cat-alliance-headquarter-50th-year-project-tiger-9949730/

Answer 167

Maharashtra Explanation : A recent study highlights the Mahadev Koli tribe’s rich reservoir of medicinal and ecological knowledge, expertise that could be vital in strengthening global climate resilience. About Mahadev Koli Tribe: Mahadev Koli or Mahadeo Koli are a subcaste of the Koli community of Maharashtra and Goa states of India. The Mahadev Koli derives their name from their god, Mahadev, and live in the Mahadev hills of Maharashtra. They are found mostly in the Pune, Ahmednagar, and Nasik districts of Maharashtra. They are classified as a Schedule Tribe. They speak Marathi and use the Devanagari script. There are twenty-four exogamous clans among the Mahadev Koli, and they use their clan's names as their surnames. Their staple food consists of rice, nagli, varai, and wheat. Occupation: Other than agriculture, they are also involved in cattle production, dairy and poultry farming, and wage labour as subsidiary occupations. Beliefs: Most of the Mahadev Koli follow a number of Hindu traditions. Members of each clan have their own deity. They possess extensive knowledge of local flora, utilizing over 50 native tree species for medicinal purposes. Tanaji Malusare, a revered general in Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj's army, hailed from this community. His valor in the Battle of Sinhagad is legendary. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/mahadev-koli-tribe-maharashtra-forest-knowledge-climate-change-9947470/

Answer 168

2 only Explanation : Inaugurating VVDN Technologies' SMT (Surface Mount Technology) Line at Manesar recently, the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology noted that electronics manufacturing in India has risen 5-fold in the last decade, topping Rs 11 lakh crore. About Surface Mount Technology (SMT): It refers to a manufacturing technique where electronic components are directly applied to the surface of a printed circuit board (PCB). SMT, developed in the 1960s and 1970s, replaced conventional through-hole technology (THT), producing more compact, economical, and efficient electronic devices. This method enables automated production to conduct a more extensive assembly, resulting in the creation of a fully functional circuit board. Any electronic element installed in this manner is identified as a surface-mounted component (SMD). In opposition to conventional manufacturing techniques, SMT removes the necessity for elements to be placed through apertures; rather, elements are attached to the board via the process of soldering. The two main soldering techniques are reflow soldering and wave soldering. Assembling PCBs using SMT involves various steps like solder paste application, component placement, reflow soldering and cleaning. SMT is used in many industries like consumer electronics, medical, and aerospace industries. THT vs. SMT: As compared to THT, SMT has cheaper production costs, increased component density, and superior electrical performance. But the initial cost is high, and it is difficult to repair. The process for SMT production setup is faster when compared to THT. This is because components are mounted using solder paste instead of drilled holes. It saves time and labor-intensive work. SMT supports microelectronics by allowing more components to be placed closer together on the board. This leads to designs that are more lightweight and compact. Simplicity: In THT, lead wires pass through the holes to connect components. Because SMT components are soldered right onto the PCB, the overall makeup is far less complex. The heat dissipated in SMT is also less than through-hole components. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://telecom.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/policy/india-made-electronics-products-reliable-recognised-globally-ashwini-vaishnaw/120404703

Answer 169

2 only Explanation : China is all set to unveil the Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge, a record-breaking structure that is set to become the world’s highest bridge. About Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge: It is a suspension bridge currently under construction in Zhenfeng County, Guizhou Province, China. Guizhou province is a mountainous area of China, which is 800 miles west of the city of Shenzhen. It's already home to many impressive structures and buildings. Nearly half of the top 100 tallest bridges in the world are in Guizhou. Upon completion, Huajiang Grand Canyon Bridge will hold the title of the world's highest bridge. It will be 625 meters (2,051 feet) above Beipan River level-200m taller than the Eiffel Tower. That also makes it taller than the Millau Viaduct in France, which at 343 meters (1,125 feet) held the record for the tallest bridge until now. The bridge is a steel truss suspension bridge with a total length of 2,890 metres (9,482 feet). Altogether, these trusses weigh about 22,000 tons, equivalent to three Eiffel Towers. It's taken 3 and a half years to build, with construction officially starting on 18 January 2022. The cost of the bridge is estimated at around £216 million (Rs 2,200 crore). It will form part of the Shantou–Kunming Expressway, a major roadway that connects China’s southeastern coastal city of Shantou to Kunming, the capital of Yunnan province. The bridge will cut travel time across the canyon from about one hour to two minutes. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.india.com/news/world/china-to-inaugurate-worlds-highest-bridge-in-to-reduce-travel-time-from-60-minutes-to-just-7764762/

Answer 170

Only three Explanation : Three members of a family — a minor boy and his parents — jumped to death from a bridge into the Tapi River at Kamrej in Surat district recently. About Tapi River: The Tapi River, also known as the Tapti River, is one of the major rivers in central India. It is considered one of the only three major rivers in India that flow from east to west, the other two being the Narmada and the Mahi rivers. It covers a large area in the State of Maharashtra besides areas in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. Course: Origin: It rises in the Gawilgarh Hills of the central Deccan plateau in south-central Madhya Pradesh state. It flows westward between two spurs of the Satpura Range, across the Jalgaon plateau region in Maharashtra state, and through the plain of Surat in Gujarat state to the Gulf of Khambhat (an inlet of the Arabian Sea). It has a total length of about 700 km. For the last 51 km it is tidal but is navigable by small vessels. It drains an area of 65,145 sq.km., which is nearly two percent of the total area of India. The basin lies in the states of Maharashtra (51,504 sq.km.), Madhya Pradesh (9,804 sq.km.) and Gujarat (3,837 sq.km.). Situated in the Deccan plateau, the basin is bounded by the Satpura range on the north, by the Mahadev hills on the east, by the Ajanta Range and the Satmala hills on the south, and by the Arabian Sea on the west. The major part of the basin is covered with agriculture, accounting for 66.19% of the total area. The Tapti flows roughly parallel to the longer Narmada River to the north, from which it is separated by the main part of the Satpura Range. The two river valleys and the intervening range form the natural barrier between northern and peninsular India. The Tapti River’s three major tributaries—the Purna, Girna, and Panjhra—flow from the south in Maharashtra state. Ukai Dam: A major hydroelectric project located on the Tapi River, providing water and electricity to surrounding areas. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/3-family-jump-death-suicide-tapi-river-9952106/

Answer 171

Overwatering and/or fungal-like pathogens Explanation : Farmers cultivating 'pichi poo' (red jasmine) in Tiruchy, Tamil Nadu, say they are staring at huge losses as the crop has been hit by a fungal infection that causes root decay. About Root Rot Disease: Root rots, as the name suggests, attack plants from the ground via their roots. This can lead to wilting and plant death. These rots may also affect the trunk and stems, causing splits or rots above ground. Rots may also affect young plants such as seedlings. There are two causes of root rot: overwatering and/or the presence of fungal-like pathogens. Overwatering depletes oxygen in the soil, and this causes the roots to stop functioning, become softened, and die. Pathogens can also invade plants that are affected by inconsistent or overwatering. The range of pathogens that cause root rots affects many different plants. It is caused by numerous fungi, especially Armillaria mellea, Clitocybe tabescens, and Fusarium, and many oomycetes, including Pythium, Phytophthora, and Aphanomyces. If a root-rot pathogen is present, it may spread through the soil, carried by soil water, to affect nearby plants. Prevention: Control measures include planting in well-drained soils, including raised beds, planting resistant varieties (such as plants grafted onto resistant rootstock), or selecting plants that naturally cope well with wet or heavy clay soil. Where root rot occurs, remove affected plants. Some fungal treatments are available to treat soils. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2025/Apr/19/red-jasmine-cultivation-hit-by-root-decay-disease-tiruchy-farmers-smell-losses

Answer 172

Article 142 Explanation : Recently, the Vice-President criticized Article 142 as a “nuclear missile against democratic forces”, especially after its use in the Tamil Nadu Governor's case. What is Article 142? Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order or decree necessary for complete justice in any pending case before it. This power is discretionary and unique to the apex court. The concept of complete justice means ensuring justice beyond technicalities by filling legislative gaps, and interpreting or even overriding laws when necessary to protect constitutional values, fundamental rights, and social welfare. The framers of the Constitution, especially Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, intentionally entrusted this extraordinary power only to the Supreme Court. The jurisprudence under Article 142 has developed over 50+ years, with the Court maintaining self-imposed limits. Article 142 elevates the Supreme Court’s role as the guardian of the Constitution, enabling it to intervene in cases involving public interest, human rights, or democratic breakdown, ensuring justice where legislative or executive action is lacking. The Article strengthens democracy by protecting the rights of minorities, ensuring equal treatment before the law, and acting as a check on executive and legislative overreach. Article 142 promotes judicial innovation by allowing the Court to create guidelines and direct government authorities, especially in cases involving public interest and constitutional values. The lack of a clear definition of “complete justice” can lead to subjectivity, inconsistent rulings, and unaccountable discretion. This raises concerns under the basic structure doctrine, particularly separation of powers. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/abhishek-manu-singhvi-interview-waqf-amendment-act-9951343/

Answer 173

earth observation Explanation : NISAR is expected to be launched in June 2025 onboard a GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle). About the NISAR Mission NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation satellite mission developed by NASA and ISRO under a bilateral agreement signed in 2014. The satellite is scheduled for launch in June 2025 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Andhra Pradesh, aboard ISRO’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV Mk II). It marks the first-ever collaboration of its kind between India and the United States in radar-based Earth monitoring from space. NISAR aims to map the entire Earth’s surface every 12 days, enabling high-frequency, precise, and repeat observations. It will monitor ecosystem changes, ice sheet dynamics, vegetation patterns, sea level rise, and groundwater variation, and will track natural hazards like earthquakes, volcanoes, tsunamis, and landslides. Technological Advancements Dual Radar System: NISAR is the first satellite to use two radar frequencies simultaneously — L-band (NASA) and S-band (ISRO). L-band Radar: Penetrates dense forests and soil, useful for volcanic and seismic zone monitoring. S-band Radar: Offers higher resolution surface imaging, operating at 2–4 GHz frequency and 8–15 cm wavelength, ideal for urban and terrain analysis. Related Upcoming ISRO Missions EOS-09 Mission: An Earth Observation Satellite capable of capturing high-resolution images during day and night, planned for May 2025. Gaganyaan TV-D2 Mission: A Crew Escape System test for India’s first human spaceflight programme, simulating emergency scenarios. Axiom-4 Mission: Indian astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla to travel to the International Space Station, becoming only the second Indian in space after Rakesh Sharma (1984). Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/long-delayed-isro-nasa-mission-nisar-may-finally-be-launched-in-june-9952421/

Answer 174

Manuscripts of the Bhagavad Gita and Bharata’s Natyashastra Explanation : Recently, UNESCO has added manuscripts of the Bhagavad Gita and Bharata’s Natyashastra to the Memory of the World (MoW) Register in 2025. What is the Memory of the World (MoW) Programme? The MoW Programme was launched by UNESCO in 1992 with the goal of preserving global documentary heritage and preventing what it called “collective amnesia.” It aims to safeguard rare documents, including manuscripts, oral traditions, audio-visual content, and archive materials, of global and universal value. According to UNESCO, this documentary heritage should be preserved, protected, and permanently accessible to all, while respecting cultural practices. The MoW Register serves as a global compendium of such heritage, and is updated biennially (every two years). As of 2025, the Register contains 570 entries, including: The Mahavamsa (Sri Lanka’s ancient chronicle), Shaiva Siddhanta manuscripts (India), Auschwitz trial recordings (Germany), And the March 7, 1971 speech of Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (Bangladesh). India’s Contributions to the MoW Register India has made 13 contributions, including two joint submissions: Rig Veda (added in 2005), Works of Abhinavagupta, the Shaivite philosopher (added in 2023), Archives of the Non-Aligned Movement’s first summit in Belgrade, 1961 (joint submission), Dutch East India Company archives (joint submission). In 2025, two new Indian manuscripts were added, both preserved at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute, Pune: Natyashastra by Bharata Muni Bhagavad Gita, attributed to Vyasa Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/bhagavad-gita-natyashastra-unesco-memory-of-world-register-9951786/

Answer 175

1 and 2 only Explanation : Kuwait’s Permanent Representative to the UN who chairs the Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN) on UNSC reforms, recently affirmed that India will "surely" be a strong contender if the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is expanded. About the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) The UNSC is one of the five principal organs of the United Nations (UN), with the primary responsibility of maintaining international peace and security. Under the UN Charter, all member states must comply with UNSC decisions. It determines threats to peace, recommends settlement methods, imposes sanctions, and authorizes military actions. Structure and Membership The UNSC consists of 15 members, each having one vote. Five permanent members (P5) with veto power: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Ten non-permanent members, elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms, with equitable geographical representation: 5 from Africa/Asia, 1 from Eastern Europe, 2 from Latin America, and 2 from Western Europe/others The UNSC is headquartered at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City. G4 Nations’ Position and India’s Advocacy India, Brazil, Germany, and Japan (G4) are actively advocating UNSC reform. At a recent IGN meeting, India’s Permanent Representative declared the current UNSC structure outdated, no longer reflecting contemporary geopolitical realities. The G4 proposal calls for: Expanding the Council from 15 to 25 or 26 members Including 11 permanent members and 14–15 non-permanent members Encouraging Member States to submit models to enable formal negotiations Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/india-united-nations-security-council-permanent-seat-kuwait-official-2710956-2025-04-18

Answer 176

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recent research by University of Texas (UT) Health San Antonio has found that transposon activation may be a key factor in the progression of Alzheimer’s disease. Jumping Genes and Alzheimer’s Jumping genes, scientifically known as transposons, are mobile genetic elements that can move from one location to another within the genome. They were first discovered by Barbara McClintock, who won the Nobel Prize in 1983 for this work. In humans, transposons make up nearly 50% of the genome, and while most are inactive, some retain the ability to “jump” and cause genomic instability. The most common type of jumping genes are retrotransposons, especially LINE-1 elements, which replicate through an RNA intermediate and use reverse transcriptase to reintegrate into DNA. Normally, the activity of these elements is tightly controlled by the body through epigenetic mechanisms, but in aging or diseased brains, especially in neurodegenerative conditions like Alzheimer’s, these controls can weaken. Once activated, transposons can insert themselves into essential genes, disrupt DNA sequences, and lead to cellular damage, especially in the brain’s neurons, which are non-dividing and highly vulnerable. In experiments with genetically modified fruit flies that mimic Alzheimer’s symptoms, blocking transposon activity using an HIV drug (3TC) led to improvements in neural function. 3TC is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which prevents retrotransposons from copying and inserting themselves into new parts of the genome. In a clinical trial with human patients, 3TC did not improve memory directly but reduced levels of neurofilament light (NfL)—a key biomarker of neurodegeneration—suggesting protection against neuronal damage. This supports a new hypothesis: Alzheimer’s disease may not just be a disorder of protein aggregation (like amyloid or tau), but also one of genomic instability caused by the reactivation of jumping genes. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.science.org/content/article/blocking-jumping-genes-help-fight-disease-aging

Answer 177

It is an offshore patrol vessel of the Indian Navy Explanation : INS Sunayna, currently on deployment to Africa as Indian Ocean Ship IOS SAGAR arrived at Nacala Port, Mozambique, recently. About INS Sunayna: It is the second Saryu-class offshore patrol vessel of the Indian Navy. It was designed and constructed indigenously by the Goa Shipyard Limited. It was commissioned at Kochi on 15th October 2013. It is based under Southern Naval Command. It is designed to undertake fleet support operations, coastal and offshore patrolling, ocean surveillance and monitoring of sea lines of communications and offshore assets, and escort duties. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Answer 178

Tackling liver disease Explanation : The Union Home Minister recently unveiled the HEALD Initiative to combat liver diseases across India. About HEALD Initiative: HEALD (Healthy Liver Education and Alcohol-associated Liver Disease Prevention) is a first-of-its-kind nationwide initiative aimed at tackling liver disease in India . It was launched by the Institute of Liver and Biliary Sciences (ILBS). HEALD is envisioned as a multi-sectoral program combining public education, early screening, psychological and medical treatment of alcohol use disorder, and liver disease management. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Answer 179

Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu Explanation : India’s first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu is likely to be commissioned next year, marking the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear programme. About India’s first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR): It is a 500 MWe sodium-cooled reactor located in Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu. The PFBR was developed by BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited), a government enterprise set up in 2003 under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) to focus on fast breeder reactors. Construction began in 2004 and the reactor was originally expected to be completed in September 2010, but faced a series of delays. Unlike traditional nuclear reactors, the PFBR uses fast neutrons for energy generation and employs liquid sodium as a coolant instead of water. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Answer 180

Atlantic Ocean Explanation : A hidden landmass called the Davis Strait proto-microcontinent has been found beneath the icy waters of the Davis Strait, the body of water that separates Canada’s Baffin Island from Greenland. Key Facts about Davis Strait: It is a bay of the northern Atlantic Ocean, lying between southeastern Baffin Island (Canada) and southwestern Greenland. The strait separates the depths of Baffin Bay (north) from those of the Labrador Sea (south) and forms part of the Northwest Passage, a route through the Canadian Arctic Archipelago linking the Atlantic and Arctic oceans. It is approximately 400 miles (650 km) north to south and 200 to 400 miles wide. It is one of the broadest straits in the world. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Answer 181

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The NHPC’s plan to start generating electricity from the 2000 megawatt Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Project (LSHP) has triggered downstream impact worries in Assam. About Lower Subansiri Hydroelectric Project (LSHP): It is a 2000 MW run-of-the-river hydro project being constructed on the Subansiri River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra. It is located on the borders of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. It will be the single largest hydroelectric plant in India when completed. The project is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC). Hence, both statements are correct.

Answer 182

Kapustin Yar Explanation : Aryabhata was India’s first indigenously-built satellite, named after the ancient Indian mathematician and astronomer Aryabhata, who lived in the 5th century CE. It was launched on April 19, 1975, from Kapustin Yar, a Soviet launch site, with the help of the Soviet Union. By launching Aryabhata, India joined an elite club of 11 countries capable of sending satellites into orbit, including the USA, USSR, UK, France, China, West Germany, Australia, Canada, Japan, and Italy. Aryabhata was designed to conduct experiments in solar physics and X-ray astronomy. Although the experiments faced a power failure after just five days, Aryabhata successfully made initial X-ray observations and continued transmitting data for a few more days. Aryabhata eventually re-entered Earth’s atmosphere on February 10, 1992, giving it an orbital lifespan of nearly 17 years. The satellite was unnamed until shortly before the launch. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi selected ‘Aryabhata’ from a shortlist that included ‘Mitra’ and ‘Jawahar’, reflecting cultural and diplomatic values. Hence, option b is correct.

Answer 183

An exoplanet in the constellation Leo, hinting at the possibility of habitable surface conditions Explanation : K2-18b is an exoplanet (a planet located outside our solar system) situated 124 light-years away from Earth in the constellation Leo, orbiting a star called K2-18. It was discovered in 2015 by the Kepler Space Telescope. K2-18b is 5.2 times wider and around 9 times more massive than Earth, suggesting it may possess a hydrogen-rich atmosphere. The planet receives a similar level of stellar radiation from its star as Earth does from the Sun, hinting at the possibility of habitable surface conditions. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Answer 184

2 only Explanation : Coenzymes bind to enzymes and support their activity, playing a crucial role in various metabolic pathways. Coenzyme Q (CoQ), also known as ubiquinone, is an organic antioxidant molecule with multiple isoprene units. It exists in ten different forms, from CoQ1 to CoQ10, and is lipid-soluble but water-insoluble. Coenzyme Q is vital for mitochondrial function and is found in every cell membrane, where it aids cellular energy production. Significance of CoQ9 in Plants: CoQ9, containing nine isoprene units, is predominantly produced in cereal crops such as wheat, rice, oats, barley, corn, rye, and millet. It is also found in bamboo, barley, and flowering plants like cinnamon, avocado, and pepper. CoQ10 in Human Health: CoQ10 is an essential part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain, generating the majority of the body’s cellular energy. Organs like the heart, which have high energy demands, contain high levels of CoQ10. Although CoQ9 is available in staple foods, humans require additional CoQ10 due to genetic factors, aging, and neurological disorders. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Answer 185

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs): iPSCs are pluripotent stem cells generated from adult somatic cells (like skin or blood). They are reprogrammed to an embryonic-like state, allowing them to develop into any human cell type. Used in: Diabetes (converted into beta cells), Leukaemia (to generate new blood cells), Neurological diseases. iPSCs are valuable in drug testing, disease modeling, and transplantation medicine. Hence, both statements are correct.

Answer 186

Quazigund with Banihal Explanation : The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel, also known as the Banihal Railway Tunnel, is currently India’s longest transportation railway tunnel, measuring 11.2 kilometers in length. It is part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) and connects Quazigund in the Kashmir Valley with Banihal in Jammu, passing under the Pir Panjal mountain range. It is the only broad-gauge mountain railway tunnel in the country and part of the USBRL’s 202-km core segment. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Answer 187

A stealth-guided missile destroyer. Explanation : Indian Navy ships INS Chennai and INS Kesari successfully carried out manoeuvring exercises and Visit, Board, Search & Seizure (VBSS) drills during the sea phase of Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME) 2025. About INS Chennai: It is the third and last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers (Project 15A) of the Indian Navy. The first two ships to be manufactured under Project 15A were INS Kolkata and INS Kochi. INS Chennai was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) at Mumbai. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on November 21, 2016. It is placed under the operational and administrative control of the Western Naval Command. Features: It is 164 metres long and weighs over 7,500 tonnes. It sails at a top speed of over 30 knots (around 55 km) per hour. It is powered by four reversible gas turbine engines. It can carry 350 to 400 people.It is armed with supersonic surface-to-surface BrahMos missiles and Barak-8 Long Rang Surface-to-Air missiles. It is fitted with the chaff decoy system ‘Kavach’ for defence against enemy missiles. For protection from enemy torpedoes, the ship has been equipped with the torpedo decoy system ‘Mareech’. Both ‘Kavach’ and ‘Mareech’ have been developed in India. The ship is designed to carry and operate up to two multi-role combat helicopters. The multi-mission ship is highly suited for expeditionary and surface strikes. The ship is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions. It is fitted with a modern Surveillance Radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems of the ship. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/world/ins-chennai-ins-kesari-conduct-joint-drills-with-african-forces-during-aikeyme-25-in-tanzania/

Answer 188

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : After aggressive posturing in the South China Sea, China is upping the ante in the Yellow Sea, following the building of a gigantic steel rig. About Yellow Sea: Also referred to in China as Huang Hai and in North and South Korea as the West Sea, Yellow Sea is a marginal sea of the Western Pacific Ocean. It is positioned to the north of the East China Sea. It is bordered by mainland China in the north and west and by North Korea and South Korea in the east. The sea was named for the yellowish sand particles originating from the Gobi Desert that descend on the surface of the sea, thereby giving it a golden yellow color. It covers an area of approximately 400,000 sq.km. It measures about 960 km from north to south and some 700 km from its east to west. It is relatively shallow with an average depth of 180 to 394 feet (55 to 120 meters). The sea is one of the world’s largest portions of continental shelf submerged in water. Climate: It is characterized by very cold, dry winters and wet, warm summers. Major rivers discharging directly into the Yellow Sea include the Han, Yangtze, Datung, Yalu, Guang, and Sheyang. Islands: The Yellow Sea is dotted with numerous islands, the largest of which include Jeju Island (South Korea), Shandong Peninsula islands (China), and Ganghwa Island (South Korea). Leading port cities include Qingdao and Dalian in China, Inch’ŏn in South Korea, and Namp’o in North Korea. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.eurasiantimes

Answer 189

Our Power, Our Planet Explanation : Earth Day takes place every year on 22 April and is one of the biggest environmental protest movements on the planet. About Earth Day: It is observed annually on April 22. The official theme for Earth Day 2025 is “OUR POWER, OUR PLANET”. This year's message focuses on the need to shift rapidly to renewable energy, urging individuals, businesses, and governments to triple clean energy production by 2030. History of Earth Day: The first Earth Day was celebrated on April 22, 1970, initiated by U.S. Senator Gaylord Nelson as a national teach-in on environmental issues. The event witnessed more than 20 million Americans—10% of the U.S. population—taking to the streets, parks, and auditoriums to demand a healthy, sustainable environment. Earth Day went global in 1990, mobilizing over 200 million people across 141 countries. Since then, it has become one of the largest civic observances in the world, promoting climate action and eco-conscious living. Earth Day serves as a powerful reminder of our collective responsibility to protect the environment. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.weforum.org/stories/2025/04/earth-day-2025-climate-change-global-action-protest-movement/

Answer 190

Ukraine Explanation : The Russian Ministry of Defence for the first time acknowledged the growing threat posed by Ukraine’s newly developed short-range ballistic missile, the Sapsan. About Sapsan Missile: The Sapsan (or Hrim-2, Grom-2) is a Ukrainian tactical ballistic missile system. It is designed to combine the features of a tactical missile system and a multiple rocket launcher. In its export version, the Hrim-2 missile system is designed to target individual and group stationary targets within distances ranging from 50 to 280 km. However, for the needs of the Ukrainian armed forces, the system's range has now been extended to 700 km, significantly enhancing its previous known range of 450 to 500 km. The Sapsan system comprises a 10-wheeled Transporter-Erector-Launcher (TEL) capable of carrying two containerized missiles simultaneously. Its aero-ballistic capabilities allow evasion of modern air defenses like the S-300 and S-400, drawing parallels to the Russian 9K720 Iskander missile complex. The Hrim-2's versatility is a key aspect, as it can launch both ballistic and cruise missiles, making it suitable for various applications, from air defense to coast guard duties. Its single-stage ballistic missile carries a warhead with a mass of 480 kilograms, and it offers options for both unitary and cluster configurations. The system's onboard control system is inertial and integrates various navigation and guidance systems, including radar-based and optoelectronic components. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/deadlier-than-atacms-russia-for-the-1st-time-admit/

Answer 191

2 only Explanation : Despite multiple efforts to contain the spread of communicable diseases, Kerala continues to report a surge in Hepatitis A cases. About Hepatitis A: It is a very contagious liver disease. It’s a viral infection that happens after exposure to the hepatitis A virus (HAV). The infection causes inflammation in your liver. You can get hepatitis A from: drinking unclean water eating food that's been washed or grown in unclean water eating food that's been handled by an infected person close physical contact with an infected person, including having sex and sharing needles to take drugs Treatment: No specific treatment exists for hepatitis A. Your body will clear the hepatitis A virus on its own. In most cases of hepatitis A, the liver heals within six months with no lasting damage. A safe and effective vaccine is available to prevent hepatitis A. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2025/Apr/21/hepatitis-a-cases-rise-sharply-in-kerala-16-deaths-reported-till-april-this-year

Answer 192

All four Explanation : India is recognised as a key player in creating global norms for responsible space behavior, said Marjolijn van Deelen, EU Special Envoy for Space. She highlighted India-EU collaboration at the Global Technology Summit. About Anti-Satellite (ASAT) Weapons ASAT weapons are specialized technologies designed to disable, destroy, or interfere with satellites in orbit for strategic or defensive purposes. ASATs are a key component of space warfare capabilities and are used to neutralize enemy satellites that are used for surveillance, communication, navigation, or early warning systems. ASAT weapons are broadly classified into two categories: Kinetic Energy ASATs: These involve direct physical impact, usually through missiles that collide with satellites to destroy them. The impact generates orbital debris, which can pose a long-term hazard to other space assets. Non-Kinetic ASATs: These use non-physical means such as cyber-attacks, jamming, spoofing, and directed energy weapons like lasers to disrupt or blind a satellite without physically destroying it. ASAT weapons can be launched from ground stations, aircraft, or even other satellites, making them versatile and difficult to detect in some cases. As of now, four countries — United States, Russia, China and India — have demonstrated operational ASAT capabilities through tests. India’s ASAT Test (Mission Shakti) was conducted in March 2019, where a live satellite in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) was destroyed by a three-stage interceptor missile at an altitude of around 300 km in a "hit-to-kill" mode. The global community, particularly the European Union (EU), has expressed concern about the space debris created by destructive ASAT tests and has called for a ban on such practices under the United Nations framework. About Rendezvous and Proximity Operations (RPO) RPO refers to the intentional maneuvering of one spacecraft close to another in space, either for docking, inspection, or other mission objectives. Rendezvous operations involve two space objects adjusting their orbital parameters such as trajectory, plane, altitude, and phasing to approach one another for docking or berthing. Proximity operations involve maintaining a spacecraft in the vicinity of another object on a pre-planned relative path without necessarily making contact. While RPOs are commonly used for scientific, repair, or refueling missions, they can also be used for espionage, disruption, or disabling other satellites, especially if performed without prior notification or by unfriendly actors. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-can-be-active-player-in-developing-international-framework-for-responsible-behaviour-in-space-eu-envoy/article69471391.ece

Answer 193

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has estimated that India’s wheat production from eight major wheat-producing states will reach 122.724 million tonnes as of March 31, 2025, by using advanced satellite-based remote sensing technologies. What is CROP? CROP stands for Comprehensive Remote Sensing Observation on Crop Progress. It is a semi-automated and scalable framework developed by the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), a part of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The primary objective of CROP is to enable near real-time monitoring of crop sowing, growth, and harvesting across different seasons, especially during the Rabi season in India. Technological Components CROP integrates data from multi-source remote sensing satellites, including: EOS-04 (RISAT-1A) – provides Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data, EOS-06 (Oceansat-3) – provides optical remote sensing data, and Resourcesat-2A – used for high-resolution optical imaging of agricultural areas. It uses both Optical and SAR datasets to accurately monitor crop progress under varying weather and light conditions. Major Wheat-Producing States Identified The eight primary wheat-growing states covered by the ISRO study are Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. These states are crucial for ensuring national food security and contribute the bulk of India's Rabi wheat harvest. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/isro-satellites-forecast-wheat-production/article69471106.ece

Answer 194

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, Scientists have developed a water-based, non-toxic recycling method for PSCs, avoiding the need for hazardous solvents. What are Perovskite Solar Cells (PSCs)? Perovskite solar cells (PSCs) are a type of photovoltaic (PV) technology that uses crystal structures called perovskites for converting sunlight into electricity. These crystals share the structure of the mineral calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO₃) and can be engineered to possess a wide range of optical, electrical and semiconducting properties. The general chemical formula of a perovskite compound is ABX₃, where 'A' and 'B' are cations, and 'X' is an anion. They offer high power conversion efficiencies at a lower cost than traditional silicon-based PVs, but they suffer from shorter lifespan and stability issues. Carbon-Based Perovskite Solar Cells (CPSCs) CPSCs are the first indigenous perovskite-powered niche product developed in India, aimed at improving device stability and reducing fabrication costs. However, humidity and thermal stress remain challenges for widespread commercialization. Indian scientists have enhanced thermal stability by incorporating Guanidinium iodide (GuI) and improved moisture resistance through surface passivation using 5-amino valeric acid iodide (5-AVAI). How the New Recycling Process Works Sodium acetate is added to the recycling solution. Its acetate ions bind with lead ions, forming lead acetate, which dissolves easily in water. Sodium iodide and hypophosphorous acid are then introduced. Sodium iodide helps in regenerating degraded perovskite crystals. Hypophosphorous acid acts as a long-term stabilizer for the water-based recycling solution. Scientists also used ethanol and ethyl acetate to dissolve other cell components, allowing them to recycle and reassemble each layer of the solar cell. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-find-green-way-to-recycle-toxic-perovskite-solar-cells/article69452118.ece#:~:text=The%20scientists%20also%20developed%20solutions,along%20with%20the%20perovskite%20crystals.

Answer 195

United Arab Emirates Explanation : Recently, the Indian Air Force (IAF) has joined the prestigious Exercise Desert Flag-10 (21 April to 08 May 2025), a multinational air combat exercise being hosted by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) at Al Dhafra Air Base. About Exercise Desert Flag Exercise Desert Flag is a premier multinational air exercise designed to simulate complex aerial combat scenarios, allowing diverse air forces to train together under realistic operational conditions. IAF Aircraft Participation: The Indian Air Force is deploying two frontline aircraft types in the exercise: MiG-29 – a versatile air superiority fighter, and Jaguar – a ground attack aircraft known for deep strike capabilities. Participating Nations: Along with the Indian Air Force, the exercise involves air forces from Australia, Bahrain, France, Germany, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the host nation UAE. Objective: The primary aim of Exercise Desert Flag is to conduct complex and diverse fighter engagements. It focuses on: Operational exchange of knowledge, Sharing best practices, and Enhancing air combat tactics among some of the most advanced air forces in the world. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2123037

Answer 196

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Union Agriculture Minister led the Indian delegation to the 15th BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting in Brasília, Brazil. Brazil Location: Brazil is located in eastern South America, spanning the Northern, Southern, and Western Hemispheres, and is the fifth-largest country in the world. Borders: It shares borders with all South American nations except Chile and Ecuador. Regions: Major physiographic zones include the Brazilian Highlands, the Amazon Rainforest, and the Pantanal Wetlands. Water Bodies: Amazon River: Originating in the Andes Mountains, is the Second-longest in the world, with the largest water discharge volume globally. Sao Francisco River: Brazil’s longest river entirely within the country. Iguacu River: Features the Itaipu Dam, a major hydroelectric power site. Coastline: Brazil has a 7,491 km long Atlantic coastline with islands like Fernando de Noronha. Highest Peak: Pico da Neblina (2,999 m) is Brazil’s tallest mountain. Amazon Basin: It is the world’s largest river basin, spans across Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela, Bolivia, Guyana, and Suriname. It is home to the Amazon Rainforest, the largest tropical forest in the world, and plays a vital role in the global carbon cycle. Major Highlights of the Visit The theme of the meeting was “Promoting inclusive and sustainable agriculture through cooperation, innovation and equitable trade among BRICS countries.” Meeting was attended by senior officials from BRICS nations and newly invited members such as Saudi Arabia, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, Indonesia, and Iran. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2123055

Answer 197

Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea Explanation : Bengal swimmer Sayoni Das successfully managed to cross the Strait of Gibraltar as reportedly the first Asian woman recently. About Strait of Gibraltar: It is the body of water separating Europe from Africa and connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean. Bordering Countries: The Strait is bordered by Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar in the north and by the African country of Morocco and the Spanish enclave of Ceuta in the south. It is about 58 km long and has a width of about 13 km at its narrowest point between Morocco’s Point Cires and Spain’s Point Marroquí. The western end of the strait located between Spain’s Cape Trafalgar and Morocco’s Cape Spartel has a width of about 43 km. The strait’s eastern end, located between the Rock of Gibraltar in the north and Mount Hacho or Jebel Moussa in the south, has a width of about 23 km. These two land features in the strait’s eastern extremity are known as the Pillars of Heracles. The Strait of Gibraltar's depth ranges from 300 to 900 m and it forms a significant gap between the high plateau of Spain and the Atlas Mountains of Northern Africa. Formation: Geological studies have revealed that the Strait was formed due to the northward movement of the African Plate towards the European Plate. Waterflow: The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea have different salinity levels, and therefore the highly saline waters from the Mediterranean Sea flow outward and underneath the currents from the Atlantic Ocean, whereas the less saline Atlantic waters flow inward and on top of the Mediterranean Sea current. It is the only natural link between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea and is one of the busiest waterways in the world. An important port located on the Strait of Gibraltar is the Moroccan port of Tanger-Med, near Tangier. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thestatesman.com/bengal/admirable-feat-bengal-girl-swims-across-strait-of-gibraltar-1503422487.html

Answer 198

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A new oral antibiotic named gepotidacin could be a breakthrough in the fight against stubborn gonorrhoea infections, according to a recent study. About Gonorrhoea: It is a sexually transmitted infection (STI), also called a sexually transmitted disease (STD), caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhea. It is sometimes known as ‘the clap'. Gonorrhea bacteria can infect the urethra, rectum, female reproductive tract, mouth, throat or eyes. Transmission: It is most commonly spread during vaginal, oral or anal sexual activity. But babies can get the infection during childbirth. In babies, gonorrhea most commonly affects the eyes. Gonorrhea can affect people of any age, anatomy, or gender, but it’s particularly common among teens and young adults between the ages of 15 and 24. Symptoms: Many people with gonorrhoea won’t notice any symptoms. If you do get symptoms, it’s usually between 1 to 14 days after getting the infection. Men are more likely to experience symptoms. Up to 50% of women won’t experience symptoms. Gonorrhoea can cause a sore throat, conjunctivitis, unusual vaginal or penile discharge, and pelvic and genital pain. Untreated gonorrhoea can cause: infections affecting the skin, joints, heart (endocarditis) and brain (meningitis) infertility in both females and males pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) epididymitis and prostatitis (inflammation of your prostate) Some of these complications can cause permanent damage to your health. Prevention: It can be prevented by practicing safe sex. Treatment: Most of the time antibiotics cures gonorrhoea. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/uti-drug-gepotidacin-treatment-sexually-transmitted-disease-std

Answer 199

1 only Explanation : In a remarkable find at Big Bend National Park, United States, geology students recently uncovered a rare and nearly complete fossil of the Alamosaurus. About Alamosaurus: Alamosaurus is one of the largest dinosaurs known to have existed. Native to North America during the late Cretaceous period (100.5 to 66 million years ago), Alamosaurus is an herbivorous sauropod with armoured spikes on its back that protect it from predator attacks. The sauropods were not only the largest dinosaurs but also the largest land animals ever to evolve. Alamosaurus is the only known sauropod in North America from the Upper Cretaceous. It was the largest terrestrial animal in North America during the Upper Cretaceous. Standing at least 11 meters (36 feet) tall, 30.5 meters (100 feet) long, and weighing 38-80 metric tons, it rivals the size of the biggest sauropods like Argentinosaurus, which lived in Argentina, South America around 97-92 million years ago. It has a long neck, tail, and pillar-like limbs characteristic of its family. Alamosaurus died out in the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction event, making it one of the last non-avian dinosaurs to ever walk the Earth. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indiandefencereview.com/scientists-complete-alamosaurus-fossil/

Answer 200

Pakistan Explanation : The Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region recorded its lowest snow persistence in 23 years during the 2024–2025 winter, according to a new report published recently. About Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH): The HKH mountains extend around 3,500 km over eight countries — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, Myanmar, and Pakistan. It covers an area of approximately 4.2 million sq.km. It runs northeast to southwest and divides the valley of the Amu Darya (the ancient Oxus River) to the north from the Indus River valley to the south. To the east the Hindu Kush buttresses the Pamir range near the point where the borders of China, Pakistani-administered Kashmir, and Afghanistan meet, after which it runs southwest through Pakistan and into Afghanistan, finally merging into minor ranges in western Afghanistan. The range has numerous high snow-capped peaks, with the highest point being Tirich Mir or Terichmir at 7,708 meters (25,289 ft) in Chitral, Pakistan. It is considered the Third Pole (after the North and South Poles) and has significant implications for climate. The HKH forms the largest area of permanent ice cover outside of the North and South Poles and is home to 4 global biodiversity hotspots. The HKH region is the source of ten large Asian river systems: the Amu Darya, Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy, Salween, Mekong, Yangtse, Yellow River, and Tarim. The basins of these rivers provide water to 1.9 billion people, a fourth of the world’s population. Contains diverse ecosystems: glaciers, alpine meadows, forests, wetlands, and grasslands. HKH may be divided into three main sections: the eastern Hindu Kush, the central Hindu Kush, and the western Hindu Kush, also known as the Bābā Mountains. The inner valleys of the Hindu Kush see little rain and have desert vegetation. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/south-asian-rivers-at-risk-as-hindu-kush-himalaya-

Answer 201

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Supreme Court recently appeared surprised over a petition seeking the invocation of Article 355 in West Bengal, citing violence in Murshidabad district during protests against the Waqf Amendment Act. About Article 355: It is a part of emergency provisions contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360. It empowers the central government to take all necessary steps to protect a state against internal disturbances and external aggression. It empowers the Centre to take necessary steps to protect a state from any kind of threat, be it internal or external. It allows the Centre to take charge of a state's law and order enforcement without dismissing the government, and is considered a step below the President's rule, which gives full control to the President. The provision is designed to ensure that the government can act swiftly and decisively in the event of any disturbance or threat to the peace and security of the country. Exact definition: The exact definition of Article 355 in the Constitution of India is, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.” Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/supreme-court-plea-article-355-murshidabad-waqf-violence-president-rule-bengal-101745214685077.html

Answer 202

2 only Explanation : Recently, The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully completed the second docking of its two satellites — SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target) — under the SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission. About the SpaDeX Mission SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is a technology demonstration mission developed by ISRO to validate the capability of docking and undocking two small satellites in low-Earth orbit. The mission involved two small satellites, each weighing around 220 kg: SDX01 (Chaser), SDX02 (Target) These satellites were launched by PSLV-C60 into a 460 km circular orbit with an inclination of 45 degrees. Objectives of the SpaDeX Mission Primary objective: To develop and demonstrate the capability for rendezvous, docking, and undocking of spacecraft in orbit. Secondary objectives: To demonstrate the transfer of electric power between docked spacecraft — a crucial component for future in-space operations. To develop and validate composite spacecraft control systems. To test payload operations after undocking — important for deep-space missions. With this achievement, India becomes the fourth country after the United States, Russia, and China to successfully conduct satellite docking operations. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: SpaDeX Mission: ISRO successfully executes docking of satellites for second time - The Hindu

Answer 203

Nepal Explanation : Nepal observed its first-ever ‘National Yak Day’ on April 20, 2025, to honor the cultural, ecological, and economic value of the yak in the Himalayan region. Why in the News? The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) urged stakeholders to elevate the yak to its rightful place in the sustainable development agenda, especially across the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) region. ICIMOD emphasised that indigenous communities like the Sherpa, Tamang, Thakali, Rai, and Limbu have historically protected and practiced yak herding, linking it with food security, cultural identity, and biodiversity conservation. Biological and Geographic Features of Yak Scientific Name:Wild yak: Bos mutus; Domesticated yak: Bos grunniens Habitat: Wild yaks inhabit alpine tundra at altitudes of 5000 to 7000 meters. They thrive in environments such as alpine meadows, alpine steppes, and desert steppes. Geographic distribution: Found throughout the Himalayan region, Tibetan plateau, Mongolia, and parts of South-Central Asia. In India, yaks are reared in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and the union territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Physical Characteristics of Yak Wild yaks are around 2 meters tall at the shoulder, while domesticated yaks are smaller. They have long, shaggy hair for insulation and curved horns, with larger horns in males. Their lung capacity is nearly three times that of cattle, with smaller red blood cells, making them highly adapted to high-altitude, low-oxygen environments. Yaks are herbivorous, feeding on grasses and alpine plants. Uses and Socio-Economic Importance: Domesticated yaks are used for milk, meat, and as pack animals, transporting goods across mountain passes. They are also used in climbing and trekking expeditions, capable of ascending up to 20,000 feet. Yaks are often crossbred with domestic cattle to produce dzo or chauri gai, which are adaptable hybrids used in agropastoralism across altitudinal gradients. Conservation Status: Wild yaks are listed as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List, indicating the need for urgent conservation efforts to protect their habitats and genetic diversity. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Elevate yak to its rightful place in sustainable development age

Answer 204

All five Explanation : Kinshasa is one of 38 flood hotspots in the Congo Basin, due to its twin flood sources and urbanisation. Recent Events The April 2025 flooding in Kinshasa, capital of the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), was not solely due to rainfall but largely due to urban mismanagement and infrastructure failure. The flooding, triggered by local rains and runoff from the Congo Central Province, overwhelmed urban tributaries like the Ndjili River and Lukaya tributary. The disaster resulted in 70 deaths, 150 injuries, and displacement of over 21,000 people. It also affected 73 healthcare facilities and disrupted water and transport services. Current instability in eastern DRC due to the M23 armed group, causing mass displacement. About Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) Capital: Kinshasa 2nd largest country in Africa (after Algeria), and largest in Sub-Saharan Africa Borders: Angola, Burundi, CAR, Congo, Rwanda, Sudan, Tanzania, Uganda, Zambia Coastline: Small boundary along the Atlantic Ocean Geography: Major river: Congo River (second longest in Africa) Vegetation: Predominantly tropical forests Unique ecosystems: Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands Mineral Resources: Rich in cobalt, copper, gold, lithium, iron ore, and coal. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: Why Kinshasa keeps flooding — and why it’s not just about the rain

Answer 205

Only two Explanation : India, the world’s second-largest emitter of N₂O after China, faces climate risks as N₂O has 300 times the global warming potential of CO₂. About Nitrogen Nitrogen is the most abundant atmospheric gas, constituting ~78% of Earth’s atmosphere. Nitrogen is vital for forming DNA, ATP (cellular energy currency), proteins, chlorophyll, and acts as a neurotransmitter via nitric oxide (NO). Nitrogen Cycle: Natural Balancing Act Atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) is inert and unusable by plants or animals. Plants rely on diazotrophs (N-fixing bacteria) through symbiotic association (e.g., in legumes). Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia into nitrites (NO₂⁻) and then nitrates (NO₃⁻) – the form plants can absorb. Nitrification: Ammonia → Nitrites → Nitrates (plant-usable form). Denitrification returns excess nitrates back to the atmosphere, maintaining the natural nitrogen cycle. Haber-Bosch Process Developed in the early 20th century, allowed industrial fixation of nitrogen to produce ammonia. Uses fossil fuels, high heat and pressure, and an iron catalyst. Enabled synthetic fertiliser revolution → contributed to Green Revolution and exponential population growth. Environmental Risks of Excess Nitrogen (Latent Time-Bomb) Reactive nitrogen (ammonia, nitrate, nitrous oxide) is now overproduced through chemical fertilisers. 80% of applied nitrogen is lost to the environment via leaching and emissions, causing: Eutrophication of water bodies → Algal blooms, Dead Zones (e.g., Gulf of Mexico). Soil acidification and air pollution from NOx emissions. Formation of ground-level ozone and acid rain. N₂O (Nitrous oxide) is now the third most potent greenhouse gas after CO₂ and CH₄. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Is nitrogen, a building block of life, a latent time-bomb? - The Hindu

Answer 206

Hubble Space Telescope and W.M. Keck Observatory Explanation : The Bullseye Galaxy (LEDA 1313424) was recently discovered by an international team of researchers using the Hubble Space Telescope and W.M. Keck Observatory. About Bullseye Galaxy The galaxy's distinct ringed structure is believed to have formed approximately 50 million years ago due to a head-on collision with a blue dwarf galaxy. This head-on collision is believed to have caused rippling gas waves, leading to star formation in ring-like patterns. This discovery was termed “serendipitous” as ringed galaxies usually have only two or three rings. Observed Through Multiple Telescopes: The Hubble Space Telescope confirmed eight rings. The W.M. Keck Observatory in Hawaii confirmed a ninth ring, revealing the full structure. The Bullseye Galaxy spans 250,000 light-years in diameter — nearly 2.5 times larger than the Milky Way. Despite a current separation of 130,000 light-years, a thin trail of gas still connects it to the colliding dwarf galaxy. The Bullseye may evolve into a Giant Low Surface Brightness (GLSB) Galaxy, a rare, massive galaxy type believed to hold clues about dark matter. Giant Low Surface Brightness (GLSB) Galaxy features: Composed of diffuse, low-density stellar disks. Contain large amounts of neutral hydrogen but exhibit low star formation rates. Include examples like Malin 1, which is 6.5 times wider than the Milky Way. GLSB galaxies are believed to be rich in dark matter, and their unusual mass distribution challenges the Standard Model of Cosmology. These galaxies display a uniform central mass instead of a dense core, suggesting discrepancies in current models. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Bullseye! Galaxy with nine rings may also reveal dark matter secrets - The Hindu.

Answer 207

Costa Rica Explanation : The Poás volcano, one of Costa Rica's most popular tourist attractions, erupted recently. About Poas Volcano: Poás is one of Costa Rica's most active volcanoes. The volcano is located within the Poas Volcano National Park. It is a composite stratovolcano with an irregular complex form and a basal area of about 400 sq.km. It rises to 2,708 metres above sea level. It has been formed from adjoining eruptive centres with large collapse craters. Its main crater is about 1.5 km wide and 300 meters deep—one of the largest active craters in the world. Since 1989, it has markedly increased the emission of gases causing acid rain phenomena that have damaged the flora in some sectors of the Park and surrounding agricultural plantations to the area. Throughout 2024, the volcano’s crater lake has been drying up, triggering ash-producing eruptions and releasing increased gas levels. Small explosions ejecting rocks have also occurred, and the drying process continues. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.msn.com/en-us/weather/topstories/po%C3%A1s-volcano-eruption-sends-3-km-high-ash-plume-over-costa-rica/vi-AA1Dmla6

Answer 208

1 only Explanation : The Jwaneng Diamond Mine is the richest diamond mine globally, with an estimated value of 1 billion euros. About Jwaneng Diamond Mine: Jwaneng Diamond Mine, dubbed the 'Prince of Mines,' is located in Botswana. It is the world's richest diamond mine by value. The mine lies on the edge of the Kalahari Desert. It is situated in an ancient volcanic crater about 170 km southwest of Botswana's capital, Gaborone. The mine is operated by Debswana, a joint venture between De Beers, a leading diamond company, and the Botswana government. Jwaneng, which means "a place of gems" in Setswana, sits atop a kimberlite pipe, a volcanic formation that brings diamonds from deep within the Earth's mantle to the surface. The mine's history dates back to the 1970s when De Beers discovered the site, and it has been operating since 1982. Over the years, it has produced millions of carats of diamonds from its three main kimberlite pipes. In 2023 alone, Jwaneng produced 13.3 million carats, solidifying its reputation as the world's richest diamond mine, valued at an estimated £1 billion. Jwaneng has played a crucial role in Botswana's economy. It is estimated that the mine's revenue has crossed $96 billion since its inception. Mining at Jwaneng is highly advanced, with large drills loosening the rock, and trucks transporting it to a processing plant. Here, diamonds are separated using state-of-the-art technologies like X-ray and laser sorters. Jwaneng was the first in Botswana to receive ISO 14001 certification for its eco-friendly practices. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/the-billion-dollar-diamond-treasure-inside-a-volcano-in-africa-jwaneng-mine-8225733

Answer 209

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman recently said India plans to increase the share of the manufacturing sector from 12% to 23% over the next two decades helped by sunrise sectors. About Sunrise Industries: Sunrise industry is a term frequently used for a sector that is developing and poised for rapid growth. Typically, such industries register high growth rates and have numerous start-ups and plenty of funding. Sunrise industry examples include the alternative energy industry highlighted in 2003 and 2007, the social media and cloud computing industries of 2011 and 2012, and blockchain industries established from 2013 to 2017. Other sunrise industries include information technology and clean energy. A sunrise industry often has a high degree of innovation and its rapid emergence may threaten a competing industry sector already in decline. The competing industry sector is commonly referred to as a sunset industry. Life Cycle of a Sunrise Industry: As an industry grows and matures, it may pass from the sunrise phase to maturity and, finally, the sunset stage. The compact-disc industry is an example of such a transition. It was a sunrise industry in the 1990s when compact discs replaced vinyl records and cassette tapes, but the rapid adoption of digital media in the 21st century saw the industry move into the sunset phase. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/india-aims-to-double-share-of-manufacturing-in-gdp-to-23-helped-by-sunrise-sectors-fm/article69479970.ece

Answer 210

1 only Explanation : The Supreme Court recently directed the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) to conduct an assessment of the nearby glass industries that are impacting Taj Mahal at Agra in Uttar Pradesh. About National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI): The CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI) is a research institute created and funded by the Government of India. It was established in Nagpur in 1958 with a focus on water supply, sewage disposal, communicable diseases, and to some extent, on industrial pollution and occupational diseases found commonly in post-independent India. NEERI is a pioneer laboratory in the field of environmental science and engineering and is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). The institute's primary mission is to conduct research and development activities related to various aspects of environmental management, pollution control, and sustainable development. NEERI falls under the Ministry of Science and Technology of the central government. Headquarters: Nagpur NEERI has five zonal laboratories at Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata, and Mumbai. Organizational Expertise: Climate/Environment, Health, Lab or Field Testing, Monitoring and Evaluation, Policy Development, Research, Standards, Technology, and Fuel R&D. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/assess-glass-industrys-impact-on-taj-mahal-sc-asks-neeri/

Answer 211

1 only Explanation : The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) recently stated that the turnover of Khadi and Village Industries (KVI) surpassed Rs 1.7 lakh crore in the financial year 2025 (FY24- 25). About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC): It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states. The objectives of the KVIC are explained below: Primary Objective: To build up an active rural community Social Objective: To provide employment in rural areas Economic Objective: To produce a saleable product Wider Objective: To create self-reliance among the economically weaker section The functions of the KVIC are as follows: To build a strategic reserve of raw materials and implements for supply to producers. To create common service facilities for processing raw materials as semi-finished goods and provisions for facilities for marketing KVI products. To enhance the sale and marketing of Khadi and other products of village industries or handicrafts. To be responsible for encouraging and promoting research in the production techniques and equipment employed in the Khadi and Village Industries sectors. To provide financial assistance to institutions and individuals for developing and guiding the Khadi and Village industries through the supply of designs, prototypes, and other technical information. To assure the genuineness of the products and to set standards for the quality of products from Khadi and Village Industries. The following are the schemes covered under the KVIC:  Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)  Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC) Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP) Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) Honey Mission Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.businessworld.in/article/khadi-village-industries-turnover-crosses-rs-17-lakh-cr-in-fy25-554471

Answer 212

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : NASA scientists have proposed an innovative use of cold atom-based quantum gravity gradiometers (QGGs) to measure how the Earth’s mass distribution is changing, especially due to climate change. About Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG) Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG): NASA scientists propose placing a Quantum Gravity Gradiometer onboard a satellite to detect minute gravitational changes. In a QGG, atoms of a specific element are cooled to near absolute zero in a vacuum, transforming them into wave-like states. Lasers manipulate these atoms, and the atoms undergo a phase shift directly related to the gravitational force acting upon them. This setup can detect differences in acceleration as small as 10⁻¹⁵ m/s² over a distance of just 1 meter. This includes estimating the mass of large formations like the Himalayas and monitoring the movement of water, ice, and geological materials with extreme precision from low Earth orbit. Gravitational force varies with mass distribution: The gravitational force experienced at different points on the Earth’s surface is not uniform; it depends on the mass of nearby objects. For instance, gravitational force near a mountain range is stronger than in less dense regions, like cities or flat plains. Gravity Gradiometer: It is a highly sensitive instrument that measures how gravitational acceleration changes from one place to another. For example, when a ball is dropped, the acceleration due to gravity can vary slightly depending on local mass differences. These devices are used in resource exploration—like locating hydrocarbon deposits, as oil and gas are less dense than surrounding rock. Hence both statements are correct. News: NASA developing 1st-ever space-based quantum sensor for gravity measurements

Answer 213

Afghanistan Explanation : Taliban's Changing Approach Towards Heritage Sites in Afghanistan. About Bamiyan Buddhas The Bamiyan Buddhas, carved in the 6th century CE, were two monumental statues of standing Buddhas measuring 115 feet and 174 feet in height, embedded into the sandstone cliffs of Bamiyan Valley, central Afghanistan. These statues are considered exemplary of the Gandhara School of Buddhist Art, which reflected a unique blend of Indian, Persian, and Greco-Roman artistic influences. The Bamiyan Buddhas, named Salsal (meaning “light shines through the universe”) and Shamama (“Queen Mother”), stood 55 metres and 38 metres tall, respectively. These statues represented a fusion of Gupta, Sassanian, and Hellenistic styles, representing a unique confluence of civilisations. The statues represented the confluence of cultural traditions and were significant markers of the spread of Buddhism across Central and South Asia between the 1st and 13th centuries. Background of Destruction The Taliban, a hardline group that emerged in the 1990s, imposed an extremist interpretation of Islamic law, which included banning art, education for girls, and public expression. On 27 February 2001, the Taliban officially announced its plan to demolish the Bamiyan Buddhas, deeming them un-Islamic. Over 25 days, the statues were systematically destroyed using explosives, marking one of the most egregious acts of cultural vandalism in modern history. In 2003, UNESCO designated the Bamiyan Valley as a World Heritage Site, despite the irreversible damage done. In 2021, a 3D holographic projection temporarily recreated the statue of Salsal, offering a new way to engage with the lost heritage. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Taliban change

Answer 214

the faster rate of warming in the Arctic compared to the global average Explanation : According to the 2024 European State of the Climate Report, Europe has warmed nearly twice as much as the global average, with far-reaching climatic and ecological consequences. What is Arctic Amplification? Arctic amplification is a phenomenon where temperature changes in the polar regions, especially the Arctic, are more intense than the global average temperature change. It is a form of polar amplification, which occurs when changes in Earth’s atmosphere lead to a greater rise in temperatures near the poles than in other parts of the world. This effect is measured against the average temperature rise of the planet and is particularly pronounced in the northern polar regions, hence the term Arctic amplification. The phenomenon is primarily driven by changes in the net radiation balance of the atmosphere, especially due to the increase in greenhouse gases like CO₂ and methane, which trap more heat in the Arctic region. The major contributing factors to Arctic amplification are: Ice-Albedo Feedback, Lapse Rate Feedback, Water Vapour Feedback & Ocean Heat Transport. Key Highlights from the 2024 European State of the Climate Report The Arctic region is warming three to four times faster than the global average, a phenomenon called Arctic Amplification. This is due to the melting of Arctic ice, reducing the albedo effect — where ice (which reflects sunlight) is replaced by darker surfaces (land or water) that absorb more solar radiation, enhancing warming. Warming Trends in Europe vs. Global Averages: The global average temperature has risen by approximately 1.3°C above pre-industrial levels (1850–1900 baseline). In 2024, the planet crossed the critical 1.5°C threshold for the first time ever. Europe’s average temperature has increased by about 2.4°C, making it one of the fastest-warming regions on Earth. This accelerated warming has led to extreme weather events, including intense heatwaves, heavy rainfall, and flooding. Regional Climatic Contrasts Within Europe: The Eastern part of Europe experienced warmer and sunnier conditions. Western Europe witnessed cloudier and wetter weather. Southeastern European countries (e.g., Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia, Croatia) saw their longest heatwave on record in 2024. The number of ‘cold stress days’ was the lowest ever, and below-freezing temperature days dropped significantly. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/why-europe-is-warming-faster-than-other-regions-9955478/

Answer 215

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir witnessed torrential rainfall and hail, resulting in severe damage. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) reported 16.9 mm of rainfall in 24 hours, marking a 575% increase from the normal 2.5 mm. What is a Cloudburst? A cloudburst is a localised and extremely intense rainfall event, defined by rainfall of 10 cm or more within one hour over an area of approximately 10 km × 10 km. Even 5 cm of rain in 30 minutes over the same area qualifies as a cloudburst. Cloudbursts are more common in mountainous regions due to a process known as orographic lift. In this phenomenon: Warm air ascends the mountain slope and expands due to lower atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes. As it expands and cools, the air releases its moisture in the form of precipitation. When large volumes of warm, moist air keep rising and accumulating moisture without releasing it, it can lead to a sudden, violent downpour. Because of their localised nature, cloudbursts are difficult to forecast and can overwhelm drainage systems, resulting in flash floods and landslides. What is a Flash Flood? A flash flood is a sudden and rapid inundation that occurs when excessive rainwater enters streams, drains, or rivers, often overwhelming the natural or built drainage capacity. These are more frequent in mountainous regions where the rocky terrain absorbs little water, causing more surface runoff. Unlike riverine floods in plains that cause long-term property damage, flash floods tend to be more deadly, often catching people off guard and leading to loss of life. What is a Landslide? A landslide refers to the movement of rock, debris, or earth down a slope, typically triggered when the force of gravity exceeds the resisting strength of the slope. Heavy rainfall plays a critical role in causing landslides by: Increasing the weight of the slope material. Reducing cohesion and friction, which makes it easier for soil and rocks to slide. Water infiltration from intense rain destabilises the slope, making landslides more likely. Landslides can: Crush living beings under debris. Disrupt roads and transportation. Block rivers, potentially causing secondary flooding. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: IMD rainfall report: Ramban rain causes destruction Understanding the weather events affecting the region

Answer 216

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Surat Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) is the world’s first market-based mechanism specifically designed to control particulate air pollution. What is an Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS)? An Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) is a regulatory tool that aims to reduce air pollution by introducing economic incentives. Under ETS, a cap is imposed on the total permissible emissions. Industries receive emission permits, which can be bought and sold, allowing companies to trade pollution rights. This system is also referred to as "cap-and-trade". Cleaner industries can sell their unused permits to polluting units, creating an economic incentive for pollution reduction. Why is the Surat ETS Significant? The Surat Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) launched in 2019 is the world’s first ETS focused on trading particulate pollution (not CO₂), and India’s first emissions market for any pollutant. It targeted 342 high-emitting industries, mainly in the textile sector, which used solid fuels like coal and lignite, and liquid fuels like diesel. The scheme was developed by the Gujarat Pollution Control Board (GPCB) in collaboration with J-PAL, EPIC, and Yale University. Hence both statements are correct. News: Explained: World’s first market for particulate emissions trading in Gujarat, how it worked

Answer 217

Vatican City Explanation : Vatican City mourns the loss of Pope Francis, who passed away at 88, a day after his Easter appearance. About Vatican City: It is the world’s smallest fully independent nation-state. It covers an area of only 0.49 sq. km. It is located in the south-central region of Europe, on the west banks of the Tiber River on a low hill known as the Vatican Hill. It is situated both in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. The territory of Vatican City is completely surrounded by Rome (Italy). It is thus an enclave of Italy. The country lacks any rivers of lakes. It is the residence of the spiritual leadership of the Roman Catholic Church. The Holy See is the name given to the government of the Roman Catholic Church, which is led by the pope as the bishop of Rome. As such, the Holy See’s authority extends over Catholics throughout the world. Since 1929 it has resided in Vatican City, which was established as an independent state to enable the pope to exercise his universal authority. As the Holy See, it derives its income from the voluntary contributions of more than one billion Roman Catholics worldwide, as well as interest on investments and the sale of stamps, coins, and publications. The most imposing building in Vatican City is St. Peter’s Basilica, built during the 4th century and rebuilt during the 16th century. Erected over the tomb of St. Peter the Apostle, it is the second largest religious building (after Yamoussoukro Basilica) in Christendom. The Vatican Palace is the residence of the pope within the city walls. The Vatican Swiss Guard is the oldest, continuously operating military force in the world, responsible for the security of the pope. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/travel/as-the-world-mourns-pope-francis-explore-5-intriguing-travel-facts-about-vatican-city/articleshow/120484615.cms

Answer 218

The state can act as a guardian for individuals who cannot care for themselves. Explanation : The Bombay High Court, invoking 'parens patriae', recently appointed a daughter as the legal guardian of her 78-year-old mother diagnosed with severe dementia. About Parens Patriae Doctrine: The Doctrine of Parens Patriae, meaning “parent of the nation” in Latin, is a legal principle that empowers the state to act as a guardian for individuals who are unable to care for themselves. Under parens patriae, a state or court has a paternal and protective role over its citizens or others subject to its jurisdiction. Originating from English common law, the doctrine allows the government to protect the welfare of vulnerable groups such as minors, incapacitated individuals, and persons with disabilities. It embodies the state’s responsibility to ensure the safety, rights, and interests of those unable to safeguard their own. In modern legal systems, this principle has been applied in areas such as juvenile justice, mental health, consumer protection, and environmental conservation, making it a cornerstone of judicial intervention to promote societal welfare and equity. Parens Patriae in Indian Legal Framework: In India, the Doctrine of Parens Patriae reflects the state’s constitutional commitment to protecting the welfare and rights of its citizens, particularly vulnerable groups. Indian courts have consistently invoked this doctrine in areas such as juvenile justice, consumer protection, environmental conservation, mental health, and the rights of persons with disabilities. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/bombay-high-court-appoints-daughter-as-legal-guardian-of-mother-with-dementia-under-parens-patriae-doctrine/articleshow/120451225.cms

Answer 219

All three Explanation : New research challenges the view that proteins are the only key to evolution, highlighting the importance of lipids. About Lipids: Lipids are fatty, wax-like compounds that perform a variety of functions in your body. Lipids are a structurally and functionally diverse group of hydrocarbons. Hydrocarbons are chemical compounds that consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms. Lipids are in your blood and throughout your body. They’re in every cell you have. Lipids like cholesterol are part of your cell membranes. They give your cells structure and allow substances to go in and out of your cells. They help with moving and storing energy, absorbing vitamins, and making hormones. Lipids are not soluble in water as they are non-polar but are thus soluble in non-polar solvents such as chloroform. Lipids are found in higher quantities in fried foods, animal fats, and dairy products like cream, butter, and cheese. Various lipids have different functions. These include: Triglycerides transport and store energy. Steroid hormones send messages in cells. Bile salts from cholesterol help digest fat. Fatty acids metabolize to create energy. Phospholipids and cholesterol make biological membranes. Phospholipids are like gatekeepers that let some molecules into your cells but require others to come in with proteins. Your body can produce the amount of lipids it needs. However, sometimes, it produces the wrong amount of lipids. This can cause: Hyperlipidemia (high lipid levels). Hypolipidemia (low lipid levels). Hypercholesterolemia. Atherosclerosis. Coronary artery disease. Hypertriglyceridemia. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/not-just-dna-proteins-ccmb-team-finds-lipids-also-guide-evolution/article69452496.ece

Answer 220

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Health Ministry recently launched new competency-based curricula for 10 allied healthcare professions in collaboration with the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP). About National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP): NCAHP is a statutory body established under the NCAHP Act 2021 to regulate and maintain standards of education and services of allied and healthcare professionals. It aims to enhance the quality of healthcare services by ensuring that all practitioners in the allied health fields meet established national standards. By focusing on both education and practical competencies, the NCAHP plays a significant role in safeguarding public health and enhancing the overall effectiveness of healthcare systems. The key objective of the NCAHP is to oversee the registration, training, and accreditation of various allied healthcare practitioners. This encompasses a broad range of professions, including but not limited to, Psychologists, medical technologists, physiotherapists, and occupational therapists. By providing a framework for the evaluation of educational institutions and training programs, the NCAHP ensures that practitioners are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to deliver high-quality patient care. Another critical aspect of the NCAHP’s role is to facilitate ongoing professional development. The commission promotes continuous learning among allied healthcare professionals, encouraging them to update their skills in accordance with the latest advancements in the healthcare industry. This commitment to lifelong learning not only benefits the individual practitioners but also leads to better patient outcomes and a more proficient healthcare system overall. It also functions as a central repository for information on professional standards, educational pathways, and regulatory requirements for practitioners. Moreover, the NCAHP contributes to the overall improvement of healthcare services by engaging in research and policy-making activities that influence health sector reforms. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/union-health-ministry-brings-in-new-competency-based-curricula-for-10-allied-and-healthcare-professions/article69482845.ece

Answer 221

Nepal Explanation : Indian Minister of Power and Housing Affairs, recently visited the Arun-III Hydel Project, which is being constructed with Indian assistance, during his official trip to Nepal. About Arun-III Hydro Power Project: It is a 900 MW run-of-the-river hydropower project located on the Arun River in the Sankhuwasabha District of Eastern Nepal. It envisages about 70 m high concrete gravity dam and Head Race Tunnel (HRT) of 11.74 km with an underground Power House containing four generating units of 225 MW each on the Left Bank. It is being developed with Indian assistance at a cost of Rs. 144 billion. Once completed, it will be the biggest hydroelectric facility in Nepal. It is being developed on a build-own-operate-and-transfer (BOOT) basis by Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN) Arun-III Power Development Company (SAPDC), a wholly owned subsidiary of India's SJVN. SJVN is a joint venture between the Government of India and the Government of Himachal Pradesh. SAPDC will operate the facility for a period of 25 years, excluding the construction period of five years, before transferring ownership to the Nepal government. Nepal will receive 21.9% of the electricity generated at the power plant as free power during these initial 25 years of commercial operations. The project will provide surplus power to India, strengthening economic linkages with Nepal. The power from the project shall be exported from Dhalkebar in Nepal to Muzaffarpur in India. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.aninews.in/news/world/asia/nepal-indian-energy-minister-khattar-reviews-progress-of-arun-iii-hydel-project20250422163337/

Answer 222

Chenab Explanation : Recently, India suspended the Indus Water Treaty (IWT) following a deadly militant attack in Pahalgam, Kashmir, which killed 26 civilians. About Indus Water Treaty The Indus Waters Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960, with the World Bank acting as a mediator. The treaty was designed to ensure cooperation and information-sharing between the two countries regarding water use from the Indus River system, which includes six rivers: Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. The treaty allocated the three western rivers—Indus, Jhelum and Chenab—to Pakistan for unrestricted use, while India retained the three eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—for its exclusive use. India was allowed limited, non-consumptive uses of the western rivers for domestic, agricultural, and hydroelectric purposes, under strict conditions. This arrangement meant that around 80% of the total water volume was granted to Pakistan, while India received the remaining 20%. To manage the treaty’s implementation, both nations agreed to establish a Permanent Indus Commission (PIC), which is required to meet annually to discuss technical matters and facilitate data exchange. Hence option d is the answer. News: https://www.businesstoday.in/india/story/indus-waters-treaty-freeze-indias-dam-push-could-dry-out-pakistans-crops-what-happens-next-473384-2025-04-24

Answer 223

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has issued orange and yellow alerts for regions including Delhi and Uttar Pradesh. About Heat Waves Heat Waves are a period of unusually high temperatures as compared to what is normally expected over a region. Therefore, the temperatures at which Heat waves are declared differ from place to place based on the temperature climatology (historical temperatures) of that region. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for the Plains and at least 30°C or more for the Hilly regions. Based on Departure from Normal Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.5°C to 6.4°C Severe Heat Wave: Departure from normal is >6.4°C Based on Actual Maximum Temperature Heat Wave: When the actual maximum temperature ≥ 45°C °c Severe Heat Wave: When the actual maximum temperature is ≥47°C When maximum temperature departure is 4.5°C or more from normal, a Heat Wave may be described, provided the actual maximum temperature is 37C or more. Heatwaves typically occur in India from March to June, sometimes extending into July. The core heatwave zone covers central, northern, and peninsular India, including Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, West Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Vidarbha (Maharashtra), Gangetic West Bengal, coastal Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/heatwave-delhi-yellow-alert-imd-air-quality-aqi-poor-noida-gurugram-125042400126_1.html

Answer 224

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : A recent study led by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has focused on the peculiar case of galaxy NGC 1052-DF2, which appears to lack dark matter—a component traditionally considered essential for galaxy formation. About Dark Matter Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter that does not emit, absorb, or reflect light, making it invisible and detectable only through its gravitational effects. It constitutes about 27% of the universe’s total mass-energy content, while visible matter accounts for only about 5%. Dark matter is essential for explaining the observed structure and formation of galaxies, galaxy clusters, and the overall large-scale structure of the universe. It acts as a cosmic “scaffolding,” holding galaxies together and influencing their rotation and movement. Unlike ordinary (baryonic) matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic forces, only gravity. The leading candidates for dark matter include: Weakly Interacting Massive Particles (WIMPs) Axions (hypothetical ultralight particles) Massive astrophysical compact halo objects (MACHOs) such as black holes, white dwarfs, and neutron stars. Dark Energy Dark energy makes up approximately 68% of the universe and appears to be associated with the vacuum in space. It is distributed evenly throughout the universe, not only in space but also in time – in other words, its effect is not diluted as the universe expands. The even distribution means that dark energy does not have any local gravitational effects, but rather a global effect on the universe as a whole. This leads to a repulsive force, which tends to accelerate the expansion of the universe. The rate of expansion and its acceleration can be measured by observations based on the Hubble law. These measurements, together with other scientific data, have confirmed the existence of dark energy and provide an estimate of just how much of this mysterious substance exists. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/iia-study-sheds-light-on-curious-case-of-missing-dark-matter-in-a-distant-galaxy/article69482824.ece

Answer 225

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) Explanation : In the wake of the Pahalgam terror attack, the Indian Army has resumed limited operations of the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Dhruv in the Anantnag region. About ALH Dhruv Advanced Light Helicopter or ALH-DHRUV is an indigenously developed utility aircraft by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) with a twin-engine. It has a multi-role, multi-mission dimension to it. Even though its development started in 1984, and was initially designed with Germany's assistance, Messerschmitt-Bolkow-Blohm (MBB), the helicopter was first flown in 1992 but entered service after certification in 2002. According to HAL, the aircraft is “type–certified” for military operations by the Centre for Military Airworthiness Certification and civil operations by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. The major variants of Dhruv are classified as Dhruv Mk-I, Mk-II, Mk-III & Mk-IV. HAL has bagged orders for 73 ALH in 2017 from the Indian Army, Coast Guard, and Navy for ALH Mk-III & Mk-IV variants. It has also been supplied to the Nepal Army, the Mauritius Police, and the Maldives. Features: Twin-engine configuration Glass cockpit with advanced avionics Crashworthy airframe and landing gear Composite interchangeable main rotor blades Chaff and flare dispenser Helmet Pointing System Integrated self-protection suite On-board inert gas generation system Capability to operate in diverse terrains, including high-altitude regions Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/in-the-aftermath-of-pahalgam-attack-grounded-dhruv-helicopters-resume-flying-in-the-anantnag-area/article69483899.ece

Answer 226

Rohu fish Explanation : Labeo Uru and Labeo Chekida, two new species of freshwater Rohu fish, have been discovered in the Western Ghats region of India. About Labeo Uru and Labeo Chekida Labeo uru and Labeo chekida are newly identified freshwater fish species belonging to the Rohu group (genus Labeo), discovered by ICAR-NBFGR scientists in the Western Ghats. Labeo uru was found in the Chandragiri River and is named for its distinctive sail-like dorsal fin. Labeo chekida, locally known as ‘kaka chekida’, is a small, dark-bodied fish discovered in the Chalakkudy River. The discovery resolves the long-standing taxonomic confusion with Labeo nigrescens, first described in 1870, by confirming the distinct identities of all three species based on unique morphological traits. This breakthrough highlights the rich and previously undocumented fish biodiversity of the Western Ghats, a recognised global biodiversity hotspot. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/two-new-fish-species-discovered-in-western-ghats-resolving-155-year-old-taxonomic-puzzle/article69482931.ece

Answer 227

1 only Explanation : A 6.2 magnitude earthquake whose epicenter was in the Sea of Marmara hit Istanbul recently. About Sea of Marmara: It is a small inland sea that is completely bordered by the transcontinental nation of Turkey. It covers an area of 11,350 sq.km. It is about 280 km long and has a maximum width of 80 km at its widest point. It separates the Asian and European parts of Turkey. In the northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Bosphorus Strait, whereas in the southwest, it is linked with the Aegean Sea via the Dardanelles Strait. It serves as a transitional zone between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. Salinity: Cold, fresh Black Sea water entering through the Bosporus meets warm and salty water of Mediterranean Sea origin flowing in through the Dardanelles Strait. This creates the situation where fresher water is located near the surface and much saltier water near the bottom. Climate: The sea has a humid subtropical climate with hot summers and cold and wet winters. Earthquakes: The North Anatolian Fault, which runs beneath the sea, has caused several massive earthquakes in the region. Major Islands: Marmara Island, Prince Islands, Avşa, Imrali, Ekinlik, and Paşalimani Islands. Marmara Island is Turkey’s second-largest island as well as the largest island in the Marmara Sea. It is also a rich source of marble. Some of the important coastal towns and cities that are located along the Sea of Marmara include Istanbul, Izmit, Balikesir, Yalova, Tekirdag, Bursa, and Çanakkale. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/world-news/6-2-magnitude-earthquake-in-the-sea-of-marmara-shakes-istanbul/articleshow/120550271.cms?from=mdr

Answer 228

1 only Explanation : The Supreme Court in its recent Judgment, emphasised that the invocation of the Doctrine of Prospective Overruling or the Attribution of Prospectivity to a decision must not be resorted to in a routine manner without the Court satisfying itself that the circumstances demand such a solution. About Doctrine of Prospective Overruling: It allows courts to apply legal decisions only to future cases, without affecting past actions or judgements made under the old law. This doctrine ensures that individuals or entities who acted in reliance on a previous legal rule are not penalized when the law is reinterpreted or overruled. It contrasts with retrospective rulings, where the new interpretation of the law applies to both past and future cases. It is a deviation from the traditional Blackstonian view of law, viz., the duty of the Court was "not to pronounce a new rule but to maintain and expound the old one". The doctrine was first recognized in American jurisprudence and has been adopted in countries like India and the UK. Its primary goal is to ensure fairness and avoid legal chaos by maintaining stability in past legal transactions while allowing the law to evolve. Indian Jurisprudence on the Doctrine of Prospective Overruling: The doctrine of prospective overruling was introduced into Indian jurisprudence by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of I.C. Golaknath vs. the State of Punjab (1967). This case marked a turning point in Indian constitutional law, as the Supreme Court explicitly recognised and applied the doctrine for the first time. The whole purpose of the doctrine is to avoid reopening settled issues and also prevent multiplicity of proceedings; in effect, this means that all actions prior to the declaration do not stand invalidated. All the subordinate courts are bound to apply the law to future cases only. There may also be instances where the Supreme Court may specify the date when the declaration shall come into effect, thereby not disturbing the decisions taken before such a date. All this happens during the process of invalidating a law or overruling a decision. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.verdictum.in/court-updates/supreme-court/directorate-of-revenue-intelligence-v-raj-kumar-arora-2025-insc-498-doctrine-of-prospective-overruling-1574502

Answer 229

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Indian Navy's guided missile destroyer INS Surat successfully test-fired a medium-range surface-to-air missile in the Arabian Sea recently. About INS Surat: It is the fourth and final ship of the Project 15B stealth guided missile destroyer class, popularly known as the Visakhapatnam class. It ranks among the largest and most sophisticated destroyers in the world. It has 75 percent Indigenous content and is equipped with state-of-the-art weapon-sensor packages and advanced network-centric capabilities. It was designed by the Navy's Warship Design Bureau and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders, Mumbai. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in January 2025. Features: It is the Indian Navy’s first Al (artificial intelligence)-enabled warship, which will utilise indigenously developed Al solutions to enhance its operational efficiency manifold. With a displacement of 7,400 tonnes and an overall length of 164 metres, INS Surat is a potent and versatile platform equipped with state-of-the-art weapons and sensors, including surface-to-air missiles, anti-ship missiles, and torpedoes. It is powered by a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) propulsion set comprising four gas turbines. It has speeds in excess of 30 knots (56 km/h). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ins-surat-test-fires-surface-to-air-missile-in-arabian-sea/article69487468.ece

Answer 230

Only two Explanation : The second annual synchronised estimation of Nilgiri tahr in Tamil Nadu and Kerala that began recently will cover 36 new blocks in addition to the 140 blocks surveyed last year. About Nilgiri Tahr: The Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocrius, former name is Hemitragus hylocrius) is an endangered mountain ungulate endemic to the southern part of the Western Ghats. It is also known by the name Nilgiri Ibex or simply Ibex. Locally the animal is called ‘Varayaadu’. It is the only mountain ungulate in southern India. It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Habitat and Distribution: The species is found in a roughly 400 km stretch in the Western Ghats, which falls in the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. These tahrs inhabit the open montane grassland habitat of the southwestern ghats montane rain forests ecoregion. At elevations ranging from 1200 to 2600 m, the jungle opens into grasslands interspersed with pockets of stunted forests, known as ‘sholas.’ The Eravikulam National Park (Kerala) has the highest density and largest surviving population of Nilgiri tahr. Features: The Nilgiri Tahrs are stocky goats with short, coarse fur and a bristly mane. The males are found to be larger than the females, and have a darker color when mature. Both sexes have curved horns, which are larger in the males. Adult males develop a light grey area or ’saddle’ on their backs and are hence called ‘saddlebacks’. The Nilgiri Tahr has a short grey-brown or dark coat. There are facial markings, particularly distinct in mature males. Females and immature males are an overall yellowish-brown to grey, with the underparts being paler. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/second-synchronised-estimation-of-nilgiri-tahr-to-cover-36-new-blocks/article69483001.ece

Answer 231

None of the above. Explanation : The Indian government recently announced that Pakistani nationals will not be permitted to travel to India under the SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES). About SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES): The SVES was launched in 1992. Under the scheme, certain categories of dignitaries from SAARC countries are issued a special travel document. This special instrument exempts them from the need for visas and other travelling documents to travel among these countries. Currently, the list includes 24 categories of entitled persons, which include dignitaries, judges of higher courts, parliamentarians, senior officials, businessmen, journalists, sportspersons, etc. Visa stickers are issued by the respective member states to the entitled categories of that particular country. The validity of the visa sticker is generally for one year. The implementation is reviewed regularly by the immigration authorities of SAARC member states. What is SAARC? The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established on December 8, 1985. SAARC is an economic and political regional organisation of countries in South Asia. The Secretariat of the Association was set up in Kathmandu, Nepal, in January 1987. SAARC has eight member countries — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC aims to accelerate the process of economic and social development in its member states through increased intra-regional cooperation. Hence option d is the answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-saarc-visa-exemption-scheme/article69485597.ece

Answer 232

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Measles-Rubella (M-R) Elimination Campaign 2025–26 aims to achieve 100% immunisation coverage by administering two doses of the M-R vaccine to all eligible children. About Measles Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that primarily affects young children and can lead to serious complications or death, especially in malnourished children or those with weakened immunity. It is caused by an enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus, classified under the genus Morbillivirus in the Paramyxoviridae family, with only one serotype. Common complications include blindness, encephalitis, severe diarrhoea, ear infections, and pneumonia. It spreads through respiratory droplets and remains one of the leading causes of vaccine-preventable deaths globally. About Rubella Also known as German Measles, Rubella is a mild viral infection that predominantly affects children and young adults. It is caused by the Rubella virus, an enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus, different from the measles virus. Rubella is less infectious and milder than measles, but it poses a major risk during pregnancy. Infection in pregnant women may lead to Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS), which causes irreversible birth defects like deafness, heart defects, and intellectual disabilities. Rubella and measles may have similar rash symptoms, but they are caused by different viruses. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124032

Answer 233

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : BRIC-inStem, Bengaluru, has successfully conducted India’s first-in-human gene therapy trial for Haemophilia in collaboration with CMC Vellore. About Gene Therapy Gene therapy is a biomedical technique that involves modifying or replacing faulty genes in a person’s cells to treat or prevent diseases. The primary objective is to introduce a functional gene to compensate for a mutated or disease-causing gene. Gene therapy approaches include: Replacing a mutated gene with a healthy copy. Inactivating a malfunctioning gene. Introducing a completely new gene into the body. Unlike conventional medicines, gene therapy targets the root genetic causes inside cells, rather than just addressing symptoms. Current clinical trials focus on both inherited and acquired disorders, using methods such as: Ex vivo modification of hematopoietic stem cells and T-lymphocytes. In vivo gene delivery or use of gene-editing reagents directly into the patient’s body. About Haemophilia Haemophilia is a rare genetic bleeding disorder where blood clotting is impaired due to mutations in genes encoding clotting proteins. These genes are located on the X chromosome, making males more susceptible. It affects about 1 in 10,000 people, with India having a significant patient load. About BRIC-inStem BRIC-inStem, part of the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC), integrates 14 autonomous research institutions under one national umbrella. It has pioneered translational and regenerative research, including: Gene therapy Anti-viral germicidal masks (developed during COVID-19) ‘Kisan Kavach’ pesticide shield for farmers Biosafety Level III Lab at BRIC-inStem is essential for studying high-risk pathogens under the One Health Mission. Hence both statements are correct. News: India Achieves Breakthrough in Gene Therapy for Haemophilia, Dr. Jitendra Singh Reviews BRIC-inStem Trials

Answer 234

All three Explanation : Indian scientists from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have successfully developed a novel method to accurately estimate the abundance of Helium in the Sun’s photosphere using indirect spectral analysis. Background Helium is the second most abundant element in the Sun, but direct detection in the Sun’s photosphere is extremely difficult due to the absence of Helium spectral lines in the visible range. Traditionally, Helium abundance was estimated indirectly using: Solar wind or corona data, Extrapolation from hotter stars, Helioseismology (solar interior vibrations). These methods were not based on direct photospheric observations, and hence lacked precision. What is the New Method? Scientists used spectral lines of neutral Magnesium (Mg I) and neutral Carbon (C I), along with molecular lines of MgH, CH, and C₂, observed in the Sun’s photosphere. This method is based on the principle that the relative abundance of Helium affects the availability of Hydrogen, which in turn influences the formation and strength of molecular lines (e.g., CH and MgH). The researchers matched the atomic and molecular abundances of Magnesium and Carbon for different Helium-to-Hydrogen (He/H) ratios. The technique confirmed that only at a He/H ratio of ~0.1 do the atomic and molecular line abundances agree, validating the assumed solar value. About Helium Helium (He) is a noble gas with a closed-shell electronic configuration, making it stable and chemically inert. Discovered in 1868 by Jules Janssen and Norman Lockyer via a yellow spectral line during a solar eclipse. Named after the Greek word ‘Helios’, meaning Sun. Largest global reserves: United States, Algeria, and Russia. India’s Rajmahal Volcanic Basin (Jharkhand) is a significant helium reservoir trapped for billions of years. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124064

Answer 235

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The keel laying ceremony of Yard 3040, the fourth Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NGOPV) being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd (GRSE), Kolkata, was held recently. About Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs) The Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs) have an approximate displacement of 3000 tonnes. They are designed for multi-role maritime operations, including: Coastal defence and surveillance Search and rescue (SAR) missions Protection of offshore assets such as oil rigs and platforms Anti-piracy operations in India's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and beyond These vessels will be equipped with modern sensors and armaments, enhancing the Indian Navy’s maritime domain awareness and low-intensity maritime conflict capabilities. Project Background The construction of the NGOPVs is part of a contract signed on 30 March 2023 for the indigenous design and development of 11 patrol vessels. These contracts were awarded to: Goa Shipyard Ltd (GSL) – the Lead Shipyard (7 vessels) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd (GRSE) – the Follow Shipyard (4 vessels) The project reflects India’s commitment to self-reliance in defence manufacturing under the national initiatives of ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ and ‘Make in India’. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124194

Answer 236

Geneva Explanation : The 2025 COPs (Conferences of the Parties) of the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm Conventions are being held in Geneva (April 28–May 9) to address hazardous chemicals like chlorpyrifos. About Chlorpyrifos Chlorpyrifos, a pesticide classified as ‘moderately hazardous’ by the World Health Organisation, is still approved for use in India on 18 crops, despite bans in over 40 countries. It is linked to neurotoxicity, reproductive toxicity, irreversible brain damage in unborn children, and the ability to contaminate distant ecosystems due to its mobility. Global and National Advocacy Pesticide Action Network (PAN) India: It advocates placing chlorpyrifos under Annex III of the Rotterdam Convention, requiring prior informed consent before trade. It calls for its inclusion under Annex A of the Stockholm Convention, which demands a complete global ban, though exemptions are usually allowed. It stresses that safer alternatives are already available, making a total ban both feasible and necessary. Unauthorised Use in India: A 2022 report found the illegal use of chlorpyrifos and other agrochemicals like paraquat, raising serious regulatory and enforcement concerns. What is CIBRC? The Central Insecticides Board & Registration Committee (CIBRC) operates under the Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage, part of the Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. It was established in 1970 to ensure the safe regulation of insecticides across India, particularly focusing on minimising risks to human health, animal safety, and the environment. Legal backing: The Insecticides Act, 1968 forms the statutory basis for CIBRC. It came into effect from 1st August 1971 along with the notification of the Insecticides Rules, 1971. The Act mandates the regulation of import, manufacture, sale, transport, and use of insecticides through a centralised registration process. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: India must act against chlorpyrifos pesti

Answer 237

None of the above. Explanation : The world's only research centre on mycetoma, a neglected tropical disease common among farmers, has been destroyed in Sudan's two-year war, its director and another expert say. About Mycetoma: It is a chronic, progressively destructive infectious disease of the subcutaneous tissues, that spreads to affect the skin, deep tissues and bone. It was first reported in the mid-19th century in Madurai, India, and hence was initially called Madura foot. It is a unique neglected tropical disease caused by a substantial number of microorganisms of fungal or bacterial origins. The disease commonly affects young adults, mostly males aged between 15 and 30 years in developing countries. Distribution: Mycetoma occurs in tropical and subtropical environments characterized by short rainy seasons and prolonged dry seasons that favour the growth of thorny bushes. The causative organisms of mycetoma are distributed worldwide but are endemic in tropical and subtropical areas in the so called 'Mycetoma belt', which includes, among others, the Bolivarian Republic of Venezuela, Chad, Ethiopia, India, Mauritania, Mexico, Senegal, Somalia, Sudan, Thailand, and Yemen. Transmission: Transmission occurs when the causative organism enters the body through minor trauma or a penetrating injury, commonly thorn pricks. There is a clear association between mycetoma and individuals who walk barefooted and are manual workers. Symptoms: Symptoms are similar for bacterial and fungal mycetoma. Both appear as firm, painless masses under the skin. These masses usually appear on a person’s foot but can form anywhere on the body. Mycetoma masses start small, but over time they can grow larger and develop oozing sores. The affected limb can become deformed or unusable. The discharge from the oozing sores can contain sand-like particles called "grains," that can be white, yellow, red, brown, or black. If left untreated or treatment fails, it can spread to other areas of the body and even result in blood infections. Long-term mycetoma can eventually destroy the underlying muscle and bone. Treatment: For bacterial mycetoma, treatment consists of a combination of antibiotics, whereas for fungal mycetoma, treatment consists of a combination of antifungal drugs and surgery. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/sudan-war-destroys-worlds-only-research-centre-on-skin-disease-mycetoma-director/120624252

Answer 238

1 onlyExplanation : 59 percent work completed on 19.28 Km Dhubri-Phulbari Brahmaputra Bridge, according to reports. About Dhubri-Phulbari Bridge: It is an under-construction 4-lane bridge project over the Brahmaputra River connecting Dhubri in Assam and Phulbari in Meghalaya on NH 127 B. The length of the bridge is 19.3 km, which would make it the longest river bridge in the country. It comprises a navigation bridge stretching approximately 12.625 kilometers, complemented by approach viaducts on both sides, with 3.5 kilometers on the Dhubri end and 2.2 kilometers on the Phulbari side. It will have 199 pillars supporting the massive structure. The project’s civil construction work is being done by Larsen & Toubro (L&T) for the National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corp Ltd. (NHIDCL) and funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA). The project is estimated to cost Rs 3165.99 crore. The bridge will significantly reduce travel distances, especially between Phulbari in Meghalaya and Dhubri in Assam. It will shorten travel by more than 200 km, improving the connectivity of India’s northeastern states with the rest of the country. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://swarajyamag.com/news-brief/indias-longest-river-bridge-takes-shape-59-per-cent-work-completed-on-1928-km-dhubri-phulbari-brahmaputra-bridge

Answer 239

United States Explanation : A "breathing" cap of magma has been discovered inside the Yellowstone supervolcano, and it might help determine when the volcano will next erupt, a new study has found. About Yellowstone Supervolcano: It lies beneath Yellowstone National Park, in the western United States. It is one of the largest active volcanic systems in the world. It's a caldera (a large crater formed by a major eruption) and an active supervolcanic system. The caldera measures 55 x 72 km (34 x 45 miles) in size. Formation: The caldera formed when pyroclastic material exploded out of the volcano, partly emptying the magma chamber causing the roof to collapse. When the roof collapsed over the magma chamber, it created a bowl shaped depression in the ground. Three enormous eruptions occurred at the Yellowstone hotspot 2.1 million, 1.3 million, and 640,000 years ago. Two of these released so much material that the area is often referred to as a supervolcano. A supervolcano is a volcano that at one point in time erupted more than 1,000 cubic kilometers of deposits. One recent study estimates that another supervolcanic eruption at Yellowstone would blanket North America in ash, and some areas close to the hotspot could be covered by more than a meter of debris. Supervolcanoes can also have pronounced cooling effects on the climate for several years after an eruption because of the sulfur dioxide that is released to the atmosphere. The sulfur dioxide forms aerosols that block incoming sunlight. Eventually, the sulfur dioxide from the eruption will wash out of the atmosphere, and the climate cooling effect will subside. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/scientists-find-breathing-magma-cap-inside-yellowstone-supervolcano

Answer 240

All three Explanation : Noting the cross-border linkages of the terrorist attack in Pahalgam recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) announced a series of extraordinary retaliatory measures against Pakistan. About Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS): The CCS, headed by the PM, is responsible for important discussions and decisions on defence policy, expenditure, and matters related to national security. It is also the apex body when it comes to the appointments of the officials in the national security bodies. History: A committee comparable to the current CCS structure was first formed in independent India in 1947 by then-Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. Formed against the background of a newly independent nation facing national security challenges, the committee was constituted with the primary aim of assessing and addressing the political, economic, and military situations in India's border areas. The first emergency meeting of this committee was reportedly called during the Indo-Pak War of 1947–48. It was reportedly chaired by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, with Home Minister Sardar Patel and Defence Minister Baldev Singh as its members. It was after the 1999 Kargil War that the committee evolved to adopt the present formal structure of the CCS and became a high-powered committee for defence and national security. Over time, the CCS has evolved into the apex decision-making body concerning internal and external security matters of the Government of India. Composition: With the Prime Minister as its chairperson, the committee typically comprises the Home Minister, Defence Minister, Finance Minister, and External Affairs Minister as members. The National Security Advisor (NSA) acts as secretary-level coordinator on matters within its purview. While the defence minister is a permanent invitee to the panel, other members may be included as per requirements. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for maintaining records of all the meetings and proceedings of the CCS. The CCS concerns itself with all matters related to defence, foreign affairs, intelligence, nuclear issues, space policy, and major appointments related to national security. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ccs-pahalgam-pakistan-cabinet-committee-on-security-9963278/

Answer 241

1 only Explanation : The Cosmology Education and Research Training Center (COSMOS), Mysuru, of the Indian Institute of Astrophysics recently observed ‘Zero Shadow Day’. About Zero Shadow Day (ZSD): It is an interesting celestial phenomenon that occurs twice in a year when the sun is directly overhead and thus no shadow of any vertical object can be seen. This event happens for locations situated between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. The ZSD phenomenon transpires when the Sun's declination becomes equal to the latitude of the location. On this day, as the sun crosses the local meridian, its rays fall exactly vertically relative to an object on the ground, making it impossible to observe any shadow of that object. This is due to the tilt of the Earth's axis and its rotation around the sun, causing the angle of the sun's rays to change throughout the year, which in turn affects the lengths and directions of shadows. When does it occur? There are two zero shadow days every year, observed in places that lie between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. One falls during the Uttarayan (when the Sun moves northwards), and the other is during Dakshinayan (when the Sun moves southwards). It will clearly be different for different places on earth. It lasts for a small part of a second, but the effect can be seen for a minute to a minute-and-a-half. The southern part of India, roughly below the latitude of Bhopal, will experience the ZSD. The states that can see this event are Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Goa, Maharashtra, Odisha, Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, most of Gujarat and Chhattisgarh, and the southern parts of Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/zero-shadow-day-observed-in-mysuru/article69478570.ece

Answer 242

2 only Explanation : The JCoR meeting, held at TRAI headquarters, New Delhi, emphasised the need for a unified and collaborative approach to combat spam and fraudulent calls, especially targeting senior citizens. About Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) Established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, passed by Parliament. Primary mandate: To regulate telecom services in India including tariff fixation/revision, which was earlier the domain of the Central Government. Scope of regulation: Covers areas like tariffs, quality of service, interconnection, spectrum management, and consumer protection in the telecom sector. Policy role: Issues regulations, recommendations, and orders that guide telecom policy-making and market practices. Composition of TRAI Consists of a Chairperson, a maximum of two full-time members, and two part-time members. Appointments are made by the Central Government. Tenure: Members serve for three years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Extent of Government Control over TRAI Not a fully independent body – operates under certain executive constraints: Under Section 25 of the TRAI Act, the Central Government can issue binding directions to TRAI. TRAI’s funding is provided by the Central Government. TRAI's recommendations are advisory, not binding; however, the Government must consult TRAI for licensing of service providers and related matters. TRAI can notify telecom service rates in the Official Gazette for services within and outside India. Joint Committee of Regulators (JCoR) Objective of JCoR: A TRAI-led platform for fostering cross-sectoral collaboration between regulatory bodies across telecom, IT, consumer affairs, banking, insurance, and financial markets. Created to address regulatory challenges in the digital ecosystem, especially in areas like fraud prevention, spam control, and digital consumer protection. Members: Includes representatives from RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA, MoCA, MeitY, with DoT and MHA as special invitees. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124347

Answer 243

World Malaria Day Explanation : World Malaria Day is observed every year on April 25, as endorsed by WHO member states in 2007. The theme for 2025 is “Malaria Ends With Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite”, which urges renewed global action against malaria through innovation, collaboration, and sustained commitment. About Malaria Malaria is a life-threatening febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites, transmitted through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. The disease is not contagious, but can be spread through infected blood or contaminated needles. The most dangerous species are Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax. Symptoms and Risks Symptoms appear 10–15 days after infection and include fever, chills, and headache. Severe symptoms can include seizures, difficulty breathing, jaundice, dark urine, and death if untreated. Partial immunity can develop in endemic regions, making diagnosis difficult in some patients. Prevention and Treatment Prevention includes vector control, use of mosquito nets, repellents (DEET, IR3535, Icaridin), long clothing, and chemoprophylaxis for travelers. Early diagnosis and treatment using microscopy or rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) is critical. Treatments include: ACTs (Artemisinin-based Combination Therapies) for P. falciparum. Chloroquine for P. vivax where effective. Primaquine to prevent relapses in P. vivax and P. ovale infections. Severe malaria cases require injectable treatments in clinical settings. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124334

Answer 244

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), under DRDO, successfully conducted a ground test of a Scramjet Engine for over 1,000 seconds at Hyderabad. About Scramjet Engine A Scramjet (Supersonic Combustion Ramjet) is an air-breathing engine designed to operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds (Mach 5 and above). Unlike traditional jet engines, it does not use rotating compressors, relying instead on the vehicle's high speed to compress air. Scramjets enable supersonic combustion, making them suitable for Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs). Scramjet Engine Working Principle: Air intake: Vehicle must already be flying at supersonic speeds (Mach 3+). Compression: High-speed movement compresses the incoming air. Combustion: Hydrogen fuel is injected and ignited while air remains supersonic. Thrust Generation: Expanding gases create thrust (based on Newton’s Third Law). Scramjets need rocket-assisted takeoff as they can't generate thrust at zero speed. About Hypersonic Missiles A Hypersonic Missile travels at speeds greater than Mach 5, offering high speed and manoeuvrability, unlike traditional ballistic missiles. There are two types of hypersonic weapons systems: Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs): launched by rockets and glide towards the target. Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs): powered by scramjet engines and capable of maintaining hypersonic speed throughout the flight. Hypersonic Cruise Missiles typically fly at lower altitudes and are more difficult to detect and intercept due to their speed and manoeuvrability. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124415

Answer 245

Department of Revenue Explanation : In line with the Union Budget 2025–26, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) has introduced major trade facilitative measures for Air Cargo and Transhipment to enhance logistics efficiency and simplify customs procedures. About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) CBIC is part of the Department of Revenue, under the Ministry of Finance. It administers: Customs, Central Excise, CGST, IGST, and Narcotics (where applicable). Policy formulation related to levy and collection of indirect taxes. Custom Houses, Excise & GST Commissionerates, and Revenue Laboratories. CBIC manages customs at: International Airports, Seaports, Air Cargo Stations, ICDs, LCSs, CFSs, and SEZs. The CBIC is headed by a Chairman, supported by Chief Commissioners and Director Generals across various zones. It also operates a GST Intelligence Wing to monitor and prevent tax evasion. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124318

Answer 246

Ukraine Explanation : Recently, US President Donald Trump proposed formal recognition of Crimea as Russian territory, potentially reversing America’s long standing opposition to the annexation. About Crimea Crimea is an autonomous republic situated in southern Ukraine, located between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov. The Crimean Peninsula is connected to mainland Ukraine through the Perekop Isthmus, a narrow 8 km land strip, and separated from the Sea of Azov by the Arabat Spit; Kerch Strait connects it to Russia via the Crimean Bridge. Historically called the Tauric Peninsula, Crimea has witnessed multiple invasions and empires, including the Ottomans and Russians, vying for its control. The Crimean Mountains, especially Ai-Petri, dominate the southern landscape, while small rivers like Salhir and Alma traverse the region. The Kerch Peninsula in the east contains iron ore, mud volcanoes, and mineral springs, fostering a spa and mining industry; the Kerch Bridge connects it to Russia. The city of Simferopol serves as the administrative capital, while Sevastopol, a deep-water port, is the base of Russia’s Black Sea Fleet. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: Why Crimea matters to Russia | Explained News - The Indian Express

Answer 247

1 only Explanation : Pakistan violated the ceasefire along the Line of Control in the Kashmir Valley by resorting to unprovoked firing, a defence official said recently and added the army responded appropriately. About Line of Control (LoC): The LoC is the de facto military boundary between India and Pakistan in the region of Jammu and Kashmir. It is not an international boundary but a ceasefire line that was established after the 1947-48 India-Pakistan war over Kashmir. Then called the Ceasefire Line (CFL), it was redesignated as the "Line of Control" following the Simla Agreement, which was signed on 3 July 1972, following the 1971 Indo-Pakistan war. The LoC stretches about 740 kilometers, from the region of Ladakh in the north down to the Poonch district in the south. It is heavily militarized, with frequent skirmishes and exchanges of fire between Indian and Pakistani forces. On the Indian side of the LoC comes a part of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. On the Pakistani side comes the part of Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK), Gilgit, and Baltistan. The LoC is different from the International Border (IB), which is the officially recognized border between India and Pakistan elsewhere. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pakistan-violates-ceasefire-along-loc-in-kashmir-army-responds-appropriately-defence-official/article69493363.ece

Answer 248

1 only Explanation : US fighter jets appear to be using advanced "StormBreaker" precision glide bombs in combat against the Houthis, part of the intense bombing campaign against the Iran-backed rebels. About StormBreaker Missile: The Stormbreaker, designated as the GBU-53/B and also known as the Small Diameter Bomb II (SDB-II), is an American air-launched, precision-guided glide bomb developed by Raytheon. It is designed for all-weather precision strikes against both stationary and moving targets. Features: The weapon weighs 93 kg, measures 1.76 meters in length, and has a diameter ranging from 15 to 18 cm. It features a multi-mode guidance system that combines millimeter-wave radar, uncooled infrared imaging, and a digital semi-active laser. Its GPS/INS navigation system allows for real-time in-flight target updates, enhancing adaptability to evolving mission requirements. It incorporates TacNet Data Link (DL) technology, enabling weapon-to-weapon collaboration. This system facilitates Automatic Target Recognition (ATR) to identify and engage tracked or wheeled vehicles. It features a multi-effects warhead that enhances lethality against a range of targets. The weapon, which combines blast, fragmentation, and shaped charge modes, guarantees decisive outcomes with each attack, efficiently eliminating threats on the battlefield. It can strike moving targets at a range of 45 miles and stationary targets at a maximum range of 69 miles. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.businessinsider.com/us-stormbreaker-bomb-appears-intact-yemen-could-fall-wrong-hands-2025-4

Answer 249

Only two Explanation : According to a recent study conducted on women in the UK, being anaemic during pregnancy could be linked to a 47 percent higher chance of the child having a heart condition at birth. About Anaemia: Anemia is a problem of not having enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin to carry oxygen to the body's tissues. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to all other organs in the body. Having anemia can cause tiredness, weakness and shortness of breath. There are many forms of anemia. Each has its own cause. Some types of anemia are inherited, but people may also acquire or develop the condition during their lifetimes. WHO estimates that 40% of children 6–59 months of age, 37% of pregnant women, and 30% of women 15–49 years of age worldwide are anaemic. Anemia can be short-term or long-term. It can range from mild to severe. Severe anemia can be life-threatening. This condition may also be a symptom of serious conditions like cancer. A common type of anaemia is iron-deficiency anaemia, which is usually caused by not eating or absorbing enough iron, or by losing blood. Treatments for anemia might involve taking supplements or having medical procedures. Eating a healthy diet might prevent some forms of anemia. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/health/health-pregnancy-anaemia-heart-defects-baby-risk-oxford-study-2025-125042401416_1.html

Answer 250

All three Explanation : Two years after countries adopted the high seas treaty, delegates recently gathered at the first session of the Preparatory Commission meeting in New York, to develop rules needed to implement the agreement and set the stage for the first Conference of Parties (COP1). About UN High Seas Treaty: The Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement , or the ‘High Seas Treaty’, is an international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is the first-ever treaty to protect the world's oceans that lie outside national boundaries. It is also known as the ‘Paris Agreement for the Ocean.’ It is a legally binding treaty to protect marine life in international waters. It sets precise mechanisms for the sustainable use of marine biological diversity through international cooperation and coordination. It would also contribute to achieving several SDGs, particularly SDG14 (Life Below Water). The treaty will enter into force 120 days after the 60th country formally ratifies the agreement. Features: It contains 75 articles that aim at protecting, caring for, and ensuring the responsible use of the marine environment, maintaining the integrity of ocean ecosystems, and conserving the inherent value of marine biological diversity. It aims to place 30% of the seas into protected areas by 2030 (a pledge made by countries at the UN biodiversity conference in 2022). It will provide a legal framework for establishing vast marine protected areas (MPAs) to protect against the loss of wildlife and share out the genetic resources of the high seas. It also covers environmental assessments to evaluate the potential damage of commercial activities, such as deep-sea mining. It will establish a conference of the parties (CoP) that will meet periodically and enable member states to be held to account on issues such as governance and biodiversity. The treaty also includes a pledge by signatories to share ocean resources. Parties cannot claim or exercise sovereign rights over marine resources derived from the high seas and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits. It follows an inclusive, integrated, ecosystem-centric approach based on the precautionary principle and promotes using traditional knowledge and the best available scientific knowledge. It helps minimise impacts on the marine environment through area-based management tools and establishes rules for conducting environmental impact assessments. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/getting-the-bbnj-agreement-enter-into-force-at-the-un-ocean-conference-will-be-an-ambitious-task-nichola-clark

Answer 251

1 only Explanation : India has increased its claim in the Central Arabian Sea, as part of its ‘extended continental shelf’ by nearly 10,000 sq.km but also modified an earlier claim to avoid a long-standing dispute with Pakistan over the maritime boundary between the two countries. About Continental Shelf: It is the edge of a continent that lies under the ocean. It is the extension of a coastal State’s land territory under the sea. It extends from the coastline of a continent to a drop-off point called the shelf break. From the break, the shelf descends toward the deep ocean floor in what is called the continental slope. The actual boundary of a continent is not its coastline, but the edge of the continental shelf. Formation: Over many millions of years, organic and inorganic materials formed continental shelves. Inorganic material built up as rivers carried sediment—bits of rock, soil, and gravel—to the edges of the continents and into the ocean. These sediments gradually accumulated in layers at the edges of continents. Organic material, such as the remains of plants and animals, also accumulated. The widths of the continental shelves vary. Most continental shelves are broad, gently sloping plains covered by relatively shallow water. The average width of continental shelves is about 65 km (40 miles). Water depth over the continental shelves averages about 60 meters (200 feet). Sunlight penetrates the shallow waters, and many kinds of organisms flourish—from microscopic shrimp to giant seaweed called kelp. Ocean currents and runoff from rivers bring nutrients to organisms that live on continental shelves. Plants and algae make continental shelves rich feeding grounds for sea creatures. The shelves make up less than 10 percent of the total area of the oceans. In some places, deep canyons and channels cut through the continental shelves. Little light penetrates these submarine canyons, and they are sometimes the least-explored areas of continents. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-skirts-maritime-border-dispute-with-pakistan-by-fresh-continental-shelf-claim/article69493962.ece

Answer 252

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, NICDC was honoured with the Udyog Vikas Award at the Udyog Vikas event organised by Janmabhumi Daily in Kerala. About National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) NICDP is India's most ambitious infrastructure initiative aimed at developing new industrial cities as "Smart Cities", integrating next-generation technologies across infrastructure sectors. National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) is the nodal agency managing the programme. NICDP is designed to attract investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), acting as a catalyst for achieving the Government’s goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030. Newly sanctioned industrial areas under NICDP include: Khurpia (Uttarakhand), Rajpura-Patiala (Punjab), Dighi (Maharashtra), Palakkad (Kerala), Agra and Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh), Gaya (Bihar), Zaheerabad (Telangana), Orvakal and Kopparthy (Andhra Pradesh), and Jodhpur-Pali (Rajasthan). These projects are closely aligned with the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, ensuring integrated, seamless multi-modal connectivity across the country. Palakkad Industrial Smart City (Kerala) The Palakkad Industrial Smart City, spanning 1,710 acres across Pudussery Central, Pudussery West, and Kannambra, is set to reshape Kerala’s industrial landscape. Strategic location advantages: 21 km from Palakkad city 120 km from Cochin 50 km from Coimbatore Offering seamless interstate connectivity and strong logistical benefits. Designed to be South India's key industrial gateway, it ensures multi-modal connectivity via road, rail, and air, making it attractive for high-quality investments, regional employment generation, and innovation. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124461

Answer 253

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) Explanation : The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) had initiated a proposal call for 'Translational Research using GenomeIndia data' without disclosing crucial information about the available phenotype data, causing concerns among researchers across India. Background The project successfully collected blood samples and associated phenotype data from over 20,000 individuals belonging to 83 population groups, comprising 30 tribal and 53 non-tribal populations spread across India. Preliminary findings based on the genetic data of 9,772 individuals were published in the journal Nature Genetics on April 8, 2025. Types of Phenotype Data Collected The collected phenotype data included anthropometric measurements such as height, weight, hip circumference, waist circumference, and blood pressure. From the blood samples, complete blood counts and biochemical data such as glucose levels, lipid profiles, liver function, and kidney function tests were measured. About 'Phenome India' Project Phenome India-CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK) is an initiative launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) on December 7, 2023. The main objective of the project is to develop India-specific risk prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases including diabetes, liver diseases, and cardiac diseases. It is India’s first-ever pan-India longitudinal health monitoring study focused specifically on cardio-metabolic health. Participants include around 10,000 individuals—primarily CSIR employees, pensioners, and their spouses—from across 17 states and 24 cities. Collected data includes clinical questionnaires, lifestyle and dietary habits, anthropometric measurements, imaging and scanning data, and extensive biochemical and molecular data. This study is crucial for understanding how ethnic diversity and lifestyle patterns unique to India influence the risk and incidence of cardio-metabolic disorders. Through this project, CSIR is promoting a Predictive, Personalised, Participatory, and Preventive (P4) healthcare model suited to Indian genetic and phenotypic profiles. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: No phenotype data details in GenomeIndia’s proposal call - The Hindu.

Answer 254

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : For the first time, the Indian Army's Department of Ophthalmology at Army Hospital (Research and Referral), New Delhi, has successfully performed Minimally Invasive Glaucoma Surgery (MIGS) using a 3D Microscope. What is a Microscope? A microscope is an instrument that magnifies small objects, making them visible to the naked eye by bending (refracting) light rays through curved lenses. The most commonly used microscopes are optical microscopes, where visible light is focused through lenses to create an enlarged image. What is a 3D Microscope? A 3D microscope produces images with depth information (X, Y, and Z axes), allowing researchers to visualize and measure the topography, volume, and internal structures of samples. Unlike traditional light microscopes, which provide flat, 2D images, 3D microscopes use advanced optical, electron, or computational techniques to capture and reconstruct three-dimensional data. This is particularly useful for studying complex biological or environmental samples, such as soil microbes, aquatic organisms, or microplastics. Features of the 3D Microscope The 3D Microscope uses advanced three-dimensional visualisation, assisting in complex eye surgeries such as treatment for squint, cataract, corneal diseases, glaucoma, and retinal conditions. It employs special 3D polarisation glasses for surgeons and a 55-inch 4K ultra-HD display. Key advantages include: Reduced surgical time and lower complication rates compared to conventional microscopes. Decreased endoilluminator power requirements, thereby reducing photo-toxicity risks. Ease of performing surgeries in complex and rare cases. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124598

Answer 255

All five Explanation : Recently, a massive explosion occurred at Shahid Rajaee Port near the southern Iranian city of Bandar Abbas, resulting in 18 deaths and 800 injuries. About Iran, with its capital at Tehran, is a prominent country located in West Asia. Iran shares land boundaries with Armenia, Azerbaijan, and Turkmenistan to the north, Afghanistan and Pakistan to the east, Iraq to the west, and Turkey to the northwest. Iran has maritime borders with Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, and Saudi Arabia. It is bordered by major water bodies, namely the Caspian Sea to the north, and the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman to the south. Geographical Features of Iran Iran's terrain is predominantly marked by the Iranian Plateau, characterised by vast deserts like the Dasht-e Kavir and Dasht-e Lut. The country is home to important mountain ranges such as the Zagros Mountains in the west and the Alborz Mountains in the north. Mount Damavand, located in the Alborz Mountain Range, is the highest peak in Iran and also the highest volcano in the Middle East. Iran's climate varies from arid and semi-arid conditions to subtropical regions, especially along the Caspian coast. Major rivers in Iran include the Karun, Dez, Karkheh, and Diyala rivers, essential for irrigation and agriculture. Iran's natural resources are abundant and include oil and natural gas, along with coal, chromium, copper, iron ore, lead, manganese, zinc, and sulphur. Strategic Importance of Shahid Rajaee Port Location: The port is located near the Strait of Hormuz, through which nearly 20% of global oil trade passes, making it a critical chokepoint in global energy security. Economic role: It is Iran’s largest and most technologically advanced container port, handling a significant share of the country’s import-export trade. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/iran-bandar-abbas-port-explosion-injured/article69493987.ece

Answer 256

Jharkhand Explanation : The Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary, located in Latehar district of Jharkhand, holds the distinction of being India’s first and only wolf sanctuary. About Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary, located in the Latehar district of Jharkhand, is India’s first and only wolf sanctuary, dedicated to the conservation of the Indian grey wolf (Canis lupus pallipes). The sanctuary, spread over approximately 63 square kilometers, was declared in 1976 specifically for the protection of the Indian wolf population. Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary is an integral part of the Palamau Tiger Reserve. The wildlife of the sanctuary includes species such as spotted deer, wild boar, hyena, bear, and notably, the Indian wolf. About the Indian Grey Wolf The Indian grey wolf is a subspecies of the grey wolf found across Southwest Asia and the Indian subcontinent. It inhabits scrublands, grasslands, and semi-arid agroecosystems and thrives in warmer temperatures. Unlike other wolf subspecies, it lives in smaller packs and is less vocal, being primarily nocturnal and hunting from dusk to dawn. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered (Indian population estimated between 2,000–3,000 individuals). CITES: Listed in Appendix I, indicating the highest level of international protection. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Included under Schedule I, granting maximum legal protection in India. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Mahuadanr, India’s first wolf sanctuary in Jharkhand, offers hope for an often-vilified Indian carnivore

Answer 257

Only two Explanation : The government recently authorised Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to share and receive information from the Enforcement Directorate under the anti-money laundering law, a move aimed at detecting money trails and combating cyber frauds. About Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C): I4C has been established under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to act as a nodal point at the National level in the fight against cybercrime. It is designed to provide a framework and ecosystem for law enforcement agencies (LEAs) to deal with cybercrime in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. I4C brings together academia, industry, public, and government in the prevention, detection, investigation, and prosecution of cybercrimes. Headquarters: New Delhi Objectives: To act as a nodal point to curb Cybercrime in the country. To strengthen the fight against Cybercrime committed against women and children. Facilitate easy filing of cybercrime related complaints and identifying cybercrime trends and patterns. To act as an early warning system for LEAs for proactive cybercrime prevention and detection. Awareness creation among the public about preventing cybercrime. Assist States/UTs in capacity building of Police Officers, Public Prosecutors and Judicial Officers in the area of cyber forensic, investigation, cyber hygiene, cyber-criminology, etc. Identify the research problems and needs of LEAs and take up R&D activities in developing new technologies and forensic tools in collaboration with academia/research institutes within India and abroad. Suggest amendments, if required, in cyber laws to keep pace with fast-changing technologies and international cooperation. To coordinate all activities related to the implementation of Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLAT) with other countries related to cybercrimes in consultation with the concerned nodal authority in MHA. Components of I4C: National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit (TAU): For reporting threats pertaining to cybercrimes at regular intervals. National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP): To report various cybercrime complaints by citizens at all India levels on a common platform on a 24x7 basis from “anywhere, anytime”. National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC): To impart training to government officials, especially state law enforcement agencies. National Cybercrime Research and Innovation Centre: To carry out research for the development of indigenous tools for the prevention of cybercrimes. Platform for Joint Cyber Crime Coordination Team: For coordination, sharing of modus operandi of cybercrimes, data/information among states/UTs LEAs. Cybercrime Ecosystem Management Unit: For creating mass awareness in cyber hygiene for prevention of cybercrimes. National Cybercrime Forensic Laboratory (Investigation) Ecosystem: For helping LEAs in cyber forensics investigation. Other Initiatives: Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System: For immediate reporting of financial cyber frauds and preventing the siphoning of funds by cyber criminals on a near-real-time basis. National Toll-Free Helpline number ‘1930’ has been operationalized to provide citizen assistance in lodging online cyber complaints. The social media handle “CyberDost”, which provides cyber safety tips at regular intervals. I4C has envisaged the Cyber Crime Volunteers Program to bring together citizens with a passion to serve the nation on a single platform and contribute to the fight against cybercrime in the country. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-brings-cybercrime-centre-i4c-under-pmla/article69498751.ece

Answer 258

United States and Philippines Explanation : As many as 17,000 personnel are participating in the annual “Balikatan” exercises, which this year will simulate a “full-scale battle scenario” as the treaty allies seek to deter China’s ambitions in the waterway. About Balikatan Exercise: It is the largest bilateral exercise conducted between the Armed Forces of the Philippines and the United States. “Balikatan,” a Tagalog phrase that means “shoulder-to-shoulder,”  characterizes the spirit of the exercise and represents the alliance between the Philippines and the United States. Held annually, Exercise Balikatan is designed to enhance military interoperability and readiness in support of the Mutual Defense Treaty between the United States and the Philippines. The 2025 edition is the 40th iteration of the exercise. Distinguishing itself from past iterations, Balikatan 25 will feature a Full Battle Test that incorporates real-world forces and events into a virtual and constructive exercise scenario. The exercise will span all domains—air, land, sea, space, and cyber—testing the interoperability between U.S. and Philippine forces to simulate the defense of Philippine sovereignty. The exercise will consist of four primary components: a Combined Joint Logistics Over-the-Shore (CJLOTS) operation, humanitarian civic assistance (HCA) activities, a command-and-control exercise (C2X), and a Multilateral Maritime Exercise (MME). Each component will encompass several training events and engagement throughout the Philippines. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/129714/OPS/G97EA8U18.1+G9TEAAHT0.1.html

Answer 259

All three Explanation : A team of researchers recently reported developing an RNA-based antiviral agent that confers strong protection against cucumber mosaic virus (CMV), a widespread and destructive plant virus. About Cucumber Mosaic Virus (CMV): It is one of the most common plant viruses. CMV was first identified in 1916 as the causal agent of cucumber and muskmelon disease in the United States. CMV infects more than 1,200 plant species, including critical food crops like cucumbers, squash, and cereals and medicinal plants. It spreads through small sap-sucking insects called aphids. With nearly 90 aphid species capable of transmitting CMV, outbreaks are often difficult to contain. In India, CMV is responsible for 25-30% yield losses in banana plantations. In pumpkins, cucumbers, and melons, infection rates can soar up to 70%. Symptoms: Affected plants develop a mosaic discolouration, stunted growth and commercially unviable fruits. Management: Cultural practices and the heavy use of agrochemicals are the most common control measures for CMV. There is no known cure for cucumber mosaic. Infected plants should be removed and destroyed to eliminate the plants as potential reservoirs for the virus (which can subsequently be spread to other nearby healthy plants). Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/rna-based-antiviral-offers-strong-defence-against-cucumber-mosaic-virus/article69497221.ece

Answer 260

1 only Explanation : The Indian Navy has successfully test-fired a Medium range surface-to-air missile (MR-SAM) air defence missile system aboard the INS Surat warship in the Arabian Sea recently. About Medium Range-Surface to Air Missile (MR-SAM): It is a high-response, quick-reaction, vertically launched supersonic missile designed to neutralize enemy aerial threats – missiles, aircraft, guided bombs, helicopters, etc. It is developed jointly by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Israel Aerospace Industries and is produced at Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). Features: Each MRSAM weapon system comprises one command and control system, one tracking radar, missiles, and mobile launcher systems. The mobile launcher is used to transport, emplace, and launch up to eight canisterised missiles in two stacks. It can fire the missiles in single or ripple firing modes from the vertical firing position. The weapon is 4.5 m-long, weighs approximately 276kg, and is equipped with canards and fins for control and manoeuvrability. It is equipped with an advanced active radar radio frequency (RF) seeker, advanced rotating phased array radar, and a bidirectional data link. It is powered by a dual-pulse solid propulsion system developed by DRDO. The propulsion system, coupled with a thrust vector control system, allows the missile to move at a maximum speed of Mach 2. The weapon has the ability to engage multiple targets simultaneously at ranges of 70 km. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/indian-navy-test-fires-medium-range-surface-to-air-missile-in-arabian-sea-watch-101745491301720.html

Answer 261

1 only Explanation : The Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) of Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR) is likely to expand by approximately 4,500 hectares following a rationalisation exercise mandated by the Supreme Court of India's Central Empowered Committee (CEC). About Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH): Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH), also known as core areas of tiger reserves, are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. These are based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers". The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose. Inviolate Status: These areas are kept inviolate (free from human activities) for the purpose of tiger conservation. The forests peripheral to CTH are notified as buffer areas, which act as a transition between CTH and non-tiger reserves. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/sariska-tiger-reserves-critical-habitat-to-grow-by-4-5k-hectares/articleshow/120676893.cms

Answer 262

1 only Explanation : U.S. President Donald Trump has not only disrupted international trade rules but has also sought to challenge the independence of the U.S. Central Bank (Federal Reserve). About Bonds and Inflation Impact A bond is a financial instrument that promises a fixed return (face value) at the end of a specific period, unlike equity, which has no fixed term or guaranteed returns. Bonds are generally safer investments used to hedge against risks or act as a store of value. Bond yields are inversely proportional to their market price: when prices fall, yields rise. Inflation erodes the real returns from bonds. If inflation exceeds bond yield, investors lose purchasing power. When inflation expectations rise, the Central Bank typically raises interest rates, causing bond prices to fall and yields to rise, impacting investment decisions across the economy. Currency depreciation also impacts foreign bondholders negatively, reducing their real returns when converting back to their home currency. About the Indian Bond Market The Indian Bond Market is a vital segment of the financial system where government entities, corporations, and financial institutions raise funds by issuing bonds. Investors provide loans to the issuers and, in return, receive periodic interest payments and principal repayment upon maturity. Structure of the Indian Bond Market Primary Bond Market: In the Primary Market, new bonds are issued by the government, corporations, or financial institutions to raise capital. Government Securities (G-Secs): Bonds issued by Central and State Governments, including Treasury Bills (short-term) and Government Bonds (long-term). Corporate Bonds: Bonds issued by private or public companies, credit-rated based on their creditworthiness. Municipal Bonds: Issued by local governing bodies for funding public infrastructure projects. Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Bonds: Bonds issued by government-owned corporations. Green Bonds: Dedicated bonds for financing environmentally sustainable projects. Masala Bonds: Rupee-denominated bonds issued in foreign markets. Secondary Bond Market: In the Secondary Market, previously issued bonds are traded among investors. Examples include instruments like Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Commercial Papers (CPs), and Certificates of Deposit (CDs). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: The Trump turmoil in bond markets - The Hindu

Answer 263

International Hyena Day Explanation : International Hyena Day 2025 (27th April): The four extant species of hyena or hyaenids found on the African continent are facing increasing threats, leading to population declines, according to conservation organisation, Wild Africa. About Hyenas Hyenas are dog-like carnivores belonging to the family Hyaenidae, native to Asia and Africa, noted for their scavenging habits. There are four extant hyena species: Spotted Hyena (Crocuta crocuta) Striped Hyena (Hyaena hyaena) Brown Hyena (Parahyaena brunnea) Aardwolf (Proteles cristatus) Habitat: Forest edges, grasslands, savannas, sub-deserts, and mountains up to 13,000 feet elevation. Distribution: Across Africa, parts of the Middle East, and Asia. Physical Features Hyenas are four-legged animals with scraggly fur and large ears. They have long forelegs, a powerful neck, and strong shoulders, allowing them to dismember and carry prey. Excellent sight, hearing, and sense of smell make them proficient scavengers and hunters. Hyenas are predominantly nocturnal, being most active during the night. Their lifespan averages 12 years, although they can live up to 25 years; Brown hyenas typically have a shorter lifespan. Conservation Status (IUCN) Spotted Hyena: Least Concern but declining, with fewer than 50,000 individuals remaining. Striped Hyena: Near Threatened, with less than 10,000 mature individuals. Brown Hyena: Near Threatened, with just over 10,000 in the wild. Aardwolf: Least Concern, though exact numbers are unknown due to their elusive nature. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: International Hyena Day 2025: Africa’s 4 hyaenids are facing increasing threats, leading to population declines

Answer 264

Pakistan Explanation : Recently, Pakistan's Government decided to halt its ambitious canals project after widespread protests in Sindh. Why in the News? The Green Pakistan Initiative (GPI), launched in 2023, aims to modernise Pakistan’s agriculture sector by providing irrigation infrastructure, introducing advanced technologies, and improving agricultural productivity. The Cholistan Canal, a major component of this initiative, was supposed to irrigate about 1.2 million acres of land in southern Punjab, particularly in the Cholistan Desert, a water-scarce region. Cholistan Desert It is also known locally as Rohi, and is located in the southern part of Pakistani Punjab. It forms part of the Greater Thar Desert, which extends into Sindh province of Pakistan and the Indian state of Rajasthan. The name "Cholistan" comes from the Turkic word "chol" meaning "sands" and the Persian suffix "istan" meaning "land". Historically, Cholistan was a centre for caravan trade, leading to the construction of numerous forts during the medieval period. The Derawar Fort is the best-preserved example of these medieval structures. Cholistan covers an area of 25,800 km² (10,000 sq mi) across the Bahawalpur, Bahawalnagar, and Rahim Yar Khan districts. About 81% of the region is sandy, while 19% comprises alluvial flats and small sandy dunes. Climate The Cholistan Desert has an arid and semi-arid tropical desert climate with very low annual humidity. Water resources include natural pools called Toba and manmade pools called Kund. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Why Pakistan has put its ambitious canals project on hold | Explained News - The Indian Express

Answer 265

A natural defense system in plants against viral attacks Explanation : Plant pests and diseases destroy nearly 40% of the world’s annual crop production, according to the U.N. Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Plant viruses alone cause over $30 billion in annual losses globally. Introduction Every year, farmers across India and the world face a relentless and invisible enemy: plant viruses. In India, the Cucumber Mosaic Virus (CMV) alone causes 25–30% yield losses in banana plantations and infects up to 70% of pumpkin, cucumber, and melon crops. Affected plants often exhibit mosaic discoloration, stunted growth, and produce fruits that are commercially unviable, leading to significant economic hardships for farmers. In the absence of effective traditional treatments, scientists have turned to RNA-based technologies to bolster plant defenses. This innovative approach mimics the way the human immune system combats viruses. RNA-based solutions work by silencing specific genes in viruses or by enhancing the plant's natural immune responses, offering a promising method of protecting crops without heavy reliance on chemical pesticides. What is RNA-Based Defence Mechanism RNA Silencing: A natural defence system in plants against viral attacks. Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) from the virus triggers the plant’s immune response. Dicer-like enzymes (DCLs) slice the dsRNA into small interfering RNAs (siRNAs). siRNAs then guide the system to destroy viral RNA, stopping virus replication. Types of RNA-Based Techniques Host-Induced Gene Silencing (HIGS): Plants are genetically modified to produce virus-targeting dsRNA internally for continuous protection. However, high costs, regulatory hurdles, and risk of viral resistance limit its use. Spray-Induced Gene Silencing (SIGS): RNA sprays are applied to plant leaves, activating natural immunity without altering plant DNA. Cost-effective and environmentally friendly, but traditional dsRNA often generates a random mix of siRNAs, reducing efficiency. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: RNA-based antiviral offers strong defence against deadly agri virus - The Hindu

Answer 266

Hawaii Explanation : A new carnivorous caterpillar has been discovered on the Hawaiian island of Oahu, earning the nickname "bone collector" because of its unusual behavior. About Bone Collector’ Caterpillar The "Bone Collector" is a newly discovered carnivorous caterpillar found exclusively on the Hawaiian island of Oahu. It constructs a protective case using body parts of its prey, such as ant heads and fly wings, along with silk. Habitat: The bone collector is found in a small, isolated patch of mountain forest on Oahu, which is also threatened by invasive species. The caterpillar's evolutionary lineage is estimated to be at least six million years old, older than the formation of the Hawaiian islands themselves. This caterpillar feeds on insects caught in spider webs and adorns its silk case using the body parts of its prey, such as ant heads and fly wings. About Hawaii Hawaii is a U.S. state located in the Pacific Ocean and is made up of an archipelago formed by volcanic activity. It comprises eight main islands: Hawaii (Big Island), Maui, Oahu, Kauai, Molokai, Lanai, Niihau, and Kahoolawe. The capital city is Honolulu, situated on Oahu. The islands feature diverse landscapes, including active volcanoes, rainforests, beaches, and dramatic cliffs. The Hawaiian Islands originated from a hotspot in the Earth's mantle, which continues to create volcanic formations across the Pacific. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Bone collector: a macabre caterpillar - The Hindu

Answer 267

Only one Explanation : According to the 2024 edition of the “Trends in World Military Expenditure” report by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India’s military spending was nearly nine times higher than Pakistan’s last year. About Trends in World Military Expenditure Report: It is an annual report published by the leading Swedish think tank, the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI). It provides a comprehensive analysis of military spending across the globe. Highlights of 2024 Report: The global defence expenditures reached $2.46 trillion in 2024, an increase from $2.24 trillion in the previous year, bringing the average defence spending to 1.9% of global GDP, up from 1.6% in 2022 and 1.8% in 2023. Military spending increased in all world regions, with particularly rapid growth in both Europe and the Middle East, courtesy of the ongoing Ukraine-Russia war and Israel-Hamas conflict. Military spending in Europe (including Russia) rose by 17 percent to $693 billion and was the main contributor to the global increase in 2024. Military spending by the USA rose by 5.7 percent to reach $997 billion, which was 66 percent of total NATO spending and 37 percent of world military spending in 2024. Military expenditure in the Middle East reached an estimated $243 billion in 2024, an increase of 15 percent from 2023, with Israel and Lebanon emerging as the biggest spenders in the region. 60 percent of the world’s military spending came from only five countries – the USA (37 percent), China (12 percent), Russia (5.5 percent), Germany (3.3 percent) and India (3.2percent). India, the fifth biggest military spender in the world in 2024, increased its spending to $86.1 billion, up by 1.6 percent from 2023 and by 42 percent from 2015. India's military spending in 2024 was nearly nine times that of Pakistan's expenditure. China's military spending rose by 7.0 percent to an estimated USD 314 billion, marking three decades of uninterrupted growth. China alone accounted for half of the defence spending across Asia and Oceania. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/as-tensions-escalate-indias-military-spend-outpaces-pakistans-by-nearly-9-times/

Answer 268

United States Explanation : In the heart of the US state of Michigan, known for building cars, there’s a peaceful little island called Mackinac Island, where motor vehicles are not allowed and horses are everywhere. About Mackinac Island: It is an island and city located in northern Michigan, United States. It sits in the extreme northeast part of Lake Huron, just as it prepares to join the waters of Lake Michigan - two of North America's Great Lakes. It has an area of approximately 4.35 square miles. The island is bordered by limestone cliffs and rises in the east to 339 feet (103 metres) above the surrounding waters. History: The French arrived in the territory encompassing the island, which had long been the home of the Anishinaabek People, back in the 1600s. By the 1700s, the British had taken over, and Americans claimed it shortly thereafter. The Mackinac Island State Park covers the vast majority of the island and provides hiking trails, wooded canopies, and the famous Arch Rock limestone formation. It retains an 18th- and 19th-century atmosphere; automobiles are banned, and horses and buggies and bicycles are used for transport. The restored Fort Mackinac, Beaumont Memorial (dedicated to U.S. Army surgeon William Beaumont, who, while serving at the fort, made discoveries regarding human digestion), and the Stuart House (1817; the residence of the island’s American Fur Company agent) are preserved as historical museums. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/mackinac-island-michigan-us-horses-cars-9968759/

Answer 269

2 only Explanation : Scientists from China, the UK, and the U.S. have collaborated to analyze the inner workings of Bolivia's "zombie" volcano, Uturuncu, and identified the causes of Uturuncu's unrest, alleviating fears of an imminent eruption. About Uturuncu Volcano: It is located in southwestern Bolivia, within the Andes Mountains. It is a stratovolcano dominated by dacitic lava domes and flows. Elevation: About 6,008 meters (19,711 feet) above sea level — it is the tallest mountain in the southern part of Bolivia. Uturuncu last erupted 250,000 years ago, yet is seismically active and lies at the centre of a 70 km diameter uplifted region. Uturuncu sits above an enormous and extremely deep underground reservoir of magma named the Altiplano-Puna Magma Body (APMB), which stretches beneath southern Bolivia, northern Chile, and northern Argentina. Uturuncu is known as a "zombie" volcano because of its ongoing but non-eruptive activity. The "zombie"-like unrest of Uturuncu is due to the movement of liquid and gas beneath the crater, with a low likelihood of an imminent eruption. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.msn.com/en-us/news/world/anatomy-of-a-zombie-volcano-investigating-the-cause-of-unrest-inside-uturuncu/ar-AA1DMUgG

Answer 270

Odisha Explanation : A poacher was arrested while his uncle managed to flee following an exchange of fire with forest guards at Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary in Balasore district recently. About Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the Balasore District of Odisha within the Eastern Ghats. It is spread across 272 sq.km. in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region. It is part of the larger Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve, making it a crucial habitat for the conservation of elephants in the region. It is connected with Simlipal Tiger Reserve via Nato and Sukhupada Hill ranges. It features a network of streams, including the Kuldiha stream and its tributaries. Vegetation: Kuldiha sanctuary area, adjoining Nilgiri forest in the North and Mayurbhanj Forest in the West, is a typical representative of a mixture of peninsular (coastal) Sal forest and moist mixed deciduous forest. Flora: The sanctuary boasts a rich diversity of flora, including dense forests of sal (Shorea robusta), jamun (Syzygium cumini), piyasal (Pterocarpus marsupium), bahera (Terminalia bellirica), mango (Mangifera indica), and simul (Bombax ceiba). Fauna: It is home to a number of endangered and threatened wild animal species like Asiatic Elephant, Leopard, Gaur, Mouse deer, Pangolin, Ratel, Giant squirrel, etc. Besides that, some endangered bird species like Hill myna, Woodpecker, Hornbill and Eagles are also found in the Sanctuary. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/man-held-his-uncle-flees-during-poaching-bid/articleshow/120705490.cms

Answer 271

2 only Explanation : Gavi, the international vaccine alliance, is trying to convince President Donald Trump’s administration to maintain vital funding for the body by arguing that a donation would boost the US vaccine industry. About GAVI, the Vaccine Alliance: It is an independent public-private partnership that was created in 2000 to improve access to new and underused vaccines for children living in the world’s poorest countries. Based in Geneva, Switzerland, Gavi brings together public and private sectors with the shared goal of creating equal access to vaccines for children, wherever they live. It brings together developing country and donor governments, the World Health Organization, UNICEF, the World Bank, the vaccine industry, research and technical agencies, civil society organizations, and private philanthropists. Gavi’s main activities include supporting low- and middle-income countries’ access to new and underused vaccines for vulnerable children through financial support, technical expertise, and market-shaping efforts, such as negotiating with manufacturers, to help lower the cost of procuring vaccines. By bringing the key stakeholders in global immunisation together around one mission, Gavi combines the technical expertise of the development community with the business know-how of the private sector. Since its beginnings, Gavi has vaccinated more than 1.1 billion children and saved an estimated 18.8 million lives (2023 figures). Gavi was one of the organizations leading COVAX, a multilateral effort that supported the equitable development, procurement, and delivery of COVID-19 vaccines globally that began in 2020 and ended in 2023. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.ft.com/content/9c52723a-0da5-459c-9be6-0039b2316058

Answer 272

1 only Explanation : The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has taken suo moto cognizance against five Delhi restaurants for non-refund of mandatory service charges despite the Delhi High Court's judgment. Significance of Action The move is aimed at protecting consumer rights and preventing undue pressure on consumers to pay additional charges during service availing. As per law, no hotel or restaurant can force consumers to pay a service charge, nor can a service charge be collected under any alternative name. About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) The CCPA was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which replaced the 1986 Act, was notified on August 9, 2019, and came into force on July 20, 2020. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Functions and Powers of CCPA The CCPA protects, promotes, and enforces the rights of consumers as a class under the Act. It prevents unfair trade practices and curbs false or misleading advertisements. The CCPA ensures that no one publishes or disseminates false or misleading advertisements. The CCPA can initiate class-action suits, including recalls, refunds, and cancellation of licenses, when necessary. The CCPA can conduct inquiries and investigations through its Investigation Wing, headed by a Director-General. It can order the discontinuation of unfair practices, impose penalties on errant businesses, and enforce consumer welfare measures. Composition of CCPA: A Chief Commissioner heads the CCPA and has two other commissioners: One commissioner deals with goods-related issues. The other commissioner handles service-related complaints. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2125045

Answer 273

1 only Explanation : IEPFA’s recent MoU with Kotak Mahindra Bank and the launch of the 'Niveshak Shivir' initiative, to boost digital investor awareness and financial literacy across India. About Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was established in 2016 under the Companies Act, 2013. It manages the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) and promotes investor awareness and financial protection. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs The IEPF consists of amounts that remained unclaimed for 7 years, including: Unpaid dividends, Application money is due for refund, Matured deposits and debentures, Interest on investments from the fund, Grants or donations received from the government or other entities. IEPFA’s ‘Niveshak Shivir’ Initiative ‘Niveshak Shivir’ is a joint initiative of IEPFA and SEBI launched to simplify the process of reclaiming unclaimed dividends and shares. The camps will feature one-stop kiosks set up by companies and RTAs in cities with large numbers of unclaimed dividend holders, starting with Mumbai and Ahmedabad in May 2025. Investors can update KYC and nominations, verify claim status, and get real-time grievance redressal at these camps. The initiative aims to reduce investor dependence on intermediaries, thereby minimising fraud and misinformation risks. A QR-code-based Google Form will be used for pre-registration, supported by the regional offices of ICAI and SEBI. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124989 https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124987

Answer 274

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : National Supercomputing Mission: Powering India's Future with Indigenous High-Performance Computing. About National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) is a flagship initiative launched in 2015 by the Government of India to strengthen the nation’s High-Performance Computing (HPC) capabilities. It aims to enhance India’s computational capacity in sectors like science, technology, academia, research, and industry, making the country self-reliant in supercomputing technologies. The mission is jointly steered by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), and is implemented by C-DAC, Pune and IISc, Bengaluru. The key goal is to position India globally among top nations in supercomputing by enabling research, reducing technological import dependence, and creating a robust indigenous HPC ecosystem. Key Achievements 34 supercomputers have been deployed with a total computational capacity of 35 Petaflops across top institutes like IITs, IISc, and C-DAC, including institutions in Tier II and Tier III cities. Supercomputers have recorded 85–95% utilisation, supporting over 10,000 researchers and 1,700+ PhD scholars from 200+ institutions. More than 1 crore computing jobs have been completed and over 1,500 research papers published, reflecting substantial research productivity. NSM has trained over 22,000 individuals in HPC and AI skills through five dedicated centres in Pune, Kharagpur, Chennai, Palakkad, and Goa. Indigenisation Milestones "Rudra" HPC servers, developed indigenously, are the first HPC-class servers built in India, matching global standards. Supercomputers like PARAM Rudra (Pune, Delhi, Kolkata) have been dedicated for advanced research in physics, cosmology, and earth sciences. The Trinetra high-speed network (developed under NSM) boosts data transfer rates up to 200 Gbps and is being rolled out in phases – PoC, Trinetra-A (100 Gbps), and Trinetra-B (200 Gbps). AI Supercomputing: AIRAWAT The AIRAWAT project is India’s AI-focused supercomputing initiative under NSM, offering a common AI computing platform for start-ups, researchers, and innovation hubs. The Proof of Concept (PoC) system of AIRAWAT features 200 petaflops of AI processing power, scalable to 790 AI petaflops. AIRAWAT secured 75th rank in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List (ISC 2023, Germany), placing India among the top AI supercomputing nations. Institutional Milestones PARAM Shivay (2019) at IIT-BHU was the first indigenous supercomputer under NSM. PARAM Pravega (2022) at IISc Bengaluru is among the largest academic supercomputers in India, with 3.3 petaflops processing power. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124920

Answer 275

1, 2, 3 and 4 only Explanation : The 6th Joint Group of Customs (JGC) Meeting between India and Bhutan was held recently in Thimphu, Bhutan. Key Facts about Bhutan Bhutan is a landlocked Himalayan country, bordered by India to the south, east, and west, and China (Tibet Autonomous Region) to the north. Indian states bordering Bhutan: Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Thimphu is the capital and largest city of Bhutan. Phuntsholing is Bhutan’s key financial and trade hub, located along the India-Bhutan border. Political System: Bhutan is a parliamentary monarchy. It transitioned to democracy in 2008 with the first democratic elections. The King of Bhutan remains the Head of State. Official name: Kingdom of Bhutan. Local name: Druk Gyal Khap, meaning "Land of the Thunder Dragon". Longest River: The Manas River (376 km), a transboundary river flowing through southern Bhutan into India, forms an important ecological and trade corridor. Significance of India–Bhutan Customs Cooperation India is Bhutan’s largest trading partner, accounting for about 80% of Bhutan’s total trade, making border customs cooperation vital for both countries. Bhutan, being a landlocked country, relies heavily on Land Customs Stations (LCSs) for trade. There are 10 India-Bhutan LCSs—6 in West Bengal and 4 in Assam. The JGC is an annual bilateral mechanism aimed at strengthening Customs cooperation, facilitating cross-border trade, and reforming customs procedures in line with global best practices. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124887

Answer 276

All three Explanation : Recently, the President of India conferred 4 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan, and 57 Padma Shri Awards at the Civil Investiture Ceremony-I at Rashtrapati Bhawan’s Ganatantra Mandap. Padma Awards Historical Background The Padma Awards were established in 1954 alongside the Bharat Ratna. Initially, Padma Awards had three classes: Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg, and Tisra Varg. These were renamed in 1955 via Presidential Notification as: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri Padma Awards Categories Padma Vibhushan: Awarded for exceptional and distinguished service. Padma Bhushan: Conferred for distinguished service of a high order. Padma Shri: Recognises distinguished service in any field. Eligibility Criteria All persons, regardless of race, occupation, position or gender, are eligible for the award. Government servants, including employees of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are not eligible, except doctors and scientists. Awards are normally not conferred posthumously, but in highly deserving cases, exceptions are allowed. A minimum 5-year gap is required for conferring a higher category Padma award upon a previously awarded individual. However, this can be relaxed by the Awards Committee in exceptional cases. Nominations are open to the public, and self-nomination is also allowed. Selection Process All nominations are evaluated by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted annually by the Prime Minister. The Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Its recommendations are submitted to the Prime Minister and President for final approval. The awards are presented by the President, usually in March or April. Awardees receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. Other Key Features The total number of Padma awards per year is capped at 120, excluding: Posthumous awards Awards to NRIs, foreign nationals, and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) The award does not constitute a title and cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the awardee’s name. Disciplines covered: Awards span across art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine, literature and education, sports, civil service, among others. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124956

Answer 277

2 only Explanation : A recent study found that a daily exposure to phthalates is linked to 3.5 lakh, or 13 percent, of deaths in the world due to heart disease in 2018 among people aged between 55 and 65 years of age. About Phthalates: Phthalates are a family of chemical compounds primarily used in plastic products (most commonly in the specific type of plastic named polyvinyl chloride, also known as PVC or vinyl). Phthalates are the most commonly used plasticisers in the world and are categorised as high and low phthalates depending on the molecular weight. Applications: Phthalates may be blended as an additive into special plastics in order to increase the performance of the material. Phthalates are used to soften plastics, making them more flexible or more durable. Phthalates are sometimes used to decrease the melting temperature of plastics to aid the moulding process. Phthalates are used in hundreds of products, including vinyl flooring, adhesives, detergents, lubricating oils, automotive plastics, plastic clothes (raincoats), and personal-care products (soaps, shampoos, hairsprays, and nail polishes). Phthalates are used widely in polyvinyl chloride plastics, which are used to make products such as plastic packaging film and sheets, garden hoses, inflatable toys, blood storage containers, medical tubing, and some children’s toys. There has also been a wide application in screen print, heat transfer inks, and plastisol inks. Since phthalates are not chemically bound to the polymer molecule, they can be released from products or dissolve when in contact with liquids or fats. As a result, phthalates may migrate out of a material, resulting in exposure to humans and the environment. Health Impacts: Some phthalates are endocrine disruptors, a class of potent chemicals that interfere with our hormone systems. Some of the health harms associated with phthalates are changes to fertility, early puberty and risk of low birth weight, obesity, diabetes, impacts to the immune system, cardiovascular and respiratory problems, some cancers, and neurological and behavioral problems. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/health/phthalates-in-plastics-linked-to-13-per-cent-of-heart-disease-deaths-in-2018-globally-finds-study-2025-04-29-987935

Answer 278

1 only Explanation : India has yet again been placed on the ‘priority watch’ list of the US Trade Representative (USTR) office’s Special 301 Report on intellectual property rights. About Special 301 Report: It is an annual report by the United States Trade Representative (USTR) under the Trade Act of 1974. It identifies countries that are considered by the US as not providing adequate and effective protection of intellectual property rights (IPRs) or fair and equitable market access to IP rights holders from the US. The report has been issued every year since 1989. It designates countries as “priority foreign country”, “priority watch country”, and “watch list country”. Designation as a priority foreign country initiates an investigation and possible application of sanctions on the foreign country, while designation on a Priority Watchlist suggests serious IPR deficiencies that require greater US attention. Other countries that are considered to have serious IPR deficiencies but are not designated for greater US attention are placed on a Watchlist. The report includes both developed and developing countries. The targeting of countries in the Section 301 Report is arbitrary. The report lacks empirical evidence and objective analysis and is biased to the concerns raised by segments of the industry of the US with regard to the protection and enforcement of IP rights abroad. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-yet-again-on-us-priority-watch-list-over-ip-rights-challenges/article69505983.ece

Answer 279

1 only Explanation : The National Archives of India (NAI) has significantly enriched its repository of historical records with the acquisition of the private papers of former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. About National Archives of India (NAI): The NAI, which functions under the Ministry of Culture, is the repository of all non-current government records, holding them for the use of administrators and scholars. It is the custodian of the records of enduring value of the Government of India. It is the biggest archival repository in South Asia. History: It was originally established as the Imperial Record Department on 11 March 1891 in Kolkata (Calcutta). It was transferred to New Delhi in 1911, and the present building, designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens, was completed in 1926. The complete transfer of records from Calcutta to New Delhi was finalized in 1937. The NAI also serves as the nodal agency for implementing the Public Records Act, 1993, and the Public Record Rules, 1997. Currently, the National Archives of India holds over 34 crore pages of Public Records, including files, volumes, maps, treaties, rare manuscripts, cartographic records, parliamentary debates, censuses, travel accounts, proscribed literature, and government gazettes. A significant portion of its oriental records is in Sanskrit, Persian, Odia, and other languages. Access to the records in the NAI is governed by the provisions of the Public Records Rules, 1997. The NAI keeps and conserves records of the government of India and its organisations. It does not receive classified documents. It has one regional office at Bhopal and three Records Centers at Bhubaneswar, Jaipur, and Puducherry. Abhilekh PATAL: The Abhilekh PATAL (Portal for Access to Archives and Learning) is an initiative of NAI to make its rich treasure of Indian archival records available to all online. It is a full-featured web portal to access the NIA’s reference media and its digitized collections through the internet. It contains more than 2.7 million files held by the National Archives of India. The Digitized Collections contains over 71,792 digitized records for online access. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/national-archives-of-india-acquires-private-papers-of-dr-a-p-j-abdul-kalam/

Answer 280

All three Explanation : A six-year-old girl who was bitten by a stray dog died of rabies recently despite receiving preventive vaccination in Kerala's Malappuram district. About Rabies: It is a deadly zoonotic disease caused by the Rabies virus (RABV) that attacks the nervous system. RABV is an RNA virus of the rhabdovirus family that can affect the body in one of two ways. It can enter the peripheral nervous system directly and migrate to the brain. It can also replicate within muscle tissue, where it is safe from the host’s immune system. From here, it enters the nervous system through the neuromuscular junctions. Once inside the nervous system, the virus produces acute inflammation of the brain. Transmission: The virus spreads through the saliva of infected animals. Infected animals can spread the virus by biting another animal or a person. In rare cases, rabies can be spread when infected saliva gets into an open wound or the mucous membranes, such as the mouth or eyes. In up to 99% of the human rabies cases, dogs are responsible for virus transmission. Symptoms: The incubation period for rabies is typically 2–3 months but may vary from one week to one year, depending on factors such as the location of virus entry and the viral load. Initial symptoms of rabies include generic signs like fever, pain, and unusual or unexplained tingling, pricking, or burning sensations at the wound site. As the virus moves to the central nervous system, progressive and fatal inflammation of the brain and spinal cord develops. Once the virus infects the central nervous system and clinical symptoms appear, rabies is fatal in 100% of cases. Clinically, it has two forms: Furious rabies – characterized by hyperactivity and hallucinations. Paralytic rabies – characterized by paralysis and coma. It is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD) that predominantly affects already marginalized, poor, and vulnerable populations. Rabies is most common in rural parts of Asia and Africa, though it’s found on all continents except Antarctica. Prevention: It is a vaccine-preventable disease. Vaccinating dogs, including puppies, is the most cost-effective strategy for preventing rabies in people because it stops the transmission at its source. Treatment: Medical care following a rabies exposure is called post-exposure prophylaxis, or PEP. PEP includes wound care, a dose of human rabies immune globulin (HRIG), and a series of four or five rabies vaccines, which must be administered as soon as possible after exposure. This care is vital to prevent the disease from developing. It is nearly 100% effective if administered promptly. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/kerala-girl-dies-of-rabies-despite-vaccination-after-stray-dog-attack/2509923

Answer 281

Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Explanation : The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations recently launched a significant new initiative, Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe). About AIM4NatuRe Initiative: It is a Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)-led global initiative aimed at enhancing the capacity of countries to monitor and report on ecosystem restoration. It is a US$ 9 million programme funded by the United Kingdom, with a contribution of GBP 7 million, and is set to run from 2025 to 2028. AIM4NatuRe will leverage cutting-edge technology, standardized data frameworks, and capacity development to support global efforts to restore at least 30 percent of degraded ecosystems by 2030, as outlined in Target 2 of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). By fostering transparency, accountability, and data interoperability, the initiative will enable countries to track restoration efforts across forests, wetlands, grasslands, marine ecosystems, and agricultural landscapes. AIM4NatuRe is part of FAO’s AIM4Forests Programme, expanding the scope beyond forests to provide a holistic approach to nature restoration monitoring. The initiative prioritizes a comprehensive approach to ecosystem restoration, encompassing a wide range of activities, from reforestation, restoration of degraded agricultural lands, and wetland rehabilitation to the recovery of grasslands and marine ecosystems. AIM4NatuRe will also develop practical guidance documents and technical solutions, namely the Framework for Ecosystem Restoration Monitoring (FERM), to support countries in data collection, analysis, and reporting, ensuring that information is readily available and usable. Notably, the initiative will support Indigenous Peoples in the monitoring of biocentric nature restoration, a holistic approach that prioritizes the well-being of all living things within an ecosystem. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://krishijagran.com/agriculture-world/earth-day-2025-fao-launches-938-million-initiative-to-improve-ecosystem-restoration-monitoring-using-advanced-tech/

Answer 282

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Researchers at the University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) have developed a stable Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) that allows a paralysed person to control a robotic arm using only their thoughts, over 7 months, with minimal recalibration. What is a Brain-Computer Interface (BCI)? A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a system that enables direct communication between the brain and an external device, such as a computer or robotic limb. It decodes brain signals and translates them into commands to control machines, bypass damaged neural pathways, and restore lost functions in persons with neurological disorders. Earlier BCI systems could only translate brain signals into text, and that too with limited vocabulary, slow processing speed, and reduced accuracy. How Does It Work? Sensor implantation: Electrodes were surgically placed on the motor cortex (brain region controlling movement). Signal interpretation: The system decodes neural signals of imagined movement, using machine learning to predict changes over time in signal patterns. Virtual training: The user was first trained using a virtual robotic arm, allowing refinement of mental control. Real-world application: The participant performed complex tasks like picking up blocks, opening a cabinet, and holding a cup under a water dispenser, indicating precise, consistent control. Broader Applications of BCI Technology The BCI also has potential for restoring speech in individuals with conditions like brainstem stroke or Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS). Fine electrodes and artificial neural networks can decode intended speech and generate text output, Audible speech, and a speaking avatar. One study showed a patient with ALS communicating at 62 words per minute, 3.4 times faster than previous BCI systems. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/brain-computer-interface-enables-movement-for-people-who-are-paralysed/article69501067.ece

Answer 283

Discovering and promoting original Indian IPs in anime, manga, webtoons and cosplay Explanation : Finalists from 11 cities were selected through months of regional contests and will participate in the WAM! national finale at WAVES 2025. About WAM! WAM! (WAVES Anime & Manga Contest) is India’s first national initiative focused on discovering, nurturing, and promoting original Indian Intellectual Properties (IPs) in anime, manga, webtoons and cosplay. It is being organised by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in collaboration with the Media & Entertainment Association of India (MEAI). The initiative will culminate in the WAVES 2025 national finale, which will be held from May 1–4, 2025 at the Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai. About WAVES 2025 WAVES (World Audio-Visual & Entertainment Summit) 2025 is a pioneering event designed to promote India's strength in the AVGC-XR sector — Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, and Extended Reality. WAVES is being hosted under the central theme: “Create in India, Create for the World”, emphasizing India’s ambition to become a global creative hub. The summit brings together global leaders, innovators, studios, and creators, providing a collaborative platform for India's media and entertainment economy. WAVES features the Create in India Challenges (CIC) — an initiative that received over 1 lakh registrations, including 1,100 international participants, reflecting global interest in India’s creative ecosystem. The summit includes discussions and showcases on Broadcasting, Films, Print Media, Radio, Digital Media, Advertising, Social Media Platforms, and Generative AI. It also highlights technological advancements in Augmented Reality (AR), Virtual Reality (VR), and Extended Reality (XR). Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2125183

Answer 284

1 only Explanation : An international team of solar physicists, including scientists from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), has mapped dynamic plasma currents in the Sun’s Near-Surface Shear Layer (NSSL), revealing patterns that correlate with the Sun’s 11-year magnetic activity (sunspot) cycle. About Near-Surface Shear Layer (NSSL) & Key Findings The Near-Surface Shear Layer (NSSL) is a crucial region located just beneath the Sun’s visible surface, extending to a depth of about 35,000 km. In the NSSL, the Sun's angular velocity (rotation speed) decreases rapidly with radius, creating a rotational shear that varies with depth, latitude, and solar magnetic activity. The study revealed surface plasma flows converge towards sunspot latitudes but reverse midway in the NSSL and flow outward, forming large circulation cells. These flows are shaped by the Sun's rotation and the Coriolis force, which also influences Earth's hurricanes. This connection helps explain how the Sun's spin behaviour varies with depth. Despite being dynamic, these localised flows do not drive the Sun's large-scale zonal flows, known as torsional oscillations, implying the presence of deeper unknown forces in the Sun’s interior. Techniques Used Scientists employed helioseismology, a method that uses sound waves travelling inside the Sun to map internal structures and dynamics. They used over a decade’s worth of data from: NASA’s Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO), specifically the Helioseismic and Magnetic Imager (HMI), and The Global Oscillations Network Group (GONG) of the National Solar Observatory (NSO), USA. The research confirmed the findings using 3D velocity maps of sunspot regions, showing matching surface inflows and deeper outflows. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2125195

Answer 285

Hydrogen produced using renewable energy Explanation : Researchers at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali, have developed new insights into proton adsorption on catalyst surfaces, paving the way for more efficient green hydrogen production. Key Scientific Findings A novel heterostructure, combining Copper Tungsten Oxide (CuWO₄) and Copper Oxide (CuO), has been created to exploit the Built-In Electric Field (BIEF) effect for enhanced hydrogen evolution. The structure is formed by growing CuWO₄ nanoparticles over a Cu(OH)₂ precursor, leading to a p-n heterojunction that creates an asymmetric electronic environment. This BIEF plays a crucial role in modulating proton adsorption and desorption, directly influencing the Hydrogen Evolution Reaction (HER) efficiency. Mechanism of Proton Adsorption The interface between CuO and CuWO₄ shows variation in Gibbs Free Energy (∆G), especially near the depletion region. A gradient in ∆G across this interface enhances hydrogen adsorption at CuO and desorption at CuWO₄, making the system more favourable for HER. This showcases "negative cooperativity", where increased proton binding at one site reduces affinity at other sites, facilitating proton desorption, a key step in alkaline hydrogen production. What is Green Hydrogen? Green Hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable energy sources like solar, wind, or hydropower, releasing no greenhouse gases. It is a clean, sustainable, and flexible energy carrier, with water vapour as its only by-product. Unlike grey hydrogen (from fossil fuels), green hydrogen contributes to zero carbon emissions. Green Hydrogen Production Methods Alkaline Electrolysis: Mature, low-cost method using KOH/NaOH; needs nickel/platinum electrodes. Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Electrolysis: High efficiency, fast, but expensive due to precious metal catalysts. Solid Oxide Electrolysis (SOEC): Works at 700–1000°C, enables co-electrolysis of H₂O and CO₂, but involves complex materials and high costs. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2124882

Answer 286

Only three Explanation : India and Egypt are enhancing bilateral ties through strategic cooperation in the field of skill development, as part of their broader Strategic Partnership established in 2023. Key Facts of Egypt Egypt’s Location: Located in northeast Africa, extending into southwest Asia through the Sinai Peninsula. It is a transcontinental country. Bordering Nations: Shares borders with: Libya (west), Sudan (south), Israel and Gaza Strip (northeast) Coastlines along the Mediterranean Sea (north) and Red Sea (east). Key Geographical Features The Nile River, the longest river in the world, flows from south to north through Egypt. Aswan High Dam: Inaugurated in 1971, it is one of the world’s largest embankment dams. Functions: Controls annual Nile flooding. Provides water storage for irrigation. Generates hydroelectric power. Created Lake Nasser, one of the largest artificial lakes, extending into Sudan. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2125101

April 2025 Flashcards

(312 cards)