AQP Flashcards
(429 cards)
1
Q
Dry ice limit.
A
5700
2
Q
Cat III mins
A
Alert Height 100ft
RVR 300ft/75m
Equipment:
3 Hydraulic systems
Autothrottles
Auto land on both PFD
3
Q
On a CAT III approach, to continue below AH, what must be met.
A
No auto throttle faults, LAND 3 must be annunciated on the FMA. (GOM 5-155)
4
Q
Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft?
A
In the cabinets behind the supernumerary seating.
5
Q
Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF?
A
Yes.
- METAR must indicate current weather conditions are at or above minimums, METAR history shows **REASONABLE TREND of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. **(one METAR showing above mins does not establish a reasonable trend)
- Must ensure a takeoff, approach and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next regularly scheduled METAR report. (GOM 5-79)
6
Q
The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered?
A
If the FO has less than 100 hours, the PIC must make the landing, 1100 meters is below 4000 RVR. (GOM 4-18)
PIC must also make all takeoffs and landings under the following:
All special Airports. Visibility is below 3/4 SM (1200 meters) or RVR is below 4000’ (1000 meters). Runway is contaminated with water, snow, ice or slush. Braking action less than good. Crosswind component exceeds 15 knots. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. Horse charter. PIC deems it to be prudent.
7
Q
If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions?
A
The DO cannot delegate the responsibility.
A list of Flight Followers authorized to perform these delegated functions is contained in the Bulletins section of the GOM. (GOM 5-1)
8
Q
What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?
A
SHLLFF —CPPS LEG
Security search/DHL Aircraft Security Report (DHL-ASR) Hazmat (NOTOC) Logpage (pink and yellow) Loadsheet (W&B) Fuel Receipts (or other, not hotels) Flight Release and supporting documents( ATIS, CLNC, OCEANIC CLNC, R/R)
AND POSSIBLY:
Comat form Plotting chart (more than 725 NM beyond service volume of ground based nav aids) Permit to proceed SAFA (orginal and a copy)
Livestock form Event Log Government Bill of Lading (GOM 5-158)
9
Q
Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors? DAAR
A
Destination fuel to conduct one approach, and possible missed approach. Alternate. Additional fuel displayed as “EXTRA” by NAVBLUE. Reserve fuel. (GOM 5-83)
10
Q
What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified?
A
200 FPNM (GOM 6-33)
11
Q
When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered?
A
Max Structural TOGW. Max Structural TOGW limited by takeoff performance. TOGW considering PLANNED fuel burn to permit a landing at, or below the maximum gross landing weight, limited by performance or structural. (GOM 5-112)
12
Q
When is a new TLR required prior to departure?
A
TEMP TEMP WT WT QNH/MEL/CLUTTER/AI
Takeoff:
OAT is more than 10 degrees below POAT. OAT is greater than the MT for the takeofff runway. More than 10,000 lbs below the PTOW More than the PTOW PLUS weight for the takeoff runway. Actual QNH is more than .10’” (3.4hPa) below PQNH. Performance limiting MEL/CDL not shown in RMKS section. Clutter/ANTI-ICE not shown in the RMKS section. More than 12 hrs (AOM VOL I SP-29/30 and PERF-29)
Landing:
OAT is more than 10 degrees below POAT. OAT falls outside the OAT range listed in the normal landing section. When landing weight is greater than the highest landing weight shown in the landing distance section. When landing weight is greater than the normal section, once corrections are applied. Actual QNH is more than .10’” (3.4hPa) below PQNH. Performance limiting MEL/CDL not shown in RMKS section. Clutter not shown in the RMKS section. If the TLR is valid for takeoff, it is valid for landing. (AOM VOL I SP31/32 and PERF-29)
13
Q
When requesting a “Live” calculation, what must be provided to flight following?
A
FRRATZ
Fuel RWY RWY condition ATIS TO CG ZFW (AOM VOL I PERF-21)
14
Q
What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?
A
Improved Climb. N is for NO, if not used, Y is for YES if used for Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW).
If yes, V2 is increased to allow an increased 2nd segment climb for the PMRTW. (AOM VOL I PERF-20)
15
Q
Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower?
A
More than 1/8” up to 1/4” (3 to 6 mm)
AOM VOL I PERF-11
16
Q
After entering the Thrust Limit from Aerodata, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do?
A
Check the following entries in the FMC:
Zero Fuel Weight Flaps Thrust
Presence of dashes on the V-Speeds is an indication that the FMC cannot generate speeds based on the above items.
A performance solution is not possible, or Takeoff Runway not entered.
This must be resolved before flight. All performance entries must be stopped.
(AOM VOL I SP-31)
17
Q
Who may perform the Exterior Safety check?
A
First Officer, or first crewmember to arrive at the aircraft. IRP for Standard or Double Crew.
If crews arrived separately, the first will conduct the exterior safety check, interior safety check, establish power, and conduct the preliminary preflight .
CLAAF
Chocks in place Landing gear door position APU control panel on the nose gear, check for APU FIRE, or Bottle discharge lights, unless running. APU exhaust area clear. Flight Controls- check position and condition. (AOM VOL I NP-10)
18
Q
When is the exterior safety check accomplished?
A
Every flight before entering the aircraft to ascertain that no obviously unsafe condition exists.
(AOM VOL I NP-10)
19
Q
What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection?
A
If the parking brake is set, the brake wear indicator must extend out of the guides.
( AOM VOL I NP-16/17
20
Q
When conducting an exterior inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours?
A
YES
Use of an adequate flashlight, regardless of the time of the day, is essential for checking latch alignment marks on the lower lobe cargo doors. If any door, panel or cowling was observed not in the proper (flight) position during initial preflight, their position must be confirmed ready for flight prior to departure.
For DHL flight ONLY, the loadmaster will assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around to ensure all of the cargo doors are closed, secured, and no damage occurred during fueling or loading, or that may not have been visible during the initial walkaround.
Lower Lobe Cargo Doors: Verify that the latch alignment marks are visible through the viewports along the bottom of the lower lobe cargo doors. Confirm the door operating switch covers are closed and the vent doors are in the closed/flush position. Aft Bulk Cargo Door: Verify that the door is secured and flush with the fuselage. Main Cargo Door: Check the main cargo door is secured and flush with the fuselage. Confirm the door operating switch cover is closed and the vent doors are in the closed/flush position.
(AOM VOL I NP-37)
21
Q
For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk- around?
A
Loadmaster
AOM VOL I NP-37
22
Q
What are the Memory Items for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND?
A
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …………………………………. CUTOFF
DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE SHUTDOWN HAS OCCURED.
If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown:
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ………………………………………………… Pull
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………………………………. Rotate
After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………… Rotate (to other bottle)
x Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.
23
Q
What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight?
A
Dual Eng Fail/Stall
Condition: Engine speed for both engines is below idle.
1 FUEL CONTROL switches (both) ……………. CUTOFF, then RUN
2 RAM AIR TURBINE switch ………… Push and hold for 1 second
24
Q
You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, the left engine is shut down, and the right engine is running as you await the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on the right engine. With no master fire warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished?
A
ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …………………………………. CUTOFF
DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE SHUTDOWN HAS OCCURED.
If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown:
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ………………………………………………… Pull
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………………………………. Rotate
After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………… Rotate (to other bottle)
x Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.
QRH BC-1)
If an engine fire warning light is not illuminated, but a fire indication exists or a fire is reported in or near an engine, discharge both available fire bottles into the affected engine.
(FCTM 8-9)
25
A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished?
Aborted Engine Start L, R
Condition: On the ground, an aborted engine start is needed.
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ........................... CUTOFF
26
An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG FAIL L/R appears. What recall items should be accomplished?
There are no associated memory items for ENG FAIL L/R. Call for the ENG FAIL L/R checklist.
(QRH 7-8)
27
What are the Memory Items for EICAS message “ENG AUTOSTART L/R”?
ENG AUTOSTART L, R
Condition: During a ground start, one of these occurs: x Autostart did not start the engine x Fuel control switch is in RUN at low engine RPM with the autostart switch OFF
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) .......................... CUTOFF
28
What are the Memory Items for the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall condition?
Condition: One or more of these occur:
x Engine indications are abnormal
x Engine indications are quickly nearing or show an ex-ceedance
x Abnormal engine noises are heard, possibly with air-frame vibration
x There is no response to thrust lever movement or the response is abnormal
x Flames in the engine inlet or exhaust are reported
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ............ Confirm ........... CUTOFF
2 Thrust Lever (affected side) ............. Confirm ............ Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is at idle
29
Memory items for Aborted Engine Start?
Condition: On the ground, an aborted engine start is needed.
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ........................... CUTOFF
30
What are the memory items for CABIN ALTITUDE?
Condition: Cabin altitude is excessive.
1 Don the oxygen masks.
2 Establish crew communications.
3 Check the cabin altitude and rate.
4 If the cabin altitude is uncontrollable:
` SUPRNMRY OXYGEN switch .................... Push to ON and hold for 1 second
Without delay, descend to the lowest safe altitude or 10,000 feet, whichever is higher.
To descend:
` Move the thrust levers to idle
` Extend the speedbrakes
` If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads.
` Descend at Vmo/Mmo
31
What are the memory items for AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE?
Condition: The airspeed or Mach indications are suspected to be un-reliable. (Items which may indicate Airspeed Unreliable are listed in the Additional Information section.)
Objective: To identify a reliable airspeed indication, if possible, or to continue the flight using the Unreliable Airspeed table in the Performance Inflight QRH chapter.
1 Autopilot disengage switch ............................................... Push
2 A/T ARM switch ............................................................... OFF
3 F/D switches (both) ............................................................ OFF
4 Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
` Flaps Extended ...................................... 10° and 85% N1
` Flaps up .................................................... 4° and 70% N1
32
What are the memory items for FIRE ENG L,R?
Condition: Fire is detected in the engine.
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ............................ Confirm ............................. OFF
2 Thrust lever (affected side) ............................ Confirm .............................. Idle
3 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ............................ Confirm ....................... CUTOFF
4 Engine fire switch (affected side) ............................ Confirm ............................ PULL
5 If the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
` Engine fire switch (affected side).... Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
If after 30 seconds, the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
` Engine fire switch (affected side).... Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second
33
What are the memory items for ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEPARATION L/R?
Condition: One or more of these occur:
x Airframe vibrations with abnormal engine indications
x Engine separation
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ............................ Confirm ............................. OFF
2 Thrust lever (affected side) ............................ Confirm .............................. Idle
3 FUEL CONTROL switches (affected side) ........................... Confirm ....................... CUTOFF
4 Engine fire switch (affected side) ........................... Confirm .............................. Pull
34
What are the memory items for STABILIZER?
Condition: One of these occurs:
x Stabilizer movement without a signal to trim
x The stabilizer is failed
1 STAB cutout switches (both) .................................................... CUTOUT
2 Do not exceed the current airspeed.
35
What are the memory items for LOWER CARGO FIRE ON THE GROUND?
CARGO FIRE ARM switch (affected compartment) .................................. Push
CARGO FIRE DISCH switch ............................ Push and hold for 1 second
36
What are the memory items for ENGINE FAILURE ON THE GROUND?
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) ........................................ CUTOFF
x Do not re-start the engine.
37
Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority?
The Director of Operations is responsible for submitting a written report (separate from the event log) to the FAA within 10 days after the flight is completed.
(GOM 5-2)
38
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency?
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
| GOM 2-26, 8-5
39
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress?
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
| GOM 8-5
40
What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight?
Odor
Haze
Changing:
* Engine Indications
* Airspeed
* Pressurization
* Static Discharges
4. Smoky or Acrid odor, may smell like electrical smoke, burned dust or sulfur.
5. Haze, dust.
6. Engine surging, torching from the tailpipe or flameouts. White glow can appear in inlets.
7. Decrease or fluctuating indicated airspeed.
8. St. Elmo's fire, or glow
9. Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows.
(GOM 8-24) ︎︎︎ ︎︎︎︎︎︎︎
41
What must a person consider before using a Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area?︎︎︎︎ ︎︎︎︎︎
A PBE should be donned when in a confined space.
| GOM 8-64
42
What is the time of useful consciousness at 35,000 feet without using supplemental oxygen?
30-60 seconds
30-60 seconds
TIME OF USEFUL CONSCIOUSNESS (TUC):
This is the amount of time in which a person is able to effectively or adequately perform flight duties with an insufficient supply of oxygen.
At altitudes below 30,000 feet the TUC may differ considerably from the time of total consciousness. Above 35,000 feet, the times may grow closer together and eventually coincide.
The average TUC for flying personnel without supplemental oxygen is:
The TUC is generally never less than 18 seconds because this is the shortest time required for oxygen-starved blood from the lungs to reach the brain and depress brain functions. Recovery after administering oxygen requires nearly the same length of time.
ALTITUDE TUC
```
40,000 feet 15 to 20 seconds
35,000 feet 30 to 60 seconds
30,000 feet 1 to 2 minutes
28,000 feet 2 ½ to 3 minutes
25,000 feet 3 to 5 minutes
22,000 feet 5 to 10 minutes
20,000 feet 30 minutes or more
```
43
What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing?
1. Total weight at touchdown.
2. Rate of descent.
3. Notify maintenance control.
(GOM 8-34)
44
Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin?
NO. Supernumeraries should be instructed to breathe air from the area near the cabin floor, where the smoke will be less dense. Majority of the air breathed through the mask is from the cabin, and could be heavily contaminated.
(GOM 8-47)
45
You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30- day period?
100 hours
| FAR 121.503 (d) 121.525c)
46
To whom can the Director of Operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight?
He can only delegate the “authority” for operational control to initiate, continuation, diversion and termination of a flight to the flight followers as listed on the bulletins of the GOM.
(GOM 3-9)
47
When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
Jeppesen, Airway Manual for the region, Air Traffic Control/State Rules and Procedures
48
What are B-44 fuel requirements?
Fly and land at airport to which it was released,
10% of the time from R/R point to R/R airport,
Land at the destination airport,
Most distant alternate airport,
30 mins at holding speed, 1500' under ISA
GOM (5-88)
49
What are B-43 fuel requirements?
Destination 10% of Class II
Most distant alternate
45 mins at normal cruising speed
(GOM 5-86)
50
May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast?
NO. Kalitta Air does not utilize the fuel provision of FAR 121.645(c)
(GOM 5-87)
51
Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
ETA exceeds 15 mins from planned ETA, or Cruise Altitude varies by 4000' or more from planned cruise altitude, or Deviate more than 100 NM from planned route.
If any of the above conditions are met, the PIC or representative and flight follower shall jointly review the fuel requirements and fuel operations for the remainder of the flight. A diversion may be necessary.
(GOM 5-87)
52
When are you considered “established” on course?
RNAV- within 1 times the RNP for the segment being flown. (GOM 2-11)
ILS/VOR- 1/2 full scale deflection. (GOM 6-66)
NDB- +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing. (GOM 6-66)
53
Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country?
PIC
| GOM 6-3
54
Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found?
Entry section of the appropriate airway manual. More detailed information may be obtained from OCC.
(GOM 6-3)
55
When do you need a permit to proceed?
Tech stop to refuel, crew change etc at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements. Minimum of 4 copies needed.
(GOM 5-63)
56
How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
Appropriate airway manual for the region, Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures.
(GOM 5-45)
57
When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
Specific phraseology indicating: “Cleared present position direct to ________”
(GOM 6-15)
58
When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
1. Class II segments, flight release coordinates agree with coordinates on Jepp/NAT track message.
2. Check flight release times, distances and fuel for reasonableness by dividing the fuel burn by the flight time and verify the average fuel burn is reasonable.
3. Check release winds to charted winds.
(GOM 6-30)
59
List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
Pilots shall make Special Air Reports whenever any of the following phenomena are observed or occur:
1. Moderate/Severe Turbulence
2. Moderate/Severe Icing
3. Severe mountain wave
4. Thunderstorms with or without hail
5. Heavy dust or sandstorm
6. Volcanic ash cloud, pre-eruption activity, or volcanic eruption
(GOM 6-62)
60
When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)?
1. Calculating Takeoff Minimums
2. When reported RVR is available
3. For other RVR minima less than 800 meters
(QRH AP-1)
The conversion is for “inflight” only. (GOM 5-76)
61
What does the term “NOSIG” mean when found in a METAR?
No significant change expected change expected to the reported conditions within the next 2 hours.
62
Can a flight be released based on a METAR?
Yes. When weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but a METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required.
One METAR reporting weather above minimums does not establish a “reasonable trend”.
All preparations must be accomplished to allow for a takeoff, approach and landing prior to the next normally scheduled METAR report.
(GOM 5-79)
63
You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate?
NO. This is a requirement for meeting dispatch fuel requirements. Does not limit the PIC on his emergency authority.
(GOM 5)
64
You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do?
SAND (South Ascend, North, descend)
NAT:
Once beyond 5 NM of track, climb 300'.
All other areas:
Once beyond 10 NM of track, climb 300'.
Be at the assigned FL when within 5 or 10 NM of assigned route as appropriate, when deviation is completed.
(GOM 8-29)
65
You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do?
NAT:
1. Turn at least 30 degrees
2. Offset 5 NM
3. Reference TCAS
4. Turn on lights
5. SSR 7700
6. Contact ATC (voice or CPDLC), advise deviation from clearance, and PAN PAN or MAYDAY
7. 121.5 or backup of 123.45, and frequency in use, broadcast aircraft ID, nature of distress, intentions, position (ATS route or track code) and FL
8. Descend below 290 and establish a 500' vertical offset from those flight levels normally used until an ATC clearance can be obtained.
Other areas:
1. Turn at least 45 degrees
2. Offset 15 NM
3. Reference TCAS
4. Turn on lights
5. Contact ATC (voice or CPDLC), advise deviation from clearance, and PAN PAN or MAYDAY
6. 121.5 or backup of 123.45, and frequency in use, broadcast aircraft ID, nature of distress, intentions, position (ATS route or track code) and FL
7. Descend below 290 and establish a 500' vertical offset from those flight levels normally used until an ATC clearance can be obtained.
(GOM 8-26 to 8-28)
66
You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
It is mandatory to proceed to the released airport after coordinating with ATC.
(GOM 5-24)
67
In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
A climb may be initiated, but a turn may not be commenced prior to the MAP.
(GOM 5-145)
68
Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum bank angle of ____°
290 knots, 15 degrees.
| GOM 6-33
69
Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?
Write down the clearance, time and frequency on the master.
Cross out old waypoints, and enter the new ones.
(GOM 6-43)
70
Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required?
Monitor 126.9 and broadcast:
1. Position 2. Altitude 3. Direction/route of flight
Area of applicability is portions of Africa.
(GOM 6-19)
71
Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
10 minutes after passing a waypoint, the position is plotted to determine the proper coordinates were entered into the FMC for the next waypoint and the aircraft is tracking to that position. This allows time to determine if a significant error was made when programming the FMC.
(GOM 6-30)
72
In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
Yes. Must be able to maintain a NET flight path 1000' above obstacles within 5 miles on each side of the route, or the aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2000'. (121.191)
You must be able to drift down beyond obstacles or have diversion routes available. Possibly turning around prior to terrain, or drifting down beyond the terrain.
(GOM 6-48)
73
While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford?
GRID MORA. Provides a minimum of 1000' obstacle clearance or 2000' in designated mountainous terrain.
(GOM 6-48)
74
What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1?
BELOW 1000' AFE:
Climb straight ahead to 1000' AFE. Return to land visually or IMC procedure.
1000' to 3000' AFE:
Return to land visually or IMC procedure.
Above 3000' AFE:
Proceed on course, as applicable.
(VOL I PERF-6)
75
Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
1. Cleared to maintain an altitude. 2. Given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.
(GOM 6-23)
76
When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance?
Strict adherence to the directions and timing specified. Flown as depicted.
(GOM 6-65)
77
Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
Correct for:
Using the “all segments method” for:
1. At 2. At or above 3. At or below
When the reported temperature is at or below the published temperature restriction on the plate for US airports and below -30C for International airports.
Pilots should not correct altimeter barometric reference settings.
(GOM 5-36)
78
According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than- normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?
1. Higher true airspeed (about 20%)
2. Greater turn radius
3. Higher takeoff and landing speeds
4. Hot brakes
5. Missed approach climb limitations
6. Possible “sink rate” from GPWS due to higher rates of descent
(GOM 6-25)
79
What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
Not less than -40, or 3 degrees above the fuel freeze point, whichever is higher. -37 for JET A (AOM VOL I L-6)
Increase speed, Change altitude, or deviate to a warmer air mass, or all 3 to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit.
80
How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
Fuel temperature limits table in the limitations section of the AOM.
(AOM VOL I L-8)
81
Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire.
(GOM 6)
82
If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch?
1. Verify proper SECAL code
2. Verify transmit selector set to HF 1 or 2
3. Increase the gain to max
4. Request a new test
(GOM 6)
83
In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
1. Speak slowly and clearly
2. Make request brief and specific
3. Use ICAO phraseology
4. Listen to the complete transmission 5. Use higher frequencies when the sun is higher and vice versa.
(GOM 6-26)
84
After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PM should?
1. Print the uplink and place where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with.
2. Leave the uplink page displayed until the clearance has been complied with.
85
What is the correct response to a “Cleared Route Clearance” uplink?
1. Send “standby” downlink message.
2. Print the uplink message
3. After a review of the message, accept or reject the clearance and load the FMC if accepted.
86
Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C?
Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADC-C services.
87
Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
Only if ATC requests to do so
| GOM 5-33
88
When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
NO
89
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependant Surveillance-Broadcast
90
How do you turn ADS-B off?
Select the transponder to SDBY
91
What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
1. Smoking
2. Seat belt use
3. Passenger signs
4. Seat backs upright for takeoff and landing
5. Portable electronic devices
6. Emergency procedures
7. Sterile cockpit
8. Oxygen use
9. Carry on items and equipment
Captain is responsible to brief prior to taxi.
(GOM 5-16)
92
When does automatic operation of the Emergency Lights occur?
Automatic operation occurs if *DC power fails or is turned off when the system is armed. The emergency lighting system can also be controlled by the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch at door 1L.
When the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch in the flight deck is armed, and the door mode select lever is in the armed position, moving the door handle to the open position will cause the exterior fuselage light and the interior emergency lights at that door to illuminate.
*L/R Main DC busses fail. 15 mins.
(AOM VOL II 1-42)
93
What does the EICAS message CREW OXYGEN LOW mean?
Crew oxygen pressure is low.
| QRH 1-1
94
What types of fire is the Halon Fire Extinguisher best used?
Flammable liquids and electrical fires.
| GOM 8-64
95
How many ELT are on board and where are they located?
2 ADT 406S. Transmit on 406.028, located in the supernumerary area in the stowage box forward of 1R.
Triggered manually, or by sense of water.
(AOM VOL II 1-45)
96
Rounded up to the nearest foot or meter, what is the width and length of the B777F?
W: 213 L: 207
Width: 212'7” (64.9M) Length: 206’6” (63.73M)
(AOM VOL II 1-1)
97
Rounded up to the nearest foot or meter, what is the minimum width of pavement required for a 180° turn?
158'
157'4” (48M)
(AOM VOL II 1-2)
98
If a Cargo Heat Bulk EICAS message displays after dispatch, what would you do?
There is no Cargo Heat Bulk EICAS. If it is CARGO HEAT AFT EICAS message, verify the temperature selector is not OFF. Beyond that, there is no crew action required.
(QRH 2-11)
99
What paper manuals are required on board the aircraft?
1. DOT Emergency Response Guidebook
2. ICAO Emergency Response for DG
3. MEL/CDL/APP-A
4. QRH
(GOM 5-57)
100
Describe the passenger entry door flight lock?
The flight lock automatically engages at speeds greater than 80 kts.
1. Allows limited travel of the handle to open the vent panel.
2. Prevents the door from opening.
3. Flight lock releases when below 80 kts.
(AOM VOL II 1-73)
101
How is Maximum Range Cruise speed selected?
Enter a cost index of zero.
| AOM VOL II 11-27
102
What is LRC in relation to Maximum Range Cruise?
LRC is the speed to maximize range. (AOM VOL II 11-39) Maximum Range Cruise is the minimum fuel speed. (AOM VOL II 11-27)
103
How do you correct an overspeed in flight if the Autothrottle system is unable to react quickly enough?
Partially deploy the speed brakes slowly until below VMO/MMO, then retract them slowly.
(FCTM 8-25)
104
What is the correct adjustment to approach speed when the autothrottle is not in use.
1/2 steady headwind component + full gust above the steady wind to the reference speed. Should not exceed VREF + 15 kts.
(FCTM 1-12)
105
What is the severe turbulence penetration speed at FL260?
280kts or .82, whichever is lower at 25,000 and above. Must maintain a minimum speed of 15 kts above the minimum maneuvering speed at all attitudes when airspeed is below .82.
270 kts below 25,000.
(AOM VOL I L-2)
106
What are the Dimensions of the B777-300ER?
Width: 212'7” (64.8M)
Length: 242'4” (73.86M)
Height: 61'10” (18.85M)
(Boeing AOM VOL II 1.10.4)
107
What are the dimensions of the B-777F?
Width: 212'7” (64.8M)
Length: 209'1” (63.73M)
Height: 62'4” (18.99M)
(AOM VOL II 1-1)
108
What is the minimum runway needed for a 180° turn?
157'4” (48M)
| AOM VOL II 1-2
109
Do not attempt a turn within how many feet from wing tip and nose?
Wing tip: 15' (4.6M)
Nose: 55' (16.8M)
(AOM VOL II 1-2)
110
There is an emergency light switch by door 1L. In what position does the cockpit emergency light switch have to be for this switch to work?
ARMED.
| AOM VOL II 1-42
111
When will masks deploy automatically?
The supernumerary masks will drop at a cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500'.
(AOM VOL II 1-44)
112
How do you restore normal communications when the mask is removed?
1. Close the left oxygen panel door, and
2. Pushing and releasing the TEST/RESET switch.
This shuts off the oxygen to the mask. Flow can be restored by opening the left door again.
(AOM VOL II 1-44)
113
With switch in AUTO, when will SEAT BELTS signs illuminate?
1. Gear not up and locked, or
2. Flap lever not up, or
3. Airplane altitude below 10,000', or
4. Supernumerary Oxygen on.
(AOM VOL II 1-42)
114
What lighting is controlled by the Master Brightness control?
Panel and display lights:
1. PFD'S
2. MFD'S
3. EICAS
4. CDU'S
5. Clocks
6. Standby Instruments
7. Standby compass
8. Digital displays
9. Overhead panel
10. Glareshield panel
11. Forward panels (left, center and right)
12. Aisle stand panels (forward and aft)
(AOM VOL II 1-41)
115
On the ECL, what is a “Closed Loop” item?
Closed loop items are continuously monitored. Automatically sensed and turns green, moves down to the next incomplete items on the checklist.
(AOM VOL II 10-111)
116
Which checklist items have priority?
On the ground, with both fuel control switches to CUTOFF, and both engine start selectors in NORM, the priority is:
1. Checklists for EICAS warning messages
2. Normal checklists (incomplete or not yet opened)
On the ground with on or both fuel control switches in RUN, one or both engine start selectors in start, or in the air, the priority is:
1. Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons.
2. Incomplete unannunciated checklists.
3. Normal checklists.
(AOM VOL II 10-115)
117
What normal checklist would follow a G/A?
Shutdown checklist.
| AOM VOL II 10-115
118
A Closed loop item is not responding. How can this checklist be completed?
Item override.
If the action has been done, but the closed-loop sensing does not show the action item complete, the crew can override the action item.
Conditional line items (open or closed) cannot be overridden. Action items indented below a conditional line item can be overridden.
(AOM VOL II 10-119)
119
How can the EFIS Displays be controlled after an EFIC control panel failure?
If an EFIS control panel fails, the displays can be controlled through the related CDU. This CDU capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel.
(AOM VOL II 10-56)
120
How many CDU's can be used for DSP control at a time?
ONE
Display select panel control is also available through any CDU. This capability is available at all times. Once display select panel control is selected on one CDU, it cannot be selected on the other two CDUs.
(AOM VOL II 10-56)
121
When is selection of the inboard MFD no longer available?
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD moves to the inboard display unit. The inboard display selector and the display select panel no longer have any control over that inboard display unit.
(AOM VOL II 10-59)
122
Which synoptic displays can be compacted is EICAS is on an inboard MFD?
ENG, FUEL and AIR displays only.
| AOM VOL II 10-33
123
When is the DSPL CTRL Switch used?
If automatic selection of display channels for outboard and inboard pairs does not occur. Pushing the switch will display ALTN, and an alternate display channel is selected.
If there is an undetected source failure (a display is missing or parts of a display appear faulty), the non– normal (ALTN or CDU) position provides the capability for manual selection of PFD and ND sources.
Undetected display source failures, such as missing/faulty display information or intermittent display blanking, may not result in automatic switching. The CDU position of the NAV switch or the ALTN position of the DSPL CTRL or AIR DATA/ATT switches provide the capability to manually select PFD and ND sources.
A center display control source switch is provided for the center displays.
(AOM VOL II 10-57)
124
What is the implication of STATUS Messages?
Status messages indicate equipment faults requiring MEL reference for dispatch.
(AOM VOL II 15-18)
125
Can COMM messages be cancelled?
NO
EICAS communications messages are displayed in white below EICAS alert messages. Communication messages can not be cancelled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch. They remain displayed until crew action is initiated.
There are 3 levels of communication alerts: High (not used), Medium and Low.
* MEDIUM
* LOW
(AOM VOL II 15-20, Boeing CBT)
126
Where are EICAS MEMO Messages displayed?
They are a reminder of selected state of controls or systems cannot be canceled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch.
EICAS alert messages have display priority over memo messages; some or all memo messages not displayed on current EICAS message page if insufficient message lines are available below alert messages.
MEMO messages are displayed below communication alerts.
(AOM VOL II 15-2)
127
How are messages prioritized?
WARNING
CAUTION
ADVISORY (Indented one character)
* COMMUNICATION ALERT (MEDIUM)
* COMMUNICATION ALERT (LOW)
MEMO
The most recent EICAS alert message is displayed at the top of its priority group and all messages move down one display line. If a message is no longer displayed because the respective system non-normal condition no longer exists, all messages previously displayed move up one display line.
(AOM VOL II 15-21)
128
When should you use M/D High Flow Mode?
High flow mode is intended for carrying live animals or perishable cargo. During High flow mode, all six shut-off valves are open.
(AOM VOL II 2-15)
129
What additional fuel burn should you expect as a result of High Flow Mode?
In High Flow mode the cruise fuel burn increase is expected to be an additional 0.2% to 0.5%.
(AOM VOL II 2-15)
130
What does PACK MODE Left mean?
The pack is in the standby cooling mode.
For certain internal malfunctions, pack control automatically uses standby cooling mode as a backup to normal mode. In standby cooling mode, the EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L, R) is displayed, and STBY COOLING is displayed in amber on the AIR synoptic.
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling. The pack restarts automatically when altitude and outside air temperatures are suitable for standby cooling.
If both packs are in standby cooling mode, or if one pack is inoperative and the other pack is in standby cooling mode, the packs or pack operates continuously to maintain cabin pressurization, regardless of altitude or outside air temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
131
What is the function of the ALTN VENT switch?
The alternate ventilation system provides air flow into the flight deck and supernumerary cabin when both air conditioning packs are inoperative.
If the airplane is not pressurized normally and the ALTN VENT switch is ON, air is drawn from the aft outflow valve and provided to the flight deck and supernumerary cabin.
When the airplane is pressurized normally and the ALTN VENT switch is ON, there is no air flow through the alternate ventilation system.
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
132
At what altitude is the APU bleed available?
Bleed air is available at or below 22,000 feet.
| AOM VOL II 7-34
133
What determines the PACK outlet temperature?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
If the FLT DECK TEMP or MAIN DECK CARGO TEMP selector setting is unavailable to the pack temperature controller, the pack outlet temperature is regulated to achieve either the last temperature set or an average flight deck temperature of 75°F (24°C).
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
134
What does the “OFF” light represent in the PACK switch?
OFF illuminated (amber) – Pack flow control valve is closed. The valve is commanded closed and the OFF light is illuminated when:
1. Pack valve is failed closed, or
2. A pack or compressor outlet high temperature has occurred, or
3. Bleed air pressure is inadequate, or
4. R PACK valve is closed during APU to Pack Takeoff procedure, or
5. PACK switch is pushed off.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
135
What has happened when the EQUIP COOLING switch shows OVRD?
OVRD (override) illuminated (amber) – equipment cooling override valve is open. The override valve opens and the equipment cooling system configures to override mode when:
1. Both equipment cooling supply fans are failed, or
2. Smoke is detected in the equipment cooling system, or
3. Low air flow in flight
4. EQUIPMENT COOLING switch is off, or
5. CARGO FIRE ARM FWD/AFT switch is in ARMED 6. Standby power operation
(AOM VOL II 2-1)
136
What is the external indication that the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative?
On the ground, the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING is displayed and the ground crew call horn in the NOSE wheel well sounds if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
(AOM VOL II 2-18)
137
What does “FAULT” represent on the TRIM AIR Switch?
FAULT illuminated (amber) – 1. Trim air valve is failed closed, or 2. Trim air valve is commanded closed because a zone supply duct overheat has occurred, or 3. TRIM AIR switch is off.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
138
What occurred if the “CLOSED” light illuminated in the ISLN Switches?
CLOSED illuminated (amber) –
1. Valve is closed because a duct leak or bleed loss has occurred, or 2. Valve is failed closed, or 3. Switch is off
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
139
“OFF” illuminated in the APU Bleed switch means?
1. Closed because a duct leak
2. Valve failed closed
3. Switch is off
4. APU fire switch is pulled out
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
140
“OFF” illuminated in the ENG Bleed switch means?
The engine bleed valve is closed.
The engine bleed valve is commanded closed and the OFF light is illuminated when:
1. Engine not running, or
2. Bleed overheat, overpressure, bleed control system failure, or
3. Valve failed closed, or
4. The L ENG bleed valve is closed during APU to pack takeoff, or
5. The ENG fire switch is pulled out, or
6. The switch is off.
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
141
Up to what altitude is APU bleed air available?
22,000'
Electrical power is available throughout the airplane operating envelope. Bleed air is available at or below 22,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
142
What does the Air Conditioning Reset (AIR COND RESET) Switch do?
1. Attempts to reset any closed pack valve flow control valve or trim air valve held closed because an overheat, control failure, or valve failure has occurred.
2. Attempts to reset a failed recirculation fan
3. Resets fault protection
Pack control, fault detection, and overheat protection are all automatic. If an overheat or other significant pack fault is detected, the pack shuts down automatically. An attempt to restore pack operation may be made by pressing the AIR COND RESET switch.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
143
How would you recognize when the packs are in the Standby Cooling Mode?
In standby cooling mode, the EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L, R) is displayed, and STBY COOLING is displayed in amber on the AIR synoptic.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
144
How is PACK control achieved after a failure of the PACK controller?
Each pack is controlled by two redundant channels in one of two separate controllers. If one channel fails in a controller, control of the respective pack is continued automatically by the redundant channel in that controller.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
145
How is cooling achieved during standby cooling mode?
The remaining pack, or
If both packs are in standby cooling mode, or if one pack is inoperative and the other pack is in standby cooling mode, the packs or pack operates continuously to maintain cabin pressurization, regardless of altitude or outside air temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
146
What would cause a single pack in STBY mode to shut down?
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling. The pack restarts automatically when altitude and outside air temperatures are suitable for standby cooling.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
147
What controls the PACK outlet temp?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
148
What is the default temp if control is lost?
If the FLT DECK TEMP or MAIN DECK CARGO TEMP selector setting is unavailable to the pack temperature controller, the pack outlet temperature is regulated to achieve either the last temperature set or an average flight deck temperature of 75°F (24°C).
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
149
Which two cargo compartments are heated with bleed air?
MAIN DECK, LWR AFT/BULK
| AOM VOL II 2-15/2-16
150
When are the engine bleed valves automatically closed?
1. Source loss
2. Overtemperature/overpressure
3. Bleed duct leak
4. Engine fire switch is pulled
5. When a ground cart is supplying air
(AOM VOL II 2-22)
151
What air is used for EAI?
The engine anti-icing valves are opened by engine bleed air pressure. When an engine anti-icing valve is open, EAI is displayed on the primary EICAS display.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
152
Without accurate FMC cruise altitude data, what is the assumed cruise altitude?
If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of 39,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
153
What is the max cabin altitude?
In cabin altitude controller cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is 8,000 feet. When the takeoff field elevation is higher than 8,000 feet, the cabin descends to the cabin cruise altitude while the airplane is climBing.
When the destination airport elevation is greater than 8,000 feet, cabin altitude controller cruise mode maintains a cabin altitude of 8,000 feet.
The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves if cabin altitude exceeds 15,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
154
Where does the landing altitude barometric pressure correction come from?
The captain's altimeter setting provides landing altitude barometric pressure correction.
Landing elevation limits are 1,000 feet below sea level to 14,000 feet above sea level.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
155
What two manual operations will provide pressurization data on EICAS
1. Manually operating the outflow valves.
2. Pulling out the LANDING ALTITUDE selector.
(AOM VOL II 2-20)
156
When would the ON BAT light illuminate?
WHEN IT IS BEING POWERED BY THE HOT BATTERY BUS
If electrical power is subsequently removed from the airplane and the Battery switch is switched OFF, the hot battery bus continues to supply electrical power to the ADIRU.
The ON BAT light illuminates, and the horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds to alert maintenance personnel the ADIRU is on battery power.
The ON BAT light illuminates when the ADIRU switch is selected ON and ground power or primary power is subsequently removed or fails (battery power only remains).
Can only be turned off on the ground, and GS less than 30 kts.
(AOM VOL II 11-7)
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
157
What does the “OFF” light represent in the ADIRU Switch?
Speed is less than 30 kts, and the ADIRU switch has been selected off.
(AOM VOL II 11-7)
158
What kind of information does the ADIRU provide?
1. Primary flight data
2. Inertial Reference
3. Air Data
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
159
What PFD or ND flags might appear with an ADIRU failure or malfunction?
HDG (after 3 mins), LNAV, VNAV, LOC, TO/GA, GS, FPA, TRK HOLD/SEL
NO WIND ARROW, ND to TRACK UP.
More items are lost as listed in the QRH 11-5 to 11-6.
(AOM VOL II 11-14)
160
How is alignment achieved?
Airplane latitude/longitude position must be entered on the CDU POS INIT page. The airplane should not move until alignment is complete.
On initial power up the ADIRU enters align mode.
A position update is recommended if the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
If the entered position is not within 6NM of the FMC origin airport position, the scratchpad message INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE displays.
(AOM VOL II 11-81)
161
How long does ADIRU alignment take?
6-15 minutes.
Depends on latitude.
6 minutes at the equator, 10 minutes on average.
(AOM VOL I SP-27)
162
Is the ADIRU required for GPS navigation?
NO
If the ADIRU becomes inoperative during flight, the EICAS displays the message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL and the FMC uses only GPS data to navigate.
(AOM VOL II 11-11)
163
What bus is required to turn on the ADIRU?
HOT BATTERY BUS (BATTERY BUS)
| AOM VOL II 11-13
164
When can the ADIRU switch be used to turn off the ADIRU?
On the ground, speed less than 30 kts.
| AOM VOL II 11-7
165
What will provide pilots air data after failure of the ADIRU
SAARU
| AOM VOL II 11-14
166
What can the SAARU supply after an ADIRU failure?
1. ATTITUDE
2. HEADING
3. AIR DATA
(AOM VOL II 11-14)
167
How long does the SAARU supply backup heading for?
3 MINS
| AOM VOL II 11-14
168
When selected to AUTO will the Engine Anti-Ice work automatically in the air or on the ground?
In flight, when an ENGINE ANTI–ICE selector is in AUTO and engine icing conditions exist, the respective engine anti-icing valve is commanded open.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
169
Is the aircraft certified for flight in icing conditions with Wing Anti-Ice inoperative?
NO.
(MEL 30-11-1) Known or forecasted icing conditions not allowed.
The airplane is capable of continued safe flight and landing in icing conditions in the event of an in-flight failure of the wing anti-ice system.
(AOM VOL I SP-41)
170
When is an engine static run up required prior to takeoff in icing conditions?
OAT is 3 degrees and below
50% N1 for approximately 1 second, at intervals no greater than 60 mins.
Ensure engine vibration indications are below 4 units before the start of the takeoff roll.
(AOM VOL I SP-37)
171
Is takeoff allowed on a contaminated runway with reduced thrust using assumed temperature method?
NO
| AOM VOL I SP-35
172
What is the Objective of the EICAS message ‘Ice Crystal Icing?
To exit the ice crystal icing conditions and reduce the operational effects of the icing.
(QRH 3-6)
173
Can wing anti-ice be turned on during ground operations?
NO. It is inhibited.
The wing anti-ice system may be used as a de-icer or anti-ice in flight only.
(AOM VOL I SP-41)
174
When would you manually move the engine anti-ice switches to ON?
Engine anti-ice must be selected ON immediately after BOTH engines are started and remain on during all ground operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except when the temperature is below -40.
(AOM VOL I SP-37)
175
How is proper operation of engine and wing anti-ice indicated?
When an engine anti-icing valve is open, EAI is displayed on the primary EICAS display.
When a wing anti-icing valve is open, WAI is displayed on the primary EICAS display.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
176
In Auto, when is the wing anti-ice inhibited for takeoff?
Automatic wing anti–icing operation is inhibited when: TAKEOFF mode is selected, and less than 10 minutes has elapsed after liftoff
When TAT is above 10 degrees C, wing anti-icing is inhibited for five minutes after liftoff.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
177
When are the Pitot probes heated?
Three pitot-static probes and two angle of attack probes are electrically heated for anti-icing protection when either engine is operating.
(AOM VOL II 3-6)
178
When is the TAT probe heated?
The total air temperature probe is electrically heated for anti-icing protection in flight.
(AOM VOL II 3-6)
179
Within what intercept track angle must the Localizer be to capture?
120 degrees of the localizer.
| AOM VOL II 4-13
180
By what speed must the TOGA switches be pressed on takeoff to engage the autothrottle?
Speed less than 50 knots.
If 50 knots or above, it can be engaged above 400'
(AOM VOL II 4-31)
181
What modes will the autothrottle not provide stall protection?
FLCH, TOGA or HOLD.
With the autothrottle armed and not active, the autothrottle activates when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, FPA, VNAV ALT, VNAV PATH, G/S or there is no active pitch mode, and:
Speed is less than an FMC calculated value for one second, and
Thrust is below reference thrust limit, and
Baro altitude is 400' above the airport on takeoff or airplane altitude is above 100' RA on approach.
If speed decreases to near stick shaker activation, the auto throttle automatically activates in SPD mode and advances thrust to maintain minimum maneuvering speed ( approx top of amber band) or the speed set in the IAS/MACH window, whichever is greater.
(AOM VOL II 4-29)
182
Selecting the Autopilot Disengage Bar to the down position will have what effect on bank angle protection?
It will disable the bank angle protection feature.
| AOM VOL II 4-2
183
When will LNAV activate if selected?
When armed on takeoff, LNAV engages at or above 50 feet, when laterally within 2.5 nautical miles of the active route leg.
184
What is the required position of the MCP altitude selector after selection of an altitude?
If required to climb or descend immediately after the selection, depress the button if in VNAV.
(AOM VOL II 4-26)
185
What is the function of the autopilot disengage bar?
1. Disengages all autopilots, and prevents re-engagement (If left pushed down).
2. Disables bank angle protection.
(AOM VOL II 4-2)
186
When FLCH is selected in autoflight what happens?
1. If the speed window was closed, opens the window, and displays the current speed, or target FMC target speed.
2. Selects FLCH SPD mode.
3. Autothrottle operates in THR until ALT is captured, then changes to SPD.
4. Autothrottles advances or retards to provide 500 FPM of VS for each 1000' of altitude change.
5. Attempts to reach the MCP altitude within 2 mins if able.
(AOM VOL II 4-7)
187
What is the difference between the HDG and TRK functions?
HDG- Airplane turns to or maintains the heading set in the window.
TRK- Airplane turns to or maintains the track, corrected for wind.
(AOM VOL II 4-25)
188
How do you deal with an inoperative EFIS control panel?
Access the backup control on the CDU menu page.
| QRH 10-5
189
What Autopilot modes can be armed?
LNAV, LOC, ROLLOUT.
Pitch modes:
VNAV, G/S (APP), FLARE
In flight TOGA is armed when flaps are out of up, or GS is captured.
(AOM 4-26/4-27)
190
Which mode cannot be disengaged by selecting another mode on MCP?
APP mode
To exit the APP mode:
1. Either TOGA is pushed after LOC and GS are captured, or
2. Autopilot and both FD switches are turned off, or
3. APP is deselected above 1500', or
4. LOC captured, GS armed, select HDG SEL or HDG HOLD.
(AOM VOL II 4-14)
191
When do the rudder pedals connect to the autopilot?
Runway alignment:
Crab angle more than 10 degrees this occurs at 500'
Crab angle between 5 and 10 degrees, the initial at 500', second alignment at 200'.
Crab angle less than 5 degrees, 200'.
(AOM VOL II 4-33)
ROLLOUT after touchdown.
(AOM VOL II 4-25)
Multi-autopilot go around until:
1. Another roll or pitch mode is selected, or
2. When altitude capture occurs above 400'.
(FCTM 5-56)
192
Hand flying with FDs off. If you command or select an Autopilot on, what modes will display on the FMA?
ROLL:
1. HDG HOLD, or
2. TRK HOLD, or
3. If bank angle is greater than 5 degrees, attitude hold (ATT).
PITCH:
1. VS, or
2. FPA
(AOM VOL II 4-1)
193
When will LNAV capture after takeoff?
50' RA, and within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
| AOM VOL II 4-5
194
When will VNAV capture after takeoff?
400' above the runway elevation.
| AOM VOL II 4-6
195
When will autothrottles disconnect during landing?
1. *Either TR is raised to reverse idle.
2. If the thrust levers are overidden during a manual landing, after the auto throttle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
3. Both engines shutdown.
* The EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC and aural alert are inhibited if the disconnect occurs because of reverse thrust.
(AOM VOL II 4-30)
196
When in flight with autopilot on and both FDs off, selecting a FD on will show what modes in FMA?
The first flight director switch positioned on activates the currently selected autopilot mode(s).
(AOM VOL II 4-2)
197
What are the initial FD commands when you turn the FD switches on when parked at the gate?
BLANK | TOGA | TOGA
| AOM VOL II 4-2
198
When must TOGA be selected by on takeoff?
With speed less than 50 kts. If not it is available at 400'.
(AOM VOL II 4-31)
199
With a V1 speed of 154kts, you inadvertently select TOGA at 110kts. What will occur?
It will disarm LNAV/VNAV.
| AOM VOL II 4-31
200
What happens when you select TOGA immediately after T/O?
Removes the takeoff and climb derates and ATM thrust reduction.
(AOM VOL II 4-31)
201
After a G/A, when can TOGA be terminated?
400'
At 200' LNAV automatically disconnects the lateral track.
(AOM VOL II 4-38)
202
The TOGA mode is terminated by:
1. Below 400' RA, disengage the autopilot and turn off both flight directors, or automatic LNAV activation (after automatic LNAV activation, a different roll mode can be selected).
2. Above 400' RA, select a different roll or pitch mode.
(AOM VOL II 4-37)
203
What does the EICAS ‘RADIO TRANSMIT' mean?
A VHF, or HF radio has transmitted for more than 30 seconds. After the transmission stops, the EICAS message is removed.
On the ground with both engines shut down, any VHF radio that transmits for more than 35 seconds is automatically disabled and an intermittent tone can be heard through the audio system for that radio. That radio is enabled when the microphone switch for that radio is released.
(AOM VOL II 5-25)
204
On which ACP should ︎DATA︎ be displayed?
The center VHF. On the ground, use of the center VHF is not allowed for ATC communications.
(AOM VOL I L-6)
205
What is the procedure for making an ︎Air-to-Ground︎ SATCOM call?
Press LSK for SAT-1, or SAT-2, and enter the desired number in the scratchpad using the following format:
Dial 00 + Country code + Area code + Number.
Example: 00 1 734 4840088
(AOM VOL I SP-18)
206
What indication would you have that an HF system failed to tune?
A tone lasting longer than 7 seconds.
Data is stored in the memory for the last 100 tuned frequencies. Stored frequencies may tune quickly and a tone may not be noticeable. Both HF radios share a common antenna. If either HF is transmitting, the antenna is disconnected form the other HF radio, and it cannot be used to transmit or receive. Both can receive at the same time if neither is being used for transmitting.
(AOM VOL II 5-24)
207
Which radios does the SELCAL system monitor?
The SECAL system monitors 3 VHF and 2 HF radios.
| AOM VOL II 5-25
208
When load shedding conditions exist, the message ︎LOAD SHED︎ will display where?
The message LOAD SHED displays on the electrical synoptic when load shed conditions exist.
If the electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external), ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority until the loads are within the capacity of the airplane or ground power generators. The load shedding is galleys first, then utility busses.
(AOM VOL II 6-7)
209
In flight, when will the APU automatically start?
In flight, if both AC transfer busses lose power, the APU automatically starts, regardless of APU selector position. The APU can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON, then OFF.
(AOM VOL II 7-35)
210
If both IDGs and the APU generator are inoperative, what powers essential airplane equipment?
If both IDGs and the APU generator are inoperative, a backup generator powers essential airplane equipment. To reduce electrical loading on the backup generator, the following systems are inoperative:
* TCAS
* SATCOM
* Right HF radio
* Center tank override/jettison pumps (center tank fuel is unusable and cannot be jettisoned)
* Position and other exterior lights (except nose gear landing lights)
* All non-essential cabin equipment (galleys, entertainment systems, etc.)
* Supernumerary cabin lighting (except night, galley and cross-aisle lights)
* Cabin temperature control (remains operative, but in degraded mode)
(AOM VOL II 6-14)
211
If the RAT is unable to maintain sufficient RPM does it continue to provide electrical power?
If the RAT is unable to maintain RPM, the RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is satisfactory. Power for standby electrical loads is provided by the main battery during deployment of the RAT and when RAT generator loads are shed.
The RAT is deployed automatically if both AC transfer busses lose power in flight. The RAT can be manually deployed by pushing the RAM AIR TURBINE switch on the overhead panel.
(AOM VOL II 6-20)
212
How many electrical power sources are required for an autoland?
3
During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent sources to power the three autopilots:
The left IDG powers the left AC transfer bus, the left main DC bus, and the captain's flight instrument bus
The backup system powers the right AC transfer bus, the right DC bus, and the first officer's flight instrument bus.
The right IDG powers the battery bus and AC standby bus through the main battery charger
(AOM VOL II 6-12)
213
How many main batteries are on the 777?
2
The main battery is connected directly to the hot battery bus and provides standby power to other busses (See Standby Electrical System). The main battery charger normally powers the hot battery bus and main- tains the main battery fully charged.
The APU battery is connected directly to the APU battery bus and provides dedicated power to the APU electric starter, which is used when sufficient bleed air duct pressure is unavailable for the APU air turbine starter. The APU battery charger normally powers the APU battery bus and maintains the APU battery fully charged.
(AOM VOL II 6-16)
214
Can the BATTERY switch be turned off in flight? On the ground?
On the ground, YES. In flight, NO it is inhibited.
| AOM VOL II 6-1
215
You enter a cold airplane and find the EXT PWR AVAIL lights on. What must you do before selecting external power ON?
Interior Safety Check to permit the safe application of power.
(AOM VOL I NP-10)
216
What does the external power AVAIL light indicate?
External power is plugged in and power quality is acceptable.
(AOM VOL II 6-3)
217
Which external power source should be connected first?
PRIMARY to ensure the Ground Handling Bus is powered.
The GHB can only be powered by the APU, or PRI external power. This allows use of Cargo Handling items (Doors, Handling, Lights) MX lights, Fueling etc.
(AOM VOL II 6-12)
218
What happens when the SECONDARY EXT PWR switch is pushed?
If the BATTERY switch is ON and no other source is powering the main busses, pushing the SECONDARY EXTERNAL POWER switch ON connects secondary external power to both main busses.
(AOM VOL II 6-9)
219
What is the electrical source priority?
The source order for powering left and right main busses in flight is the:
1. Respective IDG 2. APU generator 3. Opposite IDG.
(AOM VOL II 6-11)
220
What is the ELM (Electric Load Management System)?
The ELMS provides load management and protection to ensure power is available to critical and essential equipment.
If the electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external), ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority until the loads are within the capacity of the airplane or ground power generators. The load shedding is galleys first, then utility busses.
(AOM VOL II 6-7)
221
How would you know that load shedding took place?
The message LOAD SHED displays on the electrical synoptic when load shed conditions exist.
(AOM VOL II 6-7)
222
Will the IDG ever auto disconnect?
High drive temperature causes the IDG to disconnect automatically.
The DRIVE light illuminates and the EICAS message ELEC GEN DRIVE L or R displays when low oil pressure is detected in an IDG. The IDG drive can be disconnected from the engine by pushing the respective DRIVE DISCONNECT switch. The IDG cannot be reconnected by the flight crew.
(AOM VOL II 6-7)
223
Under what condition would the APU start automatically?
In flight, when both transfer busses are unpowered, the APU starts automatically, regardless of APU selector position.
(AOM VOL II 6-8)
224
What is the Generator priority?
The source order for powering left and right main busses in flight is the:
1. Respective IDG
2. APU generator
3. Opposite IDG.
225
What is the normal source of power for the Ground Service Bus?
Normally powered by the right main bus.
Alternate sources of power are:
1. APU generator
2. PRI external power
The Ground Service bus powers:
1. Main Battery Charger
2. APU Battery Charger
3. MISC cabin and system loads.
(AOM VOL II 6-11)
226
The Ground Handling Bus can only be powered on the ground. How is it powered?
The ground handling bus can be powered on the ground only from the APU generator or from the primary external power source. It is provided for loads such as cargo handling, fueling/ defueling operations, and other equipment energized only during ground operations.
(AOM VOL II 6-12)
227
What︎s the main function of the Back-Up Generators?
Backup power for the Transfer busses.
The backup electrical system automatically powers one or both transfer busses when:
1. Only one main AC generator (includes APU) is available. 2. Power to one or both of the main AC busses is lost. 3. Approach (APP) mode is selected for auto-land.
(AOM VOL II 6-14)
228
Backup Generator OFF Lights Illuminated means?
1. Switch is off, or
2. A fault occurred, or
3. Engine is shutdown, or
4. Engine fire switch is out, or
5. If both OFF lights are illuminated, the backup generator converter failed. Only one BUG can connect to the converter at a time.
(AOM VOL II 6-3)
229
How does a BACKUP GEN create DC power?
PMG's
Each backup generator contains two permanent magnet generators (PMGs) that supply power to the flight control DC electrical system.
(AOM VOL II 6-14)
230
STBY Electrical system supplies power to?
The standby electrical system can supply AC and DC power to selected flight instruments, communications and navigation systems, and the flight control system, if there are primary electrical power system failures.
1. Center ILS and Radio Altimeter (AC)
2. Left Transponder/ Marker beacon/ VOR (AC)
3. Engine Igniters (AC)
4. Captain and FO PFD/ND (DC)
5. Upper EICAS (DC)
6. Left CDU (DC)
(AOM VOL II 6-18, BOEING CBT'S)
231
What type of power is supplied by the STBY Elect System?
AC/DC
The standby electrical system can supply AC and DC power to selected flight instruments, communications and navigation systems, and the flight control system, if there are primary electrical power system failures.
The standby electrical system consists of:
1. Main battery.
2. Standby inverter.
3. RAT generator and its associated generator control unit.
4. C1 and C2 TRUs.
(AOM VOL II 6-18)
232
If the RAT was deployed, what does it power?
C1 AND C2 TRU'S AND CENTER HYD SYSTEM.
The RAT generator provides standby power to the C1 and C2 TRUs. The RAT generator has no operating time limits, and operates at all airspeeds and altitudes.
The RAT can supply electrical and hydraulic power simultaneously. If the RAT is unable to maintain RPM, the RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is satisfactory. Power for standby electrical loads is provided by the main battery during deployment of the RAT and when RAT generator loads are shed.
(AOM VOL II 6-20)
233
What, if anything, will cause the RAT to deploy?
```
H:All hydraulic systems have low press.
E:Dual engine failure and low CTR press.
E:Both Transfer busses lose power.
D:Manually deploying by button
(AOM VOL II 6-20 & 13-9)
```
234
What is the APU ︎attended mode︎?
Either engine is running or starting, or when the airplane is in flight.
(AOM VOL II 7-35)
235
If there is no AC power on the airplane, what provides fuel pressure to the APU?
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
236
When does the EEC select ︎Approach Idle︎?
Inflight only.
1. EAI is on.
2. Flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
3. One air demand pump is inoperative, and flaps are out of up.
4. Opposite engine bleed valve is closed.
(AOM VOL II (7-22)
237
When is the EEC is ︎Soft Mode︎?
When the EEC automatically switches an engine to the alternate mode and the EEC mode switch remains in NORM, the EEC is in the soft alternate mode (the switch position is NORM, the EEC mode is alternate). At a fixed thrust lever position, thrust does not change.
(AOM VOL II 7-21)
238
During autostart, what indications are not monitored?
Oil pressure and temperature.
| AOM VOL II 2-24
239
What will happen if the EEC detects a rapid N2 power reduction to less than idle RPM?
AUTO RELIGHT
An auto–relight capability is provided for flameout protection and sub–idle stall recovery. If the EEC detects an engine flameout, both ignitors activate. A flameout is detected when a rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 is less than idle RPM. If a sub–idle stall is detected, fuel is shut off for one second in an attempt to clear the stall.
(AOM VOL II 7-26)
240
What system powers the thrust reversers?
Hydraulic L/R.
| AOM VOL II 7-31
241
What does the green carrot on the outside of the EPR or N1 graphic represent?
Reference N1 limit.
| AOM VOL II 7-3
242
How is the ground start limit EGT depicted on the EGT gauge?
RED, with the fuel control switch in cutoff, or N2 below idle.
(AOM VOL II 7-4)
243
What protection is available in the alternate mode?
OVER SPEED, NOT OVERBOOST
Advancing the thrust levers full forward provides some overboots and should be considered only during an emergency situations when all other available options have been taken and terrain contact is imminent.
(AOM VOL II 7-22)
244
What is the difference between the soft and hard alternate modes?
SOFT- Automatic, HARD- Manually depressing the switch.
Soft – When the EEC automatically switches an engine to the alternate mode and the EEC mode switch remains in NORM, the EEC is in the soft alternate mode (the switch position is NORM, the EEC mode is alternate). At a fixed thrust lever position, thrust does not change.
Hard – When ALTN is manually selected on an EEC mode switch, that engine is switched to the hard alternate mode (the switch position is ALTN, the EEC mode is alternate). Reference and target N1, and maximum and commanded N1 values are displayed on the N1 indication during the hard alternate mode. Thrust may change to set the commanded N1 when ALTN is manually selected.
(AOM VOL II 7-21-22)
245
Is autothrottle operation affected in the ALTN mode?
NO
Autothrottles remains engaged in the soft or hard alternate mode.
(AOM VOL II 7-22)
246
For what malfunctions will the EEC abort an engine start?
3 STARTS, 2nd, uses both ignitors, 3RD adjusts the fuel.
1. HOT START
2. HUNG START
3. NO EGT
4. STALL
WILL ONLY ATTEMPT 1 START
5. NO ROTATION
6. AIR INSUFFCIENT
7. TIME EXCEEDED
8. STARTER SHAFT FAILURE
(AOM VOL II 7-24)
247
What parameters are not monitored by the autostart system?
Oil pressure and oil temperature.
| AOM VOL II 7-24
248
How many ground autostart attempts will be made without recycling the START switch
3 or 1
(AOM VOL II
249
How many inflight auto-relight attempts will be made following a flameout?
For in–flight starts, auto-start makes continuous start attempts until the engine either starts or the pilot aborts the start attempt by positioning the FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF (and positioning the start switch to NORM if it was a starter assisted attempt).
(AOM VOL II 7-25)
250
Without AC power, what is the source of fuel for an APU start? With AC power?
Without AC power:
DC pump in the left main tank. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
With AC power:
APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold by any operating AC fuel pump, or
With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, the left forward fuel pump operates automatically.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
251
What is the meaning of the FAULT light after the APU is started?
1. APU fault or fire is detected.
2. APU shutdown due to a fault and/or a fire.
It momentarily comes on during the APU controller self test.
(AOM VOL II 7-16)
252
What will cause an APU automatic shutdown?
Attended is either engine running or starting, or inflight.
ATTENDED: OSC FIRE/ OVERTEMP INLET
1. Overspeed or loss of overspeed protection.
2. Speed droop
3. Controller failure
4. Fire/ Inlet over temperature.
5. Inlet over temp
UNATTENDED:
1. Overspeed or loss of overspeed protection.
2. Speed droop.
3. Controller failure.
4. HIGH EGT, HIGH OIL TEMP
5. LOW oil pressure, oil filter bypass.
6. Fire/ Inlet over temperature.
7. Intake door failure.
8. Hung start, No start (no combustion).
(AOM VOL II 7-35)
253
During a walk-around, an APU fire is indicated by an intermittent horn and red light on the aft panel of the nose wheel strut. What is your action?
1. Depress the APU fire shutdown switch.
2. Depress the APU bottle discharge switch.
(AOM VOL II 8-6)
254
How is an APU fire handled in the attended mode?
Follow QRH procedures.
Bottle must be manually discharged.
(QRH 8-1)
255
What pilot actions would cause the automatic display of the secondary engine page?
1. Fuel control switch to cutoff in flight.
2. Engine fire switch pulled in flight.
Without pilot action they will display for:
1. FUEL FLOW ENG L,R alert message displayed.
2. A secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or
3. N2 is below idle in flight.
(AOM VOL II 7-20)
256
When are EGT indications inhibited from changing to Amber
1. Takeoff for 5 mins, or
2. Go Around for 5 mins.
(AOM VOL II 7-20)
257
What are the two types of ALTN Modes on EEC?
1. Soft
2. Hard
(AOM VOL II 7-22)
258
What protections are available in ALTN mode?
OVER SPEED, not OVER BOOST.
| AOM VOL II 7-22
259
When will ENG FAIL appear on the PFDs?
When engine falls below idle speed.
| AOM VOL II 7-23
260
How many fire detection loops are required to indicate an engine fire?
BOTH, unless single loop operation, then the remaining loop.
| AOM VOL II 8-7
261
Is EICAS Overheat Engine a ︎Caution︎ or a ︎Warning︎?
CAUTION
Overheat system uses the same loops as the FIRE DETECTION.
(AOM VOL II 8-8)
262
A fire is reported or indicated in or near an engine while on the ground, but there is no Fire Warning, should you discharge the fire bottles?
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) ........................................ CUTOFF
DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE SHUTDOWN HAS OCCURED.
If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown:
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ......................................................... Pull
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) .................................................... Rotate
After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ........................... Rotate (to other bottle)
x Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.
(QRH BC-1)
If an engine fire warning light is not illuminated, but a fire indication exists or a fire is reported in or near an engine, discharge both available fire bottles into the affected engine.
(FCTM 8-9)
263
If there is an APU fire Warning what action is required to shut down the APU?
An APU fire warning automatically shuts down the APU.
| AOM VOL II 8-9
264
Following a Fire Wheel Well Warning EICAS, what is the first check list action?
Do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed of (270K/.82M).
| QRH 8-14
265
Does the Main Deck Cargo compartment have a fire extinguishing system or a fire suppression system?
Fire suppression. It initiates a controlled depressurization to a cabin altitude of approximately 23,000' with the airplane altitude at 25,000'.
(AOM VOL II 8-12)
266
CARGO FIRE ARM Switches Armed does what?
ALL SWITCHES:
Fans: both recirculation, lavatory/galley vent fans shutdown
Air: Low flow to cockpit and supernumerary only, heat off, nitrogen generation system off.
Electrical power outlets turn off.
LWR AFT or LWR FWD:
Arms the bottles and flow valve.
Equipment cooling to override mode.
Turns off air conditioning to the respective compartment.
MAIN DECK:
Air: Pack to EE cooling, aft cargo air conditioning supply and exhaust off, main deck air flow turned off.
Inhibits lower cargo fire warnings.
(AOM VOL II 8-4)
267
How many engine fire bottles are there?
2
| AOM VOL II 8-8
268
What is the firing sequence upon pushing the CARGO DISCHARGE switch?
AIRBORNE:
2 BOTTLES IMMEDIATELY, then the other 3 are metered after 20 minutes.
If the plane lands before 20 minutes, one of the metered bottles discharges at touchdown.
ON THE GROUND:
2 BOTTLES IMMEDIATELY, then 1 of the metered bottles discharges after 20 mins.
(AOM VOL II 8-11, 8-12) (BOEING CBT)
269
What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU on the ground without engines running?
This is “unattended mode”.
APU will shut down immediately and the bottle will discharge automatically.
(AOM VOL II 8-9)
270
What will happen if a fire is detected in the APU on the ground with an engine running?
This is “attended mode”.
APU will shut down immediately and the bottle must be manually discharged.
(AOM VOL II 8-9)
271
Once a cargo fire ARM switch is pushed, are the extinguishers committed to that compartment?
No, it may be de-selected.
| AOM VOL II 8-4
272
Once a CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed, are the extinguishers committed to that compartment?
Arming functions occur, but the bottles are directed into the previously armed compartment since the DISCH switch has been pushed.
You can disarm by deselecting either switch.
(AOM VOL II, BOEING CBT)
273
What will happen if both FWD and AFT switches are armed?
The extinguishing agent is divided between the two compartments.
This results in insufficient concentration in both areas.
(BOEING CBT)
274
What is tested when pushing the TEST button?
The fire and overheat detection systems.
1. APU fire loops.
2. CARGO smoke detection.
3. ENGINE fire/overheat loops.
4. WHEEL WELL fire detection loops.
(AOM VOL II 8-13)
275
How long should the button be held in?
When the test is complete, the EICAS warning message FIRE TEST PASS or FIRE TEST FAIL replaces the FIRE TEST IN PROG message; the switch can be released.
AOM VOL II 8-13)
276
What 2 protections are provided for the engines?
There are two detector loops in each engine nacelle. Each detector loop provides both fire and overheat detection. Normally, both loops must detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution. If a fault is detected in one loop, the system automatically switches to single loop operation. If the operating loop senses a fire or overheat, the system provides the appropriate fire warning or overheat caution. If there are faults in both detector loops in an engine nacelle, no fire or overheat detection is provided. The EICAS advisory message DET FIRE ENG (L or R) is displayed if the engine fire detection system fails.
(AOM VOL II 8-7)
277
“DET FIRE ENG (L/R)︎ on EICAS Indicates?
Affected engine fire detection and overheat are inoperative.
(AOM VOL II 8-14)
278
How is the Fire and Overheat detection system tested?
Automatically at power up, or manually at any time by pressing the FIRE/OVERHEAT TEST switch.
(AOM VOL II 8-13)
279
When using the secondary or alternate flaps extension system what is the recommended method for setting command speed?
Since the flaps extend more slowly when using the secondary or alternate system, it is recommended that the crew delay setting the new command speed until the flaps reach the selected position.
(FCTM 8-11)
280
Below what speed is the wheel to rudder cross-tie effective?
Wheel to rudder cross–tie is operative in flight below 210 knots in the normal mode.
(AOM VOL II 9-29)
281
Which speedbrake panels are locked out in Secondary and Direct flight modes?
Roll control in the secondary and direct modes is very similar to roll control in the normal mode. Bank angle protection is not available in either the secondary or direct mode. Spoilers 5 and 10 are always locked out.
(AOM VOL II 9-28)
282
Which flap positions can be selected for takeoff?
5, 15 and 20.
| AOM VOL II 9-32
283
What happens if the flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position?
In the primary mode, the flap load relief system protects the flaps from excessive air loads. If flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate to the airspeed. Flaps start to retract when air- speed is 1 knot higher than the flap placard airspeed. Load relief retraction is limited to flaps 5. When airspeed is 5 knots below the flap placard airspeed for the commanded flap position, the flaps auto- matically re-extend. Re–extension is limited to the commanded flap position.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
284
What are the three primary fly-by-wire operating modes?
NORMAL, SECONDARY and DIRECT.
| AOM VOL II 9-19
285
What is indicated by an illuminated DISC light on the PFC panel?
The primary flight computers are disconnected automatically or manually and the system is in the direct mode.
(AOM VOL II 9-1)
286
In the direct mode, is aircraft control degraded and is the autopilot still available?
The direct mode provides full airplane control for continued safe flight and landing. Airplane handling qualities are approximately the same as in the secondary mode. The EICAS caution message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS is displayed when the system is in the direct mode.
AUTOPILOT is not available.
(AOM VOL II 9-22)
287
How many modes of flap operation are there?
3
Primary (Hydraulic)
Secondary (Electric)
Alternate (Electric)
(AOM VOL II 9-32)
288
How do you know when the primary system has failed?
If flap/slat control is in the secondary or alternate mode, or if any non–normal condition is detected, an expanded flap indication is displayed automatically.
If the flap or slat is operating in the primary mode, uncommanded motion first causes an automatic transfer to the secondary mode. The EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL is displayed. If motion continues, the system shuts down. The EICAS message FLAPS DRIVE or SLATS DRIVE is displayed.
(AOM VOL II 9-34)
289
In the primary mode, when will flap trailing edge load relief work with excessive speed?
In the primary mode, the flap load relief system protects the flaps from excessive air loads. If flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with the flaps in the 15 through 30 position, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate to the airspeed. Flaps start to retract when airspeed is 1 knot higher than the flap placard airspeed. Load relief retraction is limited to flaps 5.
When airspeed is 5 knots below the flap placard airspeed for the commanded flap position, the flaps automatically re-extend. Re–extension is limited to the commanded flap position.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
290
What does an EICAS message FLAPS DRIVE indicate?
Flap drive mechanism has failed.
If the flap or slat is operating in the primary mode, uncommanded motion first causes an automatic transfer to the secondary mode. The EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL is displayed. If motion continues, the system shuts down. The EICAS message FLAPS DRIVE or SLATS DRIVE is displayed.
(AOM VOL II 9-35)
291
How many Primary Flight Computers are there?
3
| AOM VOL II 9-19
292
With the switch in the AUTO position, what flight control mode should be active?
NORMAL
| AOM VOL II 9-19
293
What are the three flight control modes?
NORMAL
SECONDARY
DIRECT
(AOM VOL II 9-19)
294
What envelope protections exist in the Normal Mode?
1. STALL
2. OVERSPEED PROTECTION
3. BANK ANGLE PROTECTION
(AOM VOL II 9-20)
295
Is envelope protection available in the Secondary or Direct modes? TAC?
Envelope protections are only available in Normal mode.
(AOM VOL II 9-20)
TAC is NOT available in SECONDARY OR DIRECT.
(AOM VOL II 9-21)
296
What would an illuminated DISC light indicate?
1. PRIMARY flight controls are disconnected automatically or manually.
2. The flight control system is operating in the DIRECT MODE.
(AOM VOL II 9-1)
297
For what engine malfunctions will thrust asymmetry compensation work?
If the thrust level on one engine differs by 10 percent or more from the other engine, TAC automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw.
TAC is available except:
1. Airspeed is below 70 kts on the ground, or
2. Reverse thrust is applied, or
3. When automatically disengaged due to system malfunction or loss if engine thrust data.
(AOM VOL II 9-29)
298
During the takeoff roll, at what speed is TAC available?
TAC is available @70 knots and above.
| AOM VOL II 9-29
299
What percentage of thrust level difference between engines will activate TAC?
10%
| AOM VOL II 9-29
300
How are the flaps and slats powered after a hydraulic failure?
Electrically
| AOM VOL II 9-32
301
Which units receives the pilot control inputs directly?
ACE's (Actuator Control Units)
(AOM VOL II
302
Where do the ACEs send pilot inputs to?
In NORMAL MODE and SECONDARY MODE, signals are sent to the PFC's.
In DIRECT MODE, signals are sent directly to the control surface actuators.
(AOM VOL II 9-22)
303
Where do PFCs send control commands?
In NORMAL and SECONDARY, the signals are sent back to the ACE's.
In DIRECT the PFC's are not used.
(AOM VOL II 9-22)
304
Where are Autopilot commands sent to?
In NORMAL mode only, they are sent directly to the PFC's.
| AOM VOL II 9-20
305
When do Flaperons droop?
The flaperons move down and aft in proportion to trailing edge flap extension.
(AOM VOL II 9-16)
306
When do ailerons droop?
FLAPS 5, 15 and 20.
| AOM VOL II 9-16
307
What is the effect of pilot override on the controls during autopilot operations?
If the pilot overrides the autopilot with control inputs, the PFCs disconnect the autopilot and use the pilot control inputs. The autopilot is only available during normal mode operation.
(AOM VOL II 9-19)
308
In which control mode is the autopilot available?
Normal only.
| AOM VOL II 9-21/22
309
What protections are lost when in secondary mode?
1. STALL (Auto slats: MID—> FULL, Elevator trim feel, A/T)
2. OVERSPEED (Overspeed trim feel)
3. BANK (Yoke feel, over 35 degrees, returns to 30 degrees of bank)
4. TAIL STRIKE
5. TAC
(AOM VOL II 9-21)
310
What is Trim Reference Speed?
The trim reference speed is the speed at which the airplane would eventually stabilize if there were no control column inputs. Once the control column forces are trimmed to zero, the airplane maintains a constant speed with no column inputs. Thrust changes result in a relatively constant indicated airspeed climb or descent, with no trim inputs needed unless airspeed changes.
When pilot trim inputs are made, the PFCs automatically move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator. Stabilizer motion may also automatically occur to streamline the stabilizer and elevator for thrust and configuration changes.
In the secondary and direct modes, both the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed.
(AOM VOL II 9-23/24)
311
How is the autopilot affected by the ALTN pitch trim levers?
The alternate pitch trim levers are linked to the stabilizer trim control modules (STCM) via control cables, and then mechanically to the stabilizer.
Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in all flight control modes. Moving the alternate pitch trim levers with the autopilot engaged does not disconnect the autopilot, but does move the stabilizer. Moving the alternate pitch trim levers during stall or overspeed protection does move the stabilizer, but does not remove column forces.
(AOM VOL II 9-23)
312
How many hydraulic systems power the Stabilizer?
2
The stabilizer is powered by the center and right hydraulic systems. Stabilizer position commands from the PFCs and alternate pitch trim levers are sent to the stabilizer trim control modules, which control hydraulic power to the stabilizer. There are two modules, one for each stabilizer hydraulic source.
(AOM VOL II 9-27)
313
How is stab green band calculation performed?
The green band is calculated using FMC inputs of:
1. CG
2. Gross Weight
3. Takeoff Thrust
(AOM VOL II 9-27)
314
How is green band calculation crosschecked?
A nose gear oleo pressure switch provides an automatic cross–check of the CG to ensure that the correct green band has been selected. When either the nose up or nose down band is selected, the pressure switch position is compared to the computed green band. The EICAS advisory message STAB GREEN- BAND is displayed if the pressure switch and the green band disagree. If the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer are not displayed.
(AOM VOL II 9-27)
315
When is Aileron trim inhibited?
Aileron trim is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.
| AOM VOL II 9-28
316
When is bank angle protection enabled?
Bank angle protection provides roll control wheel inputs when airplane bank angle exceeds the bank angle protection boundary of approximately 35°. If the boundary is exceeded, the control wheel force rolls the airplane back within 30° of bank.
(AOM VOL II 9-29)
317
In which mode and what speed is wheel to rudder crosstie available?
NORMAL MODE.
Wheel to rudder cross–tie is operative in flight below 210 knots in the normal mode.
(AOM VOL II 9-29)
318
In what modes are Gust suppression and TAC available?
NORMAL MODE ONLY
| AOM VOL II 9-22
319
Does gust suppression move the rudder pedals?
NO. Gust suppression transducers send signals directly to the ACE's
(AOM VOL II 9-30, BOEING CBT)
320
Does the speedbrake handle move automatically for extension?
1. In the ARMED position, the speedbrake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the landing gear is fully on the ground (not tilted) and the thrust levers are at idle.
2. On the ground when either reverse thrust lever is moved to the reverse idle detent, the speedbrakes automatically extend. The speedbrake lever does not need to be in the ARMED position.
(AOM VOL II 9-31)
321
If the speedbrake isn︎t armed for landing, will they still extend?
On the ground when either reverse thrust lever is moved to the reverse idle detent, the speedbrakes automatically extend. The speedbrake lever does not need to be in the ARMED position.
(AOM VOL II 9-31)
322
What surface moves when you select flaps 1?
PRIMARY MODE:
SLATS ONLY go to midrange until selecting of Flaps 25, then they extend to full.
SECONDARY MODE:
If below 256, SLATS FULLY EXTEND.
If the slats are in the midrange position (flaps 1 through 20) when the secondary mode is engaged, they remain in that position until the flaps are retracted to UP, or extended beyond 20.
ALTERNATE MODE:
The three–position alternate flaps selector extends and retracts the flaps and slats. The flaps and slats extend simultaneously, but slat retraction is inhibited until the flaps are up. Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited to slats midrange and flaps 20. Asymmetry protection, uncommanded motion protection, autoslats, and flap/slat load relief are not available in the alternate mode.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
323
What are the flap takeoff positions?
5,15, 20
| AOM VOL II 9-32
324
When will slats extend to full position?
PRIMARY MODE:
Selection of flaps 25 commands both the flaps and slats to move to landing positions. First the slats extend to the fully extended position, then the flaps extend to the landing flaps 25 position.
SECONDARY MODE:
At selection of Flaps 1 if below 256, SLATS FULLY EXTEND.
ALTERNATE MODE:
Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited to slats midrange and flaps 20.
(AOM VOL II 9-32)
325
How are the Slats/Flaps extended in the ALTN mode?
The alternate mode allows direct manual operation of the flaps and slats through the secondary drive electric motors, using the alternate flaps ARM switch.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
326
How are the Slats/Flaps extended in the ALTN mode?
The alternate mode allows direct manual operation of the flaps and slats through the secondary drive electric motors, using the alternate flaps ARM switch.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
327
Which flap positions have flap load relief?
PRIMARY MODE:
15 through 30
SECONDARY MODE:
Slat load relief is available in the secondary mode. If airspeed exceeds 256 knots with the slats fully extended, they retract to midrange and LOAD RELIEF is displayed.
ALTERNATE MODE:
NOT AVAILABLE
If a flap overspeed exists, load relief prevents flap extension beyond the 5, 15, 20, or 25 positions until airspeed is sufficiently reduced. Flap load relief is available only in the primary mode. The EICAS flap display indicates an in–transit flap condition and shows actual flap position. The flap lever does not move during flap load relief operation. Load relief for slats is not required in the primary or alternate modes.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
328
Which mode provides for Slat load relief?
Slat load relief is available in the secondary mode. If airspeed exceeds 256 knots with the slats fully extended, they retract to midrange and LOAD RELIEF is displayed.
(AOM VOL II 9-33)
329
When will the expanded flap indication be displayed?
If flap/slat control is in the secondary or alternate mode, or if any non–normal condition is detected, an expanded flap indication is displayed automatically.
(AOM VOL II 9-34)
330
What happens to a closed loop action item when completed in a checklist?
Closed loop action items continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever, or selector. In a few cases, actual system state, such as flap or landing gear position, is monitored. When the control is in the required position, the action item color changes to green and the complete indicator shows to the left of the action item. The current line item box then moves to the next incomplete line item.
(AOM VOL II 10-111)
331
What happens to the associated operational notes when a non-normal checklist is overridden?
The checklist override key overrides the current checklist. All of the line items change color to cyan. The checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of the page. For a non-normal checklist, all of its operational notes are removed from the operational notes page, deferred line items are removed from their normal checklists, and inhibit checklist line items become inactive.
(AOM VOL II 10-119)
332
What are the primary and secondary sources for speed, altitude, and attitude information?
PRIMARY: ADIRU
SECONDARY: SAARU
(AOM VOL II 11-13/14)
333
What does the airspeed trend vector indicate?
Indicates predicted airspeed in ten seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration.
(AOM VOL II 10-2)
334
What does a position trend vector indicate?
Predicts position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals.
Each segment represents 30 seconds. Based on bank angle and ground speed.
Selected range determines the number of segments displayed.
FOR RANGE:
Greater than 20 NM, 3 segments, 90 SECONDS.
20 NM, 2 segments, 60 SECONDS.
10 NM, 1 segment, 30 SECONDS.
(AOM VOL II 10-88)
335
What is the % derate for CLB 1, CLB 2?
CLB 1 uses a 10 percent derate of CLB thrust to 10,000 feet, then increases thrust linearly with altitude to CLB thrust at 12,000 feet.
CLB 2 uses a 20 percent derate of CLB thrust to 10,000 feet, then increases thrust linearly with altitude to CLB thrust at 12,000.
Use of an assumed temperature reduced thrust takeoff or takeoff derate affects automatic selection of climb derate. For a thrust reduction less than 10 percent, maximum climb thrust is automatically selected by the FMC.
For takeoff thrust reductions or derates from 10 percent to less than 20 percent, CLB 1 is selected. CLB 2 is selected for all takeoff thrust reductions or derates equal to or greater than 20 percent. On the ground, the pilots may override the automatic climb derate selection after the takeoff selection is complete.
(AOM VOL II 11-60)
336
Can you use the offset function on a SID or STAR?
The OFFSET function is available when the airplane is in flight and not on a SID, Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR), or transition.
(AOM VOL II 11-138)
337
How many GPS are onboard?
2 receivers, left and right.
| AOM VOL II 11-84
338
What does the EICAS message ︎ADS-B Failure︎ mean?
Left transponder is selected and the GPS L line is blank on POS REF 3/3, or
Right transponder is selected and the the GPS R line is blank on the POS REF 3/3.
(AOM VOL II 11-21, QRH 11-1)
339
When does the FMC transition to ︎On Approach︎ mode?
The FMC transitions to "on approach" mode for any of the following conditions:
1. The descent phase is active and flaps are out of up, or
2. The airplane has sequenced the first waypoint (or FAXXX) of the active approach, or
3. The airplane is on a direct-to or intercept course-to the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than 12 NM, or
4. The missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than 25 NM
The approach condition may be delayed if the flight crew manually inserts, bypasses, or deletes an approach waypoint on the LEGS page.
(AOM VOL II 11-51)
340
What ALTN CDU pages are available with the loss of both FMCs?
LEGS, PROG, NAV RAD
| AOM VOL II 11-62
341
Is either VNAV or LNAV available with a dual FMC failure?
If both FMCs fail, LNAV and VNAV fail. The EICAS advisory message FMC displays. The CDUs supply route data to the NDs, and one of the CDUs supplies LNAV guidance to the autopilot. LNAV can be reselected on the mode control panel.
The CDUs can be used as an alternate navigation system if both FMCs fail. The CDUs calculate lateral navigation for the autopilot flight director system (AFDS). Pushing the LNAV switch engages the lateral steering commands. A master CDU is selected and uses ADIRU position data for navigation. VNAV is not available. Autothrottles may be available. The CDU can be used to tune the navigation radios.
Dual FMC failure may inhibit the autothrottle system. If it is available, it may be used in conjunction with any valid autopilot roll and/or pitch mode.
(AOM VOL II 11-62 & 11-202)
342
With an approach selected, when will the ILS be auto tuned?
When the airplane is within 50 NM from the top of descent, or
150 NM of the landing runway threshold,
or the FMC is in descent mode
(AOM VOL II 11-19)
343
During Autoland, when does ILS tuning inhibit occur?
Either LOC or GS is captured.
| AOM VOL II 11-19
344
What EFIS modes are capable of displaying weather radar?
ALL MODES EXCEPT:
PLAN
VOR CTR
APP CTR
(AOM VOL II 11-22)
345
Which switch controls power to the weather radar transceiver?
The EFIS control panel weather radar (WXR) map switch controls power to the transmitter/ receiver and controls the weather radar display on the ND.
(AOM VOL II 11-22 & 10-31)
346
What is the maximum amount of fuel allowed in the center fuel tank if the wings tanks are less than full?
The center tank may contain up to 3000lbs of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tankful weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and CG limits are observed.
(AOM VOL I L-8)
347
Is APU fuel pump pressure powered by the DC or AC electrical system?
APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold by any operating AC fuel pump or the DC fuel pump. With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, the left forward fuel pump operates automatically. If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
348
Does the center fuel tank have dedicated jettison pumps?
The two center tank fuel pumps are override/jettison pumps. The pumps have higher output pressure than the left and right main tank fuel pumps. The center tank override/jettison pumps override the main tank pumps so the center tank fuel is used before wing tank fuel.
The center tank fuel pumps will shut off automatically after 15 seconds of continuous low pressure. Automatic center tank fuel pump shutoff is inhibited during jettison.
(AOM VOL II 12-10)
349
What is the minimum amount of fuel remaining in each wing tank after fuel jettison?
At least 11,500(772) 8,500(773,774) pounds of fuel remains in each main tank after jettison is complete.
(AOM VOL II 12-12)
350
What is the function of the FUEL JETTISON ARM switch?
It arms the jettison system, and sets the fuel to remain to the MLW quantity.
(AOM VOL II 12-2)
351
Fuel Pumps Pressure (PRESS) Light Illuminated Means?
Fuel pump output pressure is low.
| AOM VOL II 12-1
352
Center Fuel Pumps Pressure (PRESS) Lights Illuminated means?
Fuel pump output pressure is low with the pump commanded on. Illumination is inhibited when the center tank fuel pump switch is off.
(AOM VOL II 12-1)
353
Fuel Crossfeed VALVE Lights Illuminated?
The crossed valve is not in the commanded position.
| AOM VOL II 12-1
354
Fuel Jettison Nozzle VALVE Lights Illuminated?
The jettison nozzle valve is not in the commanded position.
| AOM VOL II 12-2
355
Fuel Jettison ARM Switch ARMED?
Arms the jettison system, set the fuel to remain to the MLW quantity.
(AOM VOL II 12-2)
356
Fuel Jettison FAULT Light Illuminated?
A fuel jettison system fault has occurred, the system is inoperative.
(AOM VOL II 12-2)
357
How does the APU receive fuel with no AC power available?
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
358
What are fuel imbalance indications?
A fuel imbalance pointer is displayed on the expanded fuel quantity display next to the low tank quantity for the following imbalance conditions.
A solid white pointer is displayed if:
Main tank fuel differs more than 10000 pounds
Main tank fuel differs more than 200 pounds and a crossfeed valve is open. IMBALANCE message is displayed. The difference in fuel quantity which causes the FUEL IMBALANCE message to be displayed varies with total main tank fuel quantity.
(AOM VOL II 12-4)
359
How is a “wrong way”︎ fuel crossfeed indicated?
The fuel imbalance pointer flashes if fuel balancing is going in the wrong direction. When fuel is back in balance within 200 pounds between the main tanks – FUEL BALANCED replaces FUEL QTY on the expanded fuel quantity display and flashes for 5 seconds.
(AOM VOL II 12-4)
360
Is it possible to dump fuel on the ground?
The nozzles cannot open on the ground, regardless of switch positions.
(AOM VOL II 12-12)
361
When does the expanded fuel display appear?
1. One or both crossed valves are open.
2. One or more fuel tank quantity indications are inoperative.
3. The FUEL IN CENTER alert message is displayed.
4. The FUEL QTY LOW alert message is displayed.
5. The FUEL IMBALANCE alert message is displayed.
6. The airplane is on the ground and one or both engines are off.
7. The FUEL FLOW ENG L,R alert message is displayed.
(AOM VOL II 12-3)
362
When will the pointer be displayed on the fuel display?
A solid white pointer is displayed if:
Main tank fuel differs more than 10000 pounds, or Main tank fuel differs more than 200 pounds and a crossfeed valve is open.
(AOM VOL II 12-4)
363
When is FUEL IMBALANCE displayed?
Fuel imbalance between the main tanks is excessive.
(AOM VOL II 12-13)
The difference in fuel quantity which causes the FUEL IMBALANCE message to be displayed varies with total main tank fuel quantity.
(AOM VOL II 12-4)
364
What fuel condition generates an FMC message INSUFFICIENT FUEL?
Displayed only for alerts relative to flight plan entries still in the MOD state and NOT YET EXECUTED when the computed MOD route fuel burn exceeds the total fuel on board, less reserves.
(NG MANUAL 14-4)
Applies to a pending activation route or to the active route in a modified state and estimated fuel at destination is less than the entered RESERVES value.
(AOM VOL II 11-209)
365
From which fuel tanks can fuel be jettisoned?
The fuel jettison system allows jettison from all fuel tanks. Fuel is jettisoned through jettison nozzle valves inboard of each aileron. Jettison pumps in the main tanks and override/ jettison pumps in the center tank pump fuel overboard through the jettison nozzle valves.
(AOM VOL II (12-11)
366
What is the un-dumpable fuel quantity?
At least 8500 (11,500 for 772) pounds of fuel remains in each main tank after jettison is complete.
(AOM VOL II 12-12)
367
How do the center pumps differ from the main tank pumps?
The two center tank fuel pumps are override/jettison pumps. The pumps have higher output pressure than the left and right main tank fuel pumps. The center tank override/jettison pumps override the main tank pumps so the center tank fuel is used before wing tank fuel.
(AOM VOL II 12-10)
368
How many center pumps run on the ground with a single power source?
ONE
On the ground, both center fuel pumps operate only when two electrical power sources are available. With only one power source available and the center fuel pump switches on, the switch PRESS light on the non–powered side is illuminated and the pump pressure EICAS message is inhibited.
(AOM VOL II 12-10)
369
How do the center tank pump PRESS lights differ from main tank pump PRESS lights?
The PRESS light on the center tank pumps is inhibited when the switch is off. The main tank pumps PRESS light will be on with the switch off.
(AOM VOL II 12-1)
370
When does the DC pump run and where is it located?
The left main tank contains a DC–powered fuel pump. It has no controls or indicators, other than the fuel synoptic display. The DC pump operates automatically to provide fuel to the APU when AC power is not available and the APU selector is ON.
(AOM VOL II 12-10)
371
What is the initial jettison fuel to remain value?
Fuel jettison is initiated by pushing the FUEL JETTISON ARM switch to select ARMED. The jettison system automatically sets the fuel–to–remain to the MLW fuel quantity. The TO REMAIN quantity replaces fuel temperature on the EICAS display.
(AOM VOL II 12-11)
372
When will the center pumps run for Jettison?
If the center tank override/jettison pumps are on, center tank fuel also jettisons. Center tank fuel will not jettison if the center tank override/jettison pumps are off.
When the airplane is heavy and loaded near the forward CG, fuel is jettisoned from the center tank first to keep CG within limits; main tank jettison pump operation is delayed.
(AOM VOL II 12-12)
373
Can both air driven hydraulic pumps (ADPs) operate at the same time?
Selecting both demand pumps ON results in only pump C1 operating. Both pumps cannot operate simultaneously when ON is selected for both pumps.
(AOM VOL II 13-8)
374
To which hydraulic components does the RAT provide power?
The RAT, when deployed, provides hydraulic power only to the primary flight control components connected to the center hydraulic system.
(AOM VOL II 13-9)
375
Why is the right hydraulic system pressurized first prior to engine start?
To prevent fluid transfer into the right system if C is pressurized first. (Through the brake system shuttle valve).
(AOM VOL I NP-39)
376
Why is flaps 20 used for landing with multiple hydraulic systems inoperative?
Flaps 20 and VREF specified in the QRH are used to improve flare authority, control response and go-around capability.
(FCTM 8-21)
377
Are the left and right Hydraulic Demand Pumps engine or electrically driven?
ELECTRIC
| AOM VOL II 13-7
378
What does a “FAULT”︎ light indicate for a primary or demand hydraulic pump?
1. Low pressure
2. High temperature
3. Pump is off
(AOM VOL II 13-2)
379
Name hydraulic components for each of the three systems?
LEFT:
1. Flight Controls
2. Left Trust Reverser
CENTER: BFF G
1. Brakes- Alternate/Reserve
2. Flaps/Slats
3. Flight Controls
4. Gear- Steering and Actuation
RIGHT:
1. Flight Controls
2. Right Thrust Reverser
3. Normal Brakes/Accumulator
(AOM VOL II 13-7, 13-8)
380
How is the need for hydraulic service indicated?
RF (REFILL) is shown when the reservoir requires refilling. This is inhibited in flight. RF is displayed at .75 LO is displayed at .40 OF is displayed at 1.20
(AOM VOL II 13-3)
381
When will the L and R demand pumps run in Auto?
When demand is high to supplement the Primary pumps, or
Primary pump failure, or
Primary pumps not running
(AOM VOL II 13-7)
382
When does the Right Demand pump run when in Auto on the ground?
Runs continuously on the ground until reaching 60' RA. (For brakes)
Left Demand pump comes on at 60 kts until reaching 60' RA. Also during landing.
Center Demand pumps (AIR) run on the takeoff roll for gear retraction. They stop after gear retraction. C1 runs on landing for gear extension.
(AOM VOL II 13-7) (BOEING CBT)
383
What systems are supplied by the Center system
Brakes- Alternate and Reserve
Flaps and Slats
Flight Controls
Gear Steering and Actuation
(AOM VOL II 13-8)
384
Will both C1 and C2 primary pumps run on the ground with an engine running?
YES
With only a single ground power source, including the APU, the C2 pump will not run if the C1 pump is selected. The pump will not be load shed if one engine generator is operating, or the following sources are operating:
Primary external power and secondary external power, or
APU generator and primary external power.
(AOM VOL II 13-8)
385
Will both C1 and C2 primary pumps run if selected ON?
ON THE GROUND:
The pump will not be load shed if one engine generator is operating, or the following sources are operating:
Primary external power and secondary external power, or
APU generator and primary external power.
INFLIGHT:
The C2 pump may be load shed by the electrical load management system when the following conditions exist:
All other electric pumps are running
There is a single source of electrical power
Generator capacity is exceeded
The pump will start automatically when the conditions that shed the pump no longer exist.
(AOM VOL II 13-8)
386
What will cause the RAT to automatically deploy?
1. Both engines fail, and center system pressure is low, or
2. Both AC transfer busses are unpowered, or
3. All 3 hydraulic system pressures are low.
(AOM VOL II 13-9)
387
When are autobrakes available?
Only when the normal brake system is operating.
| AOM VOL II 14-11
388
Which is more aggressive MAX autobrakes or RTO autobrakes?
RTO
| AOM VOL II 14-11
389
When will RTO braking operate?
The RTO autobrake setting commands maximum braking pressure if:
The airplane is on the ground
Groundspeed is above 85 knots, and
Both thrust levers are retarded to idle
Maximum braking is obtained in this mode. If an RTO is initiated below 85 knots, the RTO autobrake function does not operate.
(AOM VOL II 14-11)
390
What other system provides deceleration data to the autobrake effort?
ADIRU provides inertial data for deceleration rate. If the inertial portion of the ADIRU is inoperative, the auto brake system is also inoperative.
(AOM VOL II 11-14)
391
When will the EICAS Warning ︎CONFIG GEAR︎ display?
The airplane is in flight, and
Any landing gear is not down and locked when either thrust lever is closed below 800 feet radio altitude, or
When flaps are in a landing position (25 or 30), or may be 20 for non normal.
If the message is displayed because a Thrust lever is closed at low radio altitudes, the message remains dis- played until the Thrust levers are advanced or landing gear is down and locked.
If the message is displayed because the FLAP lever is in landing position, the message remains displayed until the landing gear is down and locked.
(AOM VOL II 15-51/15-26)
392
Can the landing gear be retracted if extended using the alternate gear extension?
Following an alternate extension, the landing gear can be retracted by the normal system, if it is operating. Select DN then UP to retract the landing gear using the normal system.
(AOM VOL II 14-8)
393
What modes of braking is anti-skid available?
NORMAL AND ALTERNATE/RESV
Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and alternate brake systems. Antiskid protection is also provided when the brake system is being supplied pressure only from the brake accumulator.
The normal brake system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection. When a wheel speed sensor detects a skid, the associated antiskid valve reduces brake pressure until skidding stops.
The alternate brake system provides antiskid protection to tandem wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle wheels. The aft axle wheels remain individually controlled.
(AOM VOL II 14-9)
394
What does the EICAS ︎CONFIG GEAR STEERING︎ mean?
The EICAS warning message CONFIG GEAR STEERING, accompanied by the takeoff configuration aural alert, is displayed if the main gear aft axles are not centered and locked when takeoff thrust is applied.
(AOM VOL II 14-8)
395
Does the autobrake system work with all brake modes?
Only when the normal brake system is operating.
| AOM VOL II 14-11
396
How does the Taxi Brake Release system reduce brake sensitivity?
During each taxi brake application, the antiskid system releases the brakes of one axle pair of each main landing gear (if wheel speeds are less than 45 knots). The system sequences through the axle pairs at each brake application, thereby reducing the number of brake applications by each brake. This extends service life and reduces brake sensitivity during taxi.
All active brakes are applied for a heavy brake application, landing rollout, RTO, or when setting the parking brake.
The taxi brake release system operates only with the normal brake system.
(AOM VOL II 14-11)
397
After an aggressive braking effort, where would you look to identify any problems?
GEAR SYNOPTIC DISPLAY
| AOM VOL II 14-12
398
When would brake temps reach maximum value?
The system indicates a stabilized value approximately 15 minutes after brake energy absorption.
(FCTM 6-17)
399
How many degrees of nose wheel turn is possible with the tiller?
70 degrees
| AOM VOL II 14-18
400
How many degrees of nose wheel turn is possible using only the rudder?
7 degrees
| AOM VOL II 14-8
401
When making a turn, when does the main gear aft axle steering begin to work?
Main gear aft axle steering automatically operates when the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 13 degrees to reduce tire scrubbing.
(AOM VOL II 14-8)
402
When will speedbrakes automatically deploy?
NORMAL MODE ONLY
In the ARMED position, the speedbrake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the landing gear is fully on the ground (not tilted) and the thrust levers are at idle.
On the ground when either reverse thrust lever is moved to the reverse idle detent, the speedbrakes auto- matically extend. The speedbrake lever does not need to be in the ARMED position. A mechanical link between the speedbrake lever and the reverse thrust levers raises the speedbrake lever out of the DOWN detent. The speedbrake lever is then driven aft and the speedbrakes extend. If either thrust lever is advanced to a takeoff position, the speedbrake lever is driven to the down position.
(AOM VOL II 9-31)
403
When will they automatically retract?
If either thrust lever is advanced to a takeoff position, the speedbrake lever is driven to the down position.
AOM VOL II 9-31)
404
Which braking modes is anti-skid available?
NORMAL AND ALTERNATE/RESV
Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and alternate brake systems. Antiskid protection is also provided when the brake system is being supplied pressure only from the brake accumulator.
The normal brake system provides each main gear wheel with individual antiskid protection. When a wheel speed sensor detects a skid, the associated antiskid valve reduces brake pressure until skidding stops.
The alternate brake system provides antiskid protection to tandem wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle wheels. The aft axle wheels remain individually controlled.
(AOM VOL II 14-9)
405
Why isn︎t there an “OFF︎ selection on the gear handle?
With the landing gear retracted and all doors closed, the landing gear hydraulic system is automatically depressurized.
(AOM VOL II 14-7)
406
How does the landing gear extend?
The gear free–fall without hydraulic power to the down and locked position. The downlocks are powered to the locked position, all hydraulically actuated gear doors close, and the main gear trucks hydraulically tilt to the flight position. When all gear are down and locked, the EICAS gear position indication displays DOWN.
(AOM VOL II 14-8)
407
Do the gear doors remain open after extending the gear using ALTN?
The EICAS landing gear position indication displays the expanded gear position indication when the alternate extension system is used. During alternate extension, the EICAS message GEAR DOOR is displayed because all the hydraulically powered gear doors remain open.
(AOM VOL II 14-8)
408
Which hyd pump provides pressure for reserve braking?
The fluid below the standpipe in the center hydraulic reservoir is used by the primary C1 pump as a reserve hydraulic source to power the alternate brakes and nose wheel steering.
(AOM VOL II 14-9)
409
Is anti-skid avail when using accumulator pressure?
Antiskid protection is provided in the normal and alternate brake systems. Antiskid protection is also provided when the brake system is being supplied pressure only from the brake accumulator.
(AOM VOL II 14-9)
410
When is autobrakes available?
NORMAL BRAKES ONLY
TO, RTO, LDG
(AOM VOL II 14-11)
411
When will the “BRAKE TEMP︎ message display?
Normal range values of 0 to 4.9 are white. For values of 3.0 to 4.9, the brake symbol for the hottest brake becomes solid white. Values of 5.0 and above are amber. For values of 5.0 and above, the EICAS advisory message BRAKE TEMP is displayed.
(AOM VOL II 14-12)
412
When responding to an RA TCAS alert, where should the airplane symbol be placed?
When TCAS predicts an RA, TCAS vertical guidance is displayed on the PFD for a maneuver to ensure vertical separation. Traffic avoidance is ensured by adjusting or maintaining a pitch attitude and vertical speed outside the red RA regions
413
What is an EICAS Caution Alert?
Cautions alert the flight crew to a non-normal operational or system condition requiring immediate crew awareness. Corrective action may be required.
(AOM VOL II 15-19)
414
In flight, when does the PWS alerting system start scanning for windshear?
In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.
(AOM VOL II 15-40)
415
Below what altitude are EGPWS windshear alerts enabled?
PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.
| AOM VOL II 15-40
416
When does the Status Inhibit end after engine start?
30 minutes after lift-off.
| AOM VOL II 15-46
417
What does pressing the WARNING/CAUTION switch do?
EXTINGUISHES:
MASTER WARNING LIGHTS
MASTER CAUTION LIGHTS
SILENCES AURAL that accompanies the EICAS warning messages:
1. CABIN ALTITUDE
2. CONFIG GEAR, if displayed because landing gear not down and locked, any thrust lever at idle, and RA is less than 800'.
3. FIRE
4. OVERSPEED
5. PILOT RESPONSE
6. STABILIZER
(AOM VOL II 15-5)
418
What does the WARNING/CAUTION switch not silence?
AUTOPILOT DISC
CONFIG Doors, Flaps, Gear Steering (inhibited at 80kts), Parking Brake, Rudder, Spoilers, Stabilizer
CONFIG GEAR if activated for Flap lever in the landing position, 25 or 30, and gear not down and locked.
(AOM VOL II 15-22, 15-26)
419
When is the WARNING/CAUTION LIGHTS inhibited?
CAUTION: 80 KTS until 400' or 20 seconds after liftoff, whichever occurs first. If rejected takeoff initiated above 80 knots, inhibit continues until airspeed is less than 75 knots.
New EICAS CAUTION MESSAGES will always display during the inhibit period.
WARNING: V1 or rotation, whichever occurs first until 400 feet radio altitude or 25 seconds after inhibit began, whichever occurs first.
FIRE MESSAGES:
New EICAS warning messages FIRE displayed during inhibit.
If the Master WARNING lights illuminate and fire bell sounds before reaching V1, they continue to be illuminated and sound when V1 is exceeded.
If new FIRE messages are displayed during the inhibit, the bell will sound when the inhibit ends.
CONFIG GEAR STEERING will sound the siren and illuminate the MASTER WARNING lights.
(AOM VOL II 15-46)
420
When are takeoff config warnings inhibited during T/O?
At V1, or rotation, whichever occurs first.
(AOM VOL II 15-48)
CONFIG GEAR STEERING @ 80 KTS.
(AOM VOL II 15-47)
421
How long will takeoff configuration EICAS messages be displayed for?
The CONFIG message remains displayed until airspeed is less than V1 and for 10 seconds after thrust is decreased below takeoff range to aid in identifying the takeoff configuration.
(AOM VOL II 15-26)
422
When does the STATUS cue inhibit start?
At engine start. Ends 30 mins after liftoff.
| AOM VOL II 15-46
423
List 3 types of alerts inhibited at 80kts?
MASTER CAUTION LIGHTS (EICAS CAUTION messages are not inhibited)
New PWS caution alerts (New PWS warning alerts @100 kts)
CONFIG GEAR STEERING
(AOM VOL II 15-47)
424
When is the Red ENG FAIL warning on the PFD inhibited?
New red ENG FAIL messages are inhibited at V1 - 6 kts
425
How many EICAS Events be recorded?
Up to five events may be recorded by the first five pushes. The system also records out of limit parameters and related conditions automatically when a system parameter is exceeded.
(AOM VOL II 15-50)
426
When should TA ONLY be selected?
The TA mode may be appropriate under the following circumstances:
1. Takeoff toward known nearby traffic (in sight) which would cause an unwanted RA.
2. Closely spaced parallel approaches.
3. When flying in known close proximity to other airplanes.
(FCTM 7-14)
4. Engine out operations.
(QRH Chapter 7)
130
427
What terrain is displayed on the ND?
The highest and lowest elevations of obstacles and terrain are displayed when within 320NM, unless directly abeam.
Terrain and obstacles turn:
RED when more than 2000' above the aircraft.
AMBER from 500' below to 2000' above the aircraft.
GREEN 500' to 2000' below the aircraft.
40-60 seconds to impact the terrain turns solid AMBER.
“TERRAIN or “OBSTACLE” is displayed on the ND.
Voice alert: “Caution Terrain”, or “Caution Obstacle”
Terrain or obstacle turns solid RED at 20-30 seconds to impact.
Aural alert “Terrain, Terrain Pull Up”, or “Obstacle, Obstacle Pull Up”
“PULL UP” is displayed on the PFD.
(AOM VOL II 15-38, 15-39)
428
When are PWS alerts enabled?
Takeoff below 1200' RA.
Landing below 1200' RA.
Immediate Windshear Alerts are enabled below 1500' RA.
(AOM VOL II 15-41)
429
Does PWS require the WX Radar be selected on?
NO
Prior to takeoff, PWS alerts can be enabled by pushing the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel. On the ground with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed.
In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.
When windshear is not predicted by PWS, weather radar returns are displayed only when the WXR on the EFIS control panel is pushed.
(AOM VOL II 15-40)
