Arrhythmias Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

PSNS opens which channel to cause hyperpolarisation of the SA node?

A

K channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the mechanism allowing PSNS to hyperpolarise the SA node

A

Acetylcholine acts on muscarinic receptors to decrease cAMP activity, which slows the closure of K channels, lengthening time between pacemaker potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SNS acts via noradrenaline to increase HR by what mechanism?

A

NA acts on beta receptors to increase cAMP activity, causing increased closure of K channels and opening of sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common cause of arrhythmia?

A

Ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Arrhythmias can be classified by rate or..?

A

Site of abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define sinus tachycardia

A

Fast heart rate, but the SA node is still the primary pacemaker so waveform would be normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Appearance of atrial fibrillation on ECG?

A

Normal looking but irregular QRS + random and chaotic P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain the consequences of atrial fibrillation that can lead to emboli formation

A

Irregular atrial contractions cause blood to pool in the atria, which can form a clot. The clot can then dislodge and travel to brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Compare atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation

A
Flutter = regular ventricular contractions 
Fibrillation = irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HR in atrial fibrillation?

A
Atria = ~400 
Ventricles= 160-180
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 different options for atrial fibrillation?

A
  • rate control (e.g. BB or CCB) and anticoagulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the arrhythmia responsible for sudden cardiac death

A

Ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug + other Tx for treatment and prevention of ventricular tachycardia?

A

Amiodarone

Electric shock / defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Symptoms of bradycardia?

A

Palpitations, syncope, fatigue, dizziness, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare intrinsic and extrinsic causes of bradycardia

A
Intrinsic = age, ischaemic heart disease, surgery 
Extrinsic = medications, electrolyte disturbances, metabolic rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define re-entry arrhythmias

A

Caused by an action potential that doesn’t die out like it is supposed to, but instead re-excites regions of myocardium right after the refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define heart block

A

Ventricular rate much slower than atria due to impairment of the AV node. Complete heart block = atria and ventricles beat independently of one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define pro-arrhythmic drugs

A

Drugs that prolong the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug used in bradycardia?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 2 potential causes of dysrhymthias

A
  • hypo or hyperthyroidism
  • caffeine, sympathomimetic drugs
  • heart disease
  • electrolyte disturbances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where do sodium channel blockers bind?

A

To the alpha subunit of the sodium channel, which prevents from being activated while at rest.

22
Q

Explain the MOA of sodium channel blockers

A

They prevent action potentials by blocking the activation of sodium channels, meaning the cell does not depolarise. This slows the HR down

23
Q

Name 3 sodium channel blockers (one from each class)

A

Disopyramide, lidocaine, flecainide

24
Q

Which sodium channel blocker has the shortest DOA?

A

Lidocaine

Preferentially binds to frequently activating channels. Means the drug is more active when the HR is high

25
Compare lidocaine and flecainide
Flecainide has a longer duration of action
26
Do disopyramide and quinidine lengthen the refractory period?
Yes
27
Name 2 beta blockers that are selective for B1
Metoprolol and atenolol
28
Which class is most commonly used for for atrial fibrillation?
Class 1C (e.g. flecainide)
29
Which drug class is used to treat ventricular tachycardia?
Class 1B (lidocaine)
30
How do beta blockers slow HR?
Prevents the binding of noradrenaline to the beta receptor, meaning it reduces the impact of the SNS
31
Beta blockers reduce calcium influx. True or false?
True. Explains why they slow HR (authorhythmic AP) and are negative inotropes
32
Class 3 drugs are..?
Drugs that prolong the cardiac action potential
33
How do class 3 drugs work?
They block depolarisation by K channels which prolongs the action potential and lengthens the refractory period of the sodium channels
34
Drug class that can prevent re-entrant tachycardia?
Class 3
35
Name 1 class 3 drug
Amiodarone
36
Define PR interval
Time between atrial depolarisation and beginning of ventricular depolarisation. Relates to delay at AV node
37
Define QT interval
Depolarisation + contraction of ventricles
38
Class 4 drugs are also known as?
Calcium channel blockers
39
Name 2 calcium channel blockers
Verapamil and diltiazem
40
CCBs increase after-depolarisation arrhythmias. True or false?
False. They reduce this type of arrhythmia
41
MOA of adenosine?
Opens potassium channels, causing hyperpolarisation
42
Which drug can be administered to terminate re-entry tachycardia?
Adenosine.
43
MOA of digoxin?
Inhibits Na/K ATPase which increases intracellular sodium and calcium
44
Is digoxin a positive or negative inotrope?
Positive. Due to increased calcium
45
How is digoxin used for arrhythmias if it is a positive inotrope?
Slows conduction at AV node
46
2 drugs used for bradycardia?
Atropine and isoprenaline
47
MOA of atropine?
Muscarinic antagonist. Prevents PSNS activity | Prevents binding of acetylcholine
48
Isoprenaline MOA?
Beta agonist - sympathomimetic | Increases contractility and heart rate
49
Digoxin inhibition of Na/K ATPase pump causes what?
Increased intracellular calcium = increased contractile strength
50
What activates the funny channel causing it to open?
Hyperpolarisation of the previous action potential