ARRT Sonography Test Questions Flashcards

(400 cards)

1
Q

When observing wound-skin precautions with a patient whose dressing DOES need to be removed for the sonographic exam, which of the following is REQUIRED?

  • Gown, gloves, and mask.
  • Gown and gloves.
  • Mask and handwashing.
  • Gown, gloves, mask, and handwashing.
A

Gown, gloves, mask, and handwashing

Wound-skin precautions are designed to protect others from germs which may in the patient’s wound. If the patient’s dressing needs to be removed for the sonographic exam, it is necessary to wear a gown, gloves, and a mask, along with washing the hands.

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2
Q

When a sonographer’s actions deviate so sharply from accepted professional standards so severely that they constitute a willful disregard for professional duty, this is known as which of the following?

  • Gross negligence.
  • Negligence.
  • Complete breach of care.
  • Dereliction of care.
A

Gross negligence

Gross negligence occurs when a sonographer’s behavior deviates so sharply from standards of professional conduct that it represents willful disregard for duty to the patient. Gross negligence often results in severe harm to patients.

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3
Q

Nonverbal behavior that demonstrates consent, such as nodding, is known as which of the following?

  • Informed consent.
  • Suggested consent.
  • Uninformed consent.
  • Implied consent.
A

Implied consent

Implied consent is nonverbal behavior that indicates consent, such as nodding. It may be used in emergency situations in which patients are unable to give verbal or written consent.

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4
Q

A set of precautions which is used to protect patients with compromised immune systems from the germs of others is known as which of the following?

  • Strict isolation.
  • Enteric precautions.
  • Reverse isolation.
  • Total isolation.
A

Reverse isolation

Reverse isolation is designed to protect a patient from the germs of others. It is used with patients with compromised immunity. Gowns, gloves, and masks must be worn. Sterile transducers must also be used, and sonographic equipment must be thoroughly cleansed.

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5
Q

The wrongful intrusion into a person’s private life, including disclosing his or her private information, is known as which of the following?

  • Breach of confidentiality.
  • Invasion of privacy.
  • Defamation.
  • Libel.
A

Invasion of privacy

Invasion of privacy is a tort that results when a person intrudes into another’s private life. This can include disclosing of that person’s private information, including health information.

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6
Q

When a sonographer fails to exercise the appropriate degree of care in a situation, it constitutes which of the following?

  • Assault.
  • Neglect.
  • Dereliction.
  • Negligence.
A

Negligence

Negligence occurs when a sonographer (or other healthcare professional) fails to exercise the appropriate degree of care or take expected actions to prevent harm to the patient. Negligence need not be intentional.

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7
Q

The ARRT’s Code of Ethics has how many sections?

  • 20.
  • 15.
  • 10.
  • 5.
A

10

The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. There are ten sections.

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8
Q

A patient’s identifying information, and any health information about him or her sent in any form, is known as which of the following?

Personal health data.
Protected health information.
Personal health record.
Private health information.

A

Protected health information

A patient’s identifying information and any health information are considered protected. This is true whether the information is sent in writing, verbally, or electronically. This information must be kept confidential under the provisions of HIPAA.

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9
Q

What occurs when forces apply mechanical work that will displace the electric charge so that a polar charge stores the energy?

  • Focusing.
  • Dampening.
  • Piezoelectric effect.
  • Elevation.
A

Piezoelectric effect

The Piezoelectric effect occurs as transducers convert energy. The forces apply mechanical work that displaces the electrical charge. The energy is stored as a polar charge in the Piezoelectric effect.

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10
Q

What is MI used for?

  • To indicate mechanical bio-effects.
  • To measure cholesterol.
  • To measure a patient’s breathing rate.
  • To take blood pressure.
A

To indicate mechanical bio-effects

MI stands for Mechanical index. It is an estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude. It is used to indicate mechanical bio-effects.

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11
Q

A mirror image is which of the following?

  • A half compete duplication.
  • A mutated duplication.
  • An actual duplication.
  • An electronic duplication.
A

An electronic duplication

A mirror image can be found in the Doppler system. It is when a vessel image can be duplicated. This duplicated vessel is many times mistaken as an extra vessel instead of an image. It is an electronic duplication.

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12
Q

When using harmonic imaging, what frequency will discriminate between the micro bubbles and the tissue?

  • Fundamental frequency.
  • Third harmonic frequency.
  • Second harmonic frequency.
  • All frequencies.
A

Second harmonic frequency

Micro bubbles resonate at all of the frequencies. The second harmonic frequency will discriminate between the micro bubbles and the tissue in harmonic imaging. This increases the contrast.

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13
Q

What does RI stand for?

Resistance initiation.
Resistance ideals.
Resistance index.
Rested index.

A

Resistance index

RI stands for Resistance index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by 1 – ( Minimum flow/Maximum flow).

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14
Q

What converts the wave of the ultrasound into thermal energy?

Reflection.
Refraction.
Scattering.
Absorption.

A

Absorption

Absorption occurs when the wave is converted to thermal energy. The rate of absorption increases with higher frequency, and it causes weaker penetration of the tissue.

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15
Q

Natural focus or N refers to what?

  • The distance of the transition between the near and far fields.
  • Wave interference.
  • The position of the sound field.
  • The near field.
A

The distance of the transition between the near and far fields

The transition between the two fields occurs at a certain distance. This distance is referred to as N but is also known as natural focus of a flat or unfocused transducer.

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16
Q

Low frequency ultrasounds provide:

Less penetration with lower resolution.
Deeper penetration with lower resolution.
Less penetration with higher resolution.
Deeper penetration with higher resolution.

A

Deeper penetration with lower resolution

Besides the shape of the trans transducer and arrangement of the elements, image quality is determined by frequency. Low frequencies provide deeper penetration with lower resolution.

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17
Q

The minimum separation of two reflectors located perpendicular to the ultrasound beam is known as ___.

Lateral resolution.
Axial resolution.
Spatial resolution.
Beam resolution.

A

Lateral resolution.

Lateral resolution is referring to how wide or narrow the width of the beam is. This length is measured perpendicular to the beam itself.

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18
Q

What is the length of the ultrasound pulse?

Pulse duration.
Pulse repetition.
Spatial pulse length.
Wavelength.

A

Spatial pulse length

The spatial pulse length is the length of the ultrasound’s pulse. This includes the space that the pulse occupies during the duration of the pulse, from the beginning to the end.

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19
Q

What occurs when the energy transmitted changes direction at the tissue boundary when the beam is not perpendicular?

Reflection.
Transmission.
Refraction.
Incident.

A

Refraction.

Refraction occurs when there is a change in direction. It occurs at the tissue boundary when the beam is not perpendicular to the boundary.

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20
Q

The measure of resistance to the propagation of sound is known as which of the following?

Attenuation.
Scattering.
Reflection.
Impedance.

A

Impedance

Acoustic impedance is the measure of resistance to the propagation of sound waves. It’s the product of the density of a medium and the velocity of sound in the medium.

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21
Q

A transducer is a type of what?

Probe.
Blood test.
High intensity light.
Brace.

A

Probe

Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.

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22
Q

What does the acoustic lens do?

Increase the beam’s width.
Shorten the beam.
Reduce the beam’s width.
Lengthen the beam.

A

Reduce the beam’s width

The acoustic lens is used to improve the resolution of the beam. This occurs because the lens reduces the width of the beam. It specifically affects the lateral resolution of the beam.

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23
Q

RI is associated with which of the following?

Pacemakers.
Stents.
X-rays.
Doppler.

A

Doppler

RI stands for Resistance index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by 1 – ( Minimum flow/Maximum flow).

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24
Q

What type of ultra sound is primarily used on men?

Transoral ultrasound.
Transrectal ultrasound.
Transvaginal ultrasound.
Transesophageal echocardiogram.

A

Transrectal ultrasound

There are three types of ultrasounds that include inserting the transducer into a natural opening of the body. They are transesophageal echocardiogram, transrectal ultrasound, and transvaginal ultrasound. The transesophageal echocardiogram, the transducer is placed into the esophagus. It is used to get images of the heart. In the transrectal ultrasounds, the transducer is placed into the rectum of a man to view the prostate. In the transvaginal ultrasound, the transducer is placed into a woman’s vagina. It is used to get images of the uterus and ovaries.

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25
What is the difference between an ultrasound and x-ray? Sonograms use radiation, x-rays use sound waves. Sonograms use sound waves, x-rays use radiation. Sonograms use catheters, x-rays use IV’s. Sonograms use light, x-rays use radiation.
Sonograms use sound waves, x-rays use radiation Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
26
How many bytes are there in the DICOM image? 64. 128. 256. 32.
128 DICOM is the digital imaging and communications standard in medicine where images are archived. This is the standard medical imaging format. Each image includes 128 bytes at the very beginning.
27
What is the setting of the PRF based on? Aliasing. Muscle thickness. The focal zone. Blood velocity.
Blood velocity. The pulse repetition frequency is typically set between 1.5 kHz and 18 kHz. The blood velocity will determine how the pulse repetition frequency is set.
28
What is the Nyquist limit? Pulse repetition frequency/2. Pulse repetition frequency/3. Pulse repetition frequency/4. Pulse repetition frequency/5.
Pulse repetition frequency/2 Aliasing occurs in pulsed ultrasounds. It frequently occurs in color dopplers, and pulse wave spectral Dopplers. For pulsed ultrasounds, an upper limit is displayed of the Doppler shift. This is referred to as the Nyquist limit. It is considered pulse repetition frequency/2. Aliasing appears as bright and turbulent blood flow in the color Doppler. There are many ways to avoid aliasing. They include: image a more shallow depth, angle of insonification is increased, a low frequency transducer can be used, continuous wave imaging can be used, the scale can be changed, the baseline display is changed.
29
What type of Doppler uses graph measurements to provide information about blood flow? Spectral Doppler. Color Doppler. Power Doppler. Challenge Doppler.
Spectral Doppler A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
30
What post-processing technique uses contrast to improve acutance? Edge enhancement. Smoothing. Write magnification. Read magnification.
Edge enhancement. Edge enhancement increases edge contrasts for a sharper image or video. It will create subtle highlights on either side of edges to make them stand out.
31
What is relative to the echogenicity? Artifact. Hemodynamics. Flow. Echotexture.
Echotexture Echogenicity is the tissue’s ability to bounce the echo. Echogenicity is relative to the Echotexture. The changes in echotexture will be altered with changes in the tissue such as coarseness.
32
Why are ADCs used? - To change images from color to black and white. - To soften images. - To convert the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems. - To get an instant diagnosis directly from the machine.
To convert the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems ADC stands for Analog to digital converter. It takes analog input data and converts it to digital values for output. It converts the signal into a format to be used with current computer systems.
33
Thinner crystals create ____________. Higher resonant frequencies. Lower resonant frequencies. Piezoelectric effect. All of the above.
Higher resonant frequencies The frequency and wavelength are inverse. Thinner crystals create higher resonant frequencies. Thicker crystals create lower resonant frequencies.
34
A mirror image can be found where? In the Doppler system. Inside the heart. In X-rays. In light waves.
In the Doppler system A mirror image can be found in the Doppler system. It is when a vessel image can be duplicated. This duplicated vessel is many times mistaken as an extra vessel instead of an image. It is an electronic duplication.
35
Which type of Doppler provides greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs? Visual Doppler. Spectral Doppler. Power Doppler. Color Doppler.
Power Doppler. A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
36
What is TIB? Thermal index for bone. Thermal index for body fat. Thermal index for body. Thermal index.
Thermal index for bone TI is the thermal index, which is the ration of acoustical power that will raise tissue a total if 1° C. There are more specific thermal indexes. TIB is thermal index for bone; TIC is thermal index for cranial bone, and TIS is the thermal index for tissue.
37
How many types of echocardiography are used clinically for sonography? 3. 4. 5. 6.
3 There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. Each type offers a different view.
38
The reaction between the microscopic bubbles and ultrasound waves cause _______. MI. TIC. Thermal effect. Cavitation.
Cavitation Cavitation is a mechanical effect. This occurs when there is a reaction between the ultrasound wave and microscopic bubbles. Oscillation will alter the phases of pressure.
39
High frequency ultrasounds provide: Less penetration depth with higher resolution. Deeper penetration with lower resolution. Deeper penetration with higher resolution. Less penetration with lower resolution
Less penetration depth with higher resolution Besides the shape of the trans transducer and arrangement of the elements, image quality is determined by frequency. High frequencies provide less penetration with higher resolution.
40
Where is a renal transplant typically placed? - In the retroperitoneal space of the left iliac fossa. - In the retroperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa. - In the extraperitoneal space of the left iliac fossa. - In the extraperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa.
In the retroperitoneal space of the right iliac fossa This space has no specific delineating anatomical structures. This is an ideal place for a transplanted kidney. It is important for a sonographer to understand the anatomy following a transplant.
41
Which of the following separates the subphrenic space in the right and left? Falciform ligament. Linea alba. Quadratus lumborum. Peritoneum.
Falciform ligament The subphrenic space is the recesses in the peritoneal cavity between the anterior part of the liver and the diaphragm, and it is separated into right and left by the falciform ligament. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
42
What is paracentesis? Drainage of abdominal fluid. Needle sampling of mucus. Draining of a fluid filled pancreas. Pancreas biopsy.
Drainage of abdominal fluid Free fluid is drained from the abdomen in the procedure. It is often used for a sampling procedure.
43
What shape is the spleen normally? Kidney bean. Inverted comma. Rounded. Rectangle.
Inverted comma The spleen is located behind the left rib. It's normal shape is larger at the top and smaller at the bottom, much like a comma turned upside down.
44
How big would abdominal lymph nodes have to be to be considered representative of mesenteric lymphadenitis? 5 mm. 20 mm. 15 mm. 10 mm.
10 mm Swelling of the lymph nodes can be present for many reasons and may not even be a sign of a problem. Without other telltale symptoms, the lymph nodes would be about 10 mm before causing alarm.
45
The gallbladder-vena cava line divides which of the following segments of the lower portion of the liver? Lateral and medial. Posterior and lateral. Medial and anterior. Anterior and posterior.
Medial and anterior. Additional segmentation landmarks are needed in the lower portion of the liver because the hepatic veins are small and arborized. The gallbladder-vena cava line divides the medial and anterior segments.
46
Which of the following hepatic lesions may contain calcifications? Focal nodular hyperplasia and hemangiomas. Hemangiomas and metastases. Ligamentum teres and metastases. Ligamentum teres and hemangiomas.
Hemangiomas and metastases Hemangiomas and metastases may contain calcifications. Calcifications have a highly echogenic appearance and cast an acoustic shadow.
47
The transverse width of a normal gallbladder falls into which of the following ranges? Up to 2 cm. Up to 11 cm. Up to 4 cm. Up to 9 cm.
Up to 4 cm The transverse width of a normal gallbladder is up to 4 cm and is measured using a upper abdominal transverse scan. Knowledge of anatomy and proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
48
All but which of the following are sonographic features of an aortic aneurysm? Pulsations. Signs of aortic sclerosis. Possible partial thrombosis. Distension of less than 30 mm.
Distention of less than 30 mm Aortic aneurysms are bulging, weakened areas in the wall of the aorta are are generally easy to detect with sonography. Sonographic features of aortic aneurysms are distension of greater than 30 mm, pulsations, signs of aortic sclerosis, and possible partial thrombosis.
49
The vein that divides the left lobe of the liver into medial and lateral segments is known as which of the following? Left portal vein. Right hepatic vein. Left hepatic vein. Middle hepatic vein.
Left hepatic vein The left hepatic vein divides the left lobe of the liver into lateral and medial segments. When conducting abdominal sonography, the ability to identify key organs and vessels is a vital skill.
50
All but which of the following are hyperechoic and non-shadowing in the liver? Calcified abscess. Hemangioma. Ligamentum teres. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
Calcified abscess. Some hyperechoic lesions cast an acoustic shadow while others do not. Hyperechoic, non-shadowing structures include metastasis, hemangioma, focal nodular hyperplasia, hepatocellular carcinoma, focal sparing from fatty infiltration, and ligamentum teres.
51
The right hepatic vein divides which of the following segments of the upper liver? Posterior and lateral. Lateral and medial. Medial and anterior. Anterior and posterior.
Anterior and posterior The hepatic veins are the structures that mark the segmental boundaries in the upper portion of the liver. The right hepatic vein divides the anterior and posterior segments.
52
What is the best way to access the gallbladder during an ultrasound? Through the kidneys. Through the liver. From the back. Through the stomach.
Through the liver The liver is often known to be a window in ultrasound procedures. This is especially the case with the gallbladder since it is located behind the liver.
53
All but which of the following are segmentation landmarks in the lower part of the liver? Hepatic veins. Ligamentum teres. Vena cava. Right portal vein branch.
Hepatic veins In the lower portion of the liver, additional segmentation landmarks are needed because the hepatic veins run backward and upward from the periphery of the organ. The segmentation landmarks in the lower part of the liver are the ligamentum teres, vena cava, gallbladder, and right portal vein branch.
54
The bend of the colon which is the juncture between the transverse colon and the descending colon is known as which of the following? Cecum. Splenic flexure. Appendix. Hepatic flexture.
Splenic flexture The splenic flexture is the bend of the colon which is the juncture between the transverse and descending colon. It is located near the spleen.
55
The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms occur below which of the following? Renal artery. Hepatic artery. Gonadal artery. IVC.
Renal artery The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms occur below the renal artery. An aortic aneurysm occurs when the diameter of the aorta exceeds 3 cm.
56
The celiac trunk is related superiorly to which of the following? - Splenic vein, confluence, superior mesenteric artery, and splenic artery. - Jejunum. - Body of the pancreas. - Left lobe of the liver and antrum of the stomach
Body of the pancreas. The celiac trunk is related superiorly to the body of the pancreas.
57
Which of the following are the two barriers to scanning the aorta and vena cava? Ribs and diaphragm. Gas in the stomach and bowel. Lung and ribs. Stomach and transverse colon.
Stomach and transverse colon. The two main barriers to scanning the aorta and vena cava are the stomach and transverse colon. However, the two vessels usually can be quickly located by sliding the transducer across the upper abdomen. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
58
Focal nodular hyperplasia is often indistinguishable sonographically from which of the following? Atypical hemangioma. Abscess. Hepatocellular carcinoma. Focal sparing.
Atypical hemangioma Focal nodular hyperplasia is a hypoechoic or sometimes isoechoic mass. FNH is often indistinguishable sonographically from an adenoma or atypical hemangioma.
59
What causes bulging of an organ through the tissue that holds it in? Distention. Abscess. Hernia. Appendicitis.
Hernia. Hernias occur when an organ sticks out due to a weakness in the wall that holds it, such as the abdominal wall. It generally causes pain and a visible lump.
60
When imaging the spleen, which of the following optimizes scanning conditions? - Have the patient supine with the right arm raised above the head. - Have the patient fast beforehand, including abstinence from coffee and nicotine. - Have the patient positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head. - Have the patient take antigas medication.
Have the patient positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head The spleen is difficult to visualize, so the patient should be positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head. Proper patient positioning during scans increases the quality of sonographic images produced, which are vital to correct diagnosis and superior patient care.
61
How do you define embryonic demise? - Loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks. - The loss of pregnancy after the fetal structure is detectable by ultrasound. - Loss of pregnancy before it is detectable by ultrasound. - Loss of pregnancy due to a chromosomal defect.
The loss of pregnancy after the fetal structure is detectable by ultrasound The embryonic phase of development is complete at the end of the 10th week. After going through dramatic changes, it is important to use ultrasound to determine the health of the embryo at this point. If there is a nonliving embryo present at this point it is known as embryonic demise.
62
What does a chorionicity scan check for? Shared sac. Shared placenta. Down syndrome. Tay-sachs.
Shared placenta A chorionicity scan occurs at the same time as the dating scan and looks for a shared placenta between twins. This is important to know so complications regarding a shared placenta can be monitored throughout pregnancy.
63
An echogenic endometrium with posterior acoustic enhancement is present during the Follicular phase. Secretory phase. Ovulatory phase. Proliferative phase.
Secretory phase During the secretory phase, the functional layer of the endometrium continues to thicken and may demonstrate posterior acoustic enhancement. The luteal phase of the ovary corresponds with the secretory phase of the endometrium.
64
Where are fimbriae located? On the distal end of the vagina. Inside of the ovum. Outside of the vagina. Distal end of each fallopian tube.
Distal end of each fallopian tube There are two fallopian tubes. Each fallopian tube is approximately 4 inches long. They extend from each ovary. Their job is to move the ovum from the ovaries into the uterus. Fimbriae are the finger like projections on the fallopian tubes. They are found on the distal end of each fallopian tube.
65
What does hormonal milieu do? - Helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life. - Causes birth defects. - Causes several mood swings. - Eliminates sperm entering the uterus.
Helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
66
Menses occurs how often? About every 14 days. About every 22 days. About every 28 days. About every 35 days.
About every 28 days The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The inner layer is considered the most active layer. This layer reacts to cyclic ovarian hormone changes. This layer is crucial for menstruation and reproduction. In the inner layer, a fertilized egg will implant itself. If a woman is not pregnant this layers lining will slough off around every 28 days.
67
What is the opening to the womb? Ovaries. Cervix. Uterus. Vagina.
Cervix The cervix is in between the vagina and uterus. It is what softens and dilates so that a baby can be born.
68
The uterus responds to which of the following? Physical exercise. Sleep cycles. Hormonal milieu. Insulin.
Hormonal milieu The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
69
What is the typical cervix length? 2mm. 2cm. 3cm. 3mm.
3cm The cervix in pregnancies generally 3cm or more. Any shorter and the cervix is considered short and could mean an incompetent cervix.
70
What is the best frequency of transducer to use when checking the central nervous system for abnormalities during the second trimester? 2-3mHz. 3-5mHz. 7-10mHz. 12-14mHz.
3-5mHz High frequency transducers decrease the penetration of the sound beam. 3-5mHz allows for the best penetration to get a look at the central nervous system.
71
What external female reproductive organ has 2 long skin folds which are covered in hair? Fallopian tube. Ovary. Labia majora. Vestibule.
Labia majora There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. Running posteriorly from the mons pubis is the labia majora. The labia majora has 2 long skin folds which are covered in hair. The labia majora is used to protect other external reproductive organs.
72
The perineum is located where? At the end of the fallopian tubes. Between the upper and lower vagina. Between the anus and vaginal opening. Inside the uterus.
Between the anus and vaginal opening There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. The perineum helps constrict the vaginal opening, urinary opening, and anal opening. It supports pelvic contents. It is located between the anus and vaginal opening.
73
The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to a ___. Pea. Almond. Apple. Grape.
Almond The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovaries are kept in place by the broad ligament. Ovarian follicles are compact like tissues that are on the ovaries.
74
Which of the following might indicate an ectopic pregnancy if it cannot be found within the ultrasound? - There is little or no fluid inside the abdominal cavity. - There is an identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are less than 1500. - There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are greater than 1500. - There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are less than 1500.
There is no identifiable intrauterine pregnancy and maternal serum HCG levels are greater than 1500. An ectopic pregnancy will show no signs of there being an embryo present in the uterus. However, HCG levels of over 1500 would indicate a pregnancy.
75
The first trimester ultrasound uses which of the following? Sound waves. Radiation. Light waves. Sound waves and radiation.
Sound waves The first trimester ultrasound occurs during week 5-14 of pregnancy. During a first trimester ultrasound, images are taken of the uterus using sound waves. Radiation is not used. This test is usually done to determine the date of a patient’s last period. It also can make sure any bleeding is not dangerous to the pregnancy.
76
What layer of uterine tissue is considered the muscular layer? Endometrium. Myometrium. Perimetrium. Trenometrium.
Myometrium The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The myometrium layer of tissue creates most of uterine volume. It is considered a muscular layer. It is made of mostly smooth muscle cells.
77
What is the typical treatment for PKU? PHE-restricted diet. High iron diet. Blood transfusion. Medication.
PHE-restricted diet. PKU treatment involves a diet for life. Supplements are also necessary.
78
A fetus estimated to be 7-8 weeks old should have a CRL of which of the following? 1-4 mm. 4-10 mm. 11-16 mm. 17-23 mm.
11-16 mm A fetus estimated to be 7-8 weeks-old should have a CRL of 11-16 mm. The CRL or crown rump length is measured from the top of the head to the area above where the legs begin.
79
What procedure is used to fill the uterus with fluid for better imaging? Colonoscopy. Uterosectomy. Sonohysterography. Catheterography.
Sonohysterography This procedure is used to put fluid into the uterus for better ultrasound imaging. This may be needed when an ultrasound needs to be done immediately and the bladder is not full.
80
The inner layer of uterus tissue is crucial for what? Hormone production. Mental thoughts. Physical body growth. Menstruation and reproduction.
Menstruation and reproduction The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The inner layer is considered the most active layer. This layer reacts to cyclic ovarian hormone changes. This layer is crucial for menstruation and reproduction.
81
No fetal pole identified on a transvaginal scan when the size of the gestational sac is such that a fetal pole should be seen may indicate which of the following? Anembryonic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy. Spontaneous abortion. Endometriosis.
Anembryonic pregnancy. When no fetal pole is identified on a transvaginal scan when the size of the gestational sac is such that a fetal pole should be seen, an anembryonic pregnancy may be diagnosed. It may also be diagnosed if no fetal pole is identified on a transabdominal scan, and there is little to no growth of the gestational sac between interval scans.
82
The uterus is responsible for which of the following functions? Menses. Gestation. Implantation. All of the above.
All of the above The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
83
During the proliferative phase, what is released? Cilia. Sperm. Follicle stimulating hormone. Testosterone.
Follicle stimulating hormone During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
84
How much does the CRL increase each day between the 6th and 9th week? 1mm. 2mm. 3mm. 5mm.
1mm At this point in pregnancy it is mostly a fetal cell mass not quite resembling a baby yet. The growth rate of 1mm per day leads to proper development and structure by the ninth week, allowing for a different type of fetal measurment by 12 weeks.
85
In regards to gynecology, what does PROM stand for? Premature Rupture of Membranes. Practical Rupture of Membranes. Pregnancy Rules of Membranes. Pregnancy Range of Membranes.
Premature Rupture of Membranes PROM stands for Premature Rupture of Membranes. This is associated with patients who are past 37 weeks of pregnancy and has a rupture of the membranes. This will occur before labor.
86
Of the following, which is not evaluated during a fetal biophysical profile? Fetal tone. Non-stress test. Fetal swallowing. Amniotic fluid volume.
Fetal swallowing The biophysical profile is a sonographic evaluation of fetal well-building. It includes a specific time or number of fetal movements, breathing movements,fetal tone,amniotic fluid volume, and a non-stress test.
87
What is the main component of the cervix? Blood. Fluid. Collagen. Muscle.
Collagen The cervix is mostly made up of collagen. The collagen is what keeps the cervix firm during gestation.
88
How might a doctor manage placental insufficiency? Establishing a nutritional guideline. Establish a pattern of fetal monitoring and check for preeclampsia. Blood transfusion. It is not manageable.
Establish a pattern of fetal monitoring and check for preeclampsia The baby's growth will need to be monitored closely if placenta is insufficient. The mother may also be at high risk for preeclampsia, so regular checks are crucial.
89
How long is the average vagina on the posterior wall? 7.5 cm. 9 in. 9 cm. 12 cm.
9 cm The average vagina is 9 cm long on the posterior wall. On the anterior wall, it is 7.5 cm.
90
Which is true of the uterus? Found only in males. Found only in females. Found in both females and males. Found in menopausal women only.
Found only in females The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
91
What does the thyroid do? Produces blood. Regulates a person’s metabolism. Produces insulin. Helps the body breathe.
Regulates a person’s metabolism The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid.
92
All but which of the following are differential considerations for sonographic findings indicative of a benign cyst in the breast? Lactiferous duct. Glandular breast tissue. Fibroadenoma. Carcinoma.
Glandular breast tissue. When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of a benign cyst in the breast include lactiferous duct, fibroadenoma, and carcinoma.
93
Which of the following statements is true? - Thyroid sonograms use low doses of radiation. - Thyroid sonograms use moderate doses of radiation. - Thyroid sonograms use high doses of radiation. - Thyroid sonograms do not use radiation.
Thyroid sonograms do not use radiation. The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It does not use radiation. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid.
94
Which of the following is a differential consideration for sonographic findings indicative of fibrocystic disease? Fibroadenoma. Carcinoma. Mastitis. Normal breast fat.
Mastitis When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of fibrocystic disease include multiple breast cysts and mastitis.
95
The sonographic appearance of the skin line of the breast is: Hyperechoic. Hypoechoic. Echo-free. Isoechoic.
Hyperechoic When scanning the breast it is important to know how a healthy breast should appear sonographically. The skin line of the breast appears hyperechoic.
96
Which of the following is not a benefit of breast sonography? - Can characterize masses. - Can getter a better view of dense breasts. - Uses only a small amount of radiation. - Can provide new clinical information after a mammogram.
Uses only a small amount of radiation. Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. There are many advantages , some include: can provide new clinical information after a mammogram, can getter a better view of dense breasts, does not use radiation, it can characterize masses, has the potential to eliminate the need for a biopsy, and has excellent contrast resolution.
97
How many parathyroid glands are there? 4. 5. 6. 7.
4 There are four parathyroid glands. They can be found behind and next to the thyroid. They produce the parathyroid hormone. A parathyroid sonogram checks the parathyroid’s health.
98
A thyroid sonogram can do which of the following? Inject radiation into the thyroid. Help with guiding a needle during a biopsy. Reduce lump sizes. Treat cancer.
Help with guiding a needle during a biopsy The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid glands produce the hormone thyroxine. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It can be used to help with biopsies, by guiding the needle.
99
A testicular sonogram is performed for all of the following reasons, except: Identify an infection of the testicles. Shrink cancer in the testicles. Monitor testicle inflammation. Locate undescended testicles.
Shrink cancer in the testicles A testicular sonography is used to acquire images of the testicles and scrotum. Sound waves are used in testicular sonography. It can show pictures of the epididymis, vas deferens, and prostate gland. It is used to evaluate a mass in the testicles, to evaluate pain in the testicles, to monitor for any recurrence of testicular cancer, identify infection, monitor inflammation, and locate undescended testicles.
100
How is a breast sonogram performed? - A tool is moved back and forth over the breast. - A tool is inserted into the breast. - A camera is used to take a picture of the superficial layer of the breast. - The patient places her breast against a metal plate.
A tool is moved back and forth over the breast. Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. To perform the procedure a tool is moved back and forth over the patient’s breast. The tool used is called a transducer.
101
The Patient’s Bill of Rights is part of which of the following? HIPAA. Affordable Care Act. Bill of Rights. Public Health Law.
Affordable Care Act The new Patient’s Bill of Rights was created in 2010. It is part of the Affordable Care Act. Some of the rights given under this are: patient’s are entitle to particular preventive screenings free of charge, patient’s have the right to have an easy to understand list of their health plan benefits, and all people are entitled to coverage regardless of pre-existing conditions.
102
What does HIPAA stand for? - Health Insurance Policy and Accountability Act. - Health Insurance Portability and Action Act. - Health Ideals Pursued and Accountability Act. - Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Health plans must be in compliance with the rules set by the act. The adoption of the standards has increased the use of electronic data.
103
The section hearings can be found in what main category of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics? Risks of work. Code of Ethics. Administrative procedures. Rules of Ethics.
Administrative procedures The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. There are ten sections. The Rules of Ethics is comprised of 22 sections. The final section, administrative procedures has 6 sections. Hearings can be found in the administrative procedures category.
104
Making false, injurious statements about another person in writing is known as which of the following? Slander. Deriliction. Libel. Advocacy.
Libel Libel occurs when a person makes false or injurious statements about another in writing. This is a form of character defamation. Sonographers and other healthcare providers have a duty to avoid libel and other forms of defamation.
105
Nonverbal behavior that indicates consent, such as nodding, is known as which of the following? Informed consent. Uninformed consent. Express consent. Implied consent.
Implied consent Implied consent is nonverbal behavior that indicates consent. It is most likely to be used in emergency situations where a patient is unable to give verbal or written consent.
106
What is the main goal of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics? - To act in the best interest of the patient. - To act in the best interest of sonographers. - To employ as many sonographers as possible. - To have sonographers achieve the highest pay possible.
To act in the best interest of the patient. The ARRT’s Standards of Ethics apply solely to individuals that have a certification from ARRT. The goal of the standards is to act in the patient's best interest. The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. The second is the Rules of Ethics. The final category is Administrative Procedures.
107
When used as a contrast medium, CO2 appears as which of the following on x-ray? Radiolucent. Radiopaque. Radiotransparent. Radiography.
Radiolucent. Contrast media is used to opacify or make visible soft tissue pockets that cannot ordinarily be seen. When used as a contrast medium, CO2 appears radiolucent on x-ray.
108
Which of the following forms the first part of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics? Administrative procedures. Risks of work. Code of Ethics. Rules of Ethics.
Code of Ethics. The ARRT’s Standards of Ethics is for the use of only people that have a certification from ARRT. The goal of the standards is to act in the patients best interest. The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. The second is the Rule of Ethics. The final category is the Administrative Procedures.
109
Which of the following types of Doppler can show both the speed and direction of blood flow? Color Doppler. Power Doppler. Challenge Doppler. Visual Doppler.
Color Doppler A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
110
Which thermal output measure expresses bone? TTI. TIB. TIS. TIC.
TIB. TIB is the abbreviation or symbol that represents bone in the tissue thermal index. The index also has labels for blood and tissue.
111
The piezoelectric crystal that produces ultrasound waves vibrates at what kind of frequency compared to the imposed alternating current? Higher frequency. Lower frequency. Alternating frequency. Same frequency.
Same frequency The piezoelectric crystal is exposed to an alternating electric current, which causes it to emit a pulse of sound. The piezoelectric crystal that produces ultrasound waves vibrates at the same frequency as the imposed alternating current.
112
Of the following, which is true about ultrasounds? High doses of radiation are used. Low doses of radiation are used. High frequency sound waves are used. Low frequency sound waves are used.
High frequency sound waves are used. Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
113
How does focusing the beam affect the length of the near field? It shortens it. It lengthens it. It widens it. It does not.
It does not. The length of the near field is not affected by focusing the beam. It makes the beam narrower in the near field and the wider in the far field. This increases the resolution in the near field.
114
Hemodynamics are based on which of the following? Hopkinson’s law. Umov effect. Carnot’s theorem. Ohm’s law.
Ohm’s law Hemodynamics are considered physical actors that are used to govern blood flow. It s based on Ohm’s Law, which s the fundamental law of physics. Hemodynamic monitoring will be done if the patient has cardiac tamponade, acute respiratory failure, postcardiac surgery, pulmonary edema, shock, and need for fluid evaluation. It is associated with Doppler.
115
All but which of the following are disadvantages of using a linear transducer? - Large footprint. - Poor resolution of structures near the transducer. - Cannot scan through a narrow acoustic window close to the transducer. - Poorer resolution of structures at greater depths.
Poor resolution of structures near the transducer. With a linear transducer, multiple parallel elements are arranged in a straight line, producing a rectangular image field. The main disadvantages of a linear transducer are that it has a large footprint and it cannot scan through a narrow acoustic window close to the transducer. It also does not have the best resolution of structures at greater depths.
116
Which of the following is a strong natural reflector? Bone. Gallbladder. Heart. Diaphragm.
Diaphragm. Natural reflectors that are strong include diaphragm, bowel, and pleura. Objects that are offset or angled to strong reflectors can result in a mirror image artifact. Metallic objects are also strong reflectors.
117
The beam will be cylindrical in the ______. Far field. Near field. Near and far field. Entire field.
Near field The beam is cylindrical in the near field. The beam will diverge in the far field. The near field has a larger length than the far field.
118
How many doppler shifts occur during an exam? 3. 4. 2. 1.
2 One Doppler shift occurs when sound strikes red blood cells. The other happens when the transducer receives the reflected sound wave.
119
How are the gaps filled between the scan lines in the scan converter? They are not. Greyscale. Intrapolation. Interpolation.
Interpolation The scan converter is used to store the echoes in the correct location. Gaps between the scan lines are filled using a mathematical sequence called interpolation. This improves the image.
120
What type of resolution can be enhanced by adding color? Elevational resolution. Temporal resolution. Contrast resolution. Axial resolution.
Contrast resolution The eye is more likely to be able to distinguish different colors as opposed to varying shades of grey. This increases the contrast between different parts of an image.
121
What is temporal resolution? - The time from the end of a frame to the beginning of the next frame. - The time from the beginning of a frame to the next. - The time from the beginning of a frame to the end of that frame. - The number of focal points.
The time from the beginning of a frame to the next Temporal resolution is used to determine the capability the ultrasound machine has to distinguish between instantaneous events of rapidly moving subjects. The less time it takes, the more accurate results you can get.
122
What is placed on the skin directly during an ultrasound? X-ray machine. Transducer. Catheter. Lamp.
Transducer Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
123
Which of the following is not a type of echocardiography? Doppler. Z-mode. M-mode. B-mode.
Z-mode There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. Each type offers a different view.
124
The piezoelectric effect is: - When ultrasounds do not create images. - Voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it. - Lack of voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it. - The creation of ultrasound images.
Voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it The voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it is known as the piezoelectric effect. Piezoelectric materials can be found in transducers. It is considered a reversible process.
125
The rate that sound travels through a medium is known as which of the following? Attenuation speed. Propagation speed. Sonic speed. Echogenicity.
Propagation speed Propagation speed is the speed at which sound travels through a medium. It is determined solely by the medium and is measured in mm/s.
126
How is duty factor calculated? (PRP/pulse duration) x 100. Pulse duration/100. Pulse duration x 100. (Pulse duration/PRP) x 100.
(Pulse duration/PRP) x 100 The duty factor is a fraction of transmission time, therefore, pulse duration must be divided by the pulse repetition period. The number is then multiplied by 100 to get the duty factor percentage.
127
Which type of artifact appears as bright, curved lines that usually seen in hypoechoic or echo-free structures? Beam-width artifact. Mirror-image artifact. Lateral edge shadow. Side-lobe artifact.
Side-lobe artifact Side-lobe artifacts are bright, curved lines that are usually seen in hypoechoic or echo-free structures. They are caused by side-lobes, which are secondary oblique concentrations of energy located off the main beam access.
128
Tissues that produce echoes which are brighter than the surrounding tissues are known as which of the following? Hyperechoic. Isoechoic. Anechoic. Hypoechoic.
Hyperechoic Hyperechoic tissue produce very strong echoes. They will appear brighter than the surrounding tissue.
129
The phased array fires the beam from ________. All elements. Subset of elements. Center elements. Outer elements.
All elements. The phased array fires the beam from all elements in the transducer, and the linear from a subset of elements. The phased array manages to focus the beam by using fractional time delay.
130
The amount of matter in a given space is known as which of the following? Volume. Density. Refraction. Compression.
Density Density is the volume of material in a given space. The denser a medium, the slower sound moves through it.
131
What is the definition of bandwidth? The range of frequencies. The type of transducer. The range of wavelengths. The number of sound waves produced.
The range of frequencies Bandwidth refers to a specified frequency range. For instance, there are transducers that can produce frequencies from 5-7.5MHz in order to perform superficial imaging.
132
What converts to analog? DAC. RI. PI. ADC.
Correct Answer: DAC Digital analog converter converts the image from digital back to analog. This is necessary for the echoes to be shown with the appropriate brightness of the CRT or the cathode ray tube.
133
PI is associated with which of the following? Pacemakers. Stents. Doppler. X-rays.
Doppler PI stands for pulsatility index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by (Maximum flow – Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow. The PI should be between 1 and 5. The higher the PI, the more likely the probability of technical errors is.
134
What is the typical range of the duty factor? 1% to 2%. 0. 2% to 1%. 0. 1% to 1%. 0. 2% to 2%.
0.1% to 1%. The duty factor typically has a range from 0.1% to 1%. It is higher in Doppler pulse because the scan time is longer.
135
Tissue that produces no echoes is known as which of the following? Anechoic. Hyperechoic. Hypoechoic. Isoechoic.
Anechoic Some tissue produces no echo. This is known as anechoic tissue. It may also be referred to as sonolucent tissue.
136
What is true of scattering? It goes in a single direction. It goes in all directions. It goes in two directions. It goes in three directions.
It goes in all directions Scattering differs from reflection. The energy from reflection is distributed in one direction. In scattering, the energy is distributed in all directions, and it is weaker than reflected energy.
137
The spectral Doppler waveform is used to calculate ______. CA and RI. RI. PI. RI and PI.
RI and PI The spectral Doppler waveform calculates both the resistive index (RI) and the pulsatility index (PI). Low RI or PI are indications that there is a malignancy in the tissue.
138
Which of the following is an advantage of using a linear transducer? Good resolution of structures at greater depths. Small footprint. Ability to scan through a small acoustic window. Good resolution of structures near the transducer.
Good resolution of structures near the transducer In a linear transducer, multiple parallel elements are arranged in a straight line, producing a rectangular image field. The main advantage to using a linear transducer is that it has good resolution of structures near the transducer.
139
The focal zone is where ___. - The object being examined is located. - The best resolution is achieved with a particular transducer. - The closest focus of an object occurs. - The portion ultrasound beam is indicated to the left of the image.
The best resolution is achieved with a particular transducer The focal zone is the area that an object should be placed in for the best results because the better resolution affords for great detail in the examination. Therefore, the focal zone is where the best resolution is achieved.
140
The head of the pancreas is related anteriorly to which of the following? Pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver. Vena cava and right renal vein. Portal vein and hepatic artery. Third part of the duodenum.
Pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas has a spatial relationship with many organs. The head of the pancreas is related anteriorly to the pyloric region, duodenal bulb, and liver.
141
While a gallbladder ultrasound can be performed with the patient in a supine position, what position is ideal? Prone. Sims'. Left lateral decubitus position. Right lateral decubitus position.
Left lateral decubitus position The left lateral decubitus position is facing towards the left. This would be an ideal position to get images of the gallbladder since it is on the right side.
142
What is a risk factor of cholelithiasis? Being female. Being male. Being underweight. Family history of gallbladder disease.
Being female Females have a much higher chance of getting the condition. This is increased even more in pregnant women.
143
You should use which of the following as a reference when evaluating the parenchyma of the liver? Parenchyma of the gallbladder. Pancreatic parenchyma. Parenchyma of the bladder. Renal parenchyma.
Renal parenchyma The parenchyma of the liver shows a moderately dense, homogeneous echo pattern. Though it is slightly hypoechoic to the liver, the renal parenchyma is used as a reference for evaluating hepatic echogenicity.
144
The right portal vein branch divides which of the following segments of the lower portion of the liver? Posterior and lateral. Lateral and medial. Medial and anterior. Anterior and posterior.
Anterior and posterior Additional segmentation landmarks are needed in the lower portion of the liver because the hepatic veins are small and arborized. The right portal vein branch divides the anterior and posterior segments.
145
The noncontracted gallbladder walls may be up to how thick? 2 mm. 3 mm. 4 mm. 5 mm.
3 mm. The gallbladder wall consists of three layers and may be up to 3 mm thick. Thickness of the gallbladder wall may be measured to diagnosis of both chronic and acute cholecystitis. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
146
The average diameter of the aorta is which of the following? 3 to 3.5 cm. 5 to 5.5 cm. 1 to 1.5 cm. 2 to 3 cm.
2 to 3 cm. The average diameter of the aorta is 2 to 3 cm. Diameters which are less than or greater than this may indicate stenosis, aneurysm, or other pathology.
147
What medical history may be important to know about someone before performing a liver ultrasound? Diabetes. Alcohol consumption. Diabetes and alcohol consumption. Eating disorders.
Diabetes and alcohol consumption Fat as well as toxins can greatly affect the liver. Both of these could make the liver larger and inflamed.
148
Which of the following might show up in a kidney ultrasound? Kidney stones. Cysts or tumors. Kidney stones / cysts or tumors. None of the above.
Kidney stones/cysts or tumors An ultrasound of the kidney is done to show the size and any abnormalities of the kidneys. It is often a great noninvasive way to find kidney stones, cysts, and tumors.
149
The body of the pancreas is related superiorly to which of the following? - Celiac trunk. - Left lobe of the liver and antrum of the stomach. - Splenic vein, confluence, superior mesenteric artery, and splenic artery. - Jejunum.
Jejunum. With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas has a spatial relationship with many organs. The body of the pancreas is related superiorly to the jejunum.
150
Which of the following arteries supplies the gallbladder? Hepatic artery. Colic artery. Gonadal artery. Cystic artery.
Cystic artery The cystic artery supplies blood to the gallbladder. The ability to locate and identify the vessels and organs of the abdomen is a key skill in abdominal sonography.
151
Decidua basalis can be defined as __. Where implantation takes place. The opposite uterus wall. The capsule around the chorion. The after birth.
Where implantation takes place Decidua basalis is the piece of the decidua where the basal plate is formed and implantation takes place. It is also where the detachment of placenta takes place after birth.
152
Which of the following may be a sign that a patient has an abdominal abscess? Low body temperature. Appendix pain. Huge appetite. Abdominal distention.
Abdominal distention. An abdominal abscess can be caused by an infection or ulcer. If it is large it can distend the stomach.
153
Fibrolipomatosis requires differentiation from which of the following? Chronic pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis. Salt-and-pepper pattern in pancreatic parenchyma. Pseudocysts.
Salt-and-pepper pattern in pancreatic parenchyma Fibrolipomatosis is a homogeneous increase in parenchymal echogenicity due to fatty infiltration. The condition requires differentiation from a coarse "salt-and-pepper" pattern, which is a normal variant.
154
Which of the following arteries supplies the testes? Cystic arteries. Gonadal arteries. Sigmoid branches. Renal arteries.
Gonadal artery The gonadal arteries supply the gonads -- the testes in men and the ovaries in women. The ability to locate and identify the key vessels and organs is an important skill for sonographers.
155
Which of the following typically produces a comet-tail artifact due to high impedance mismatch? Ligamentum teres. Simple calcifications. Hemangiomas. Air in the bile ducts.
Air in the bile ducts Air in the bile ducts typically produces a comet-tail artifact due to the high impedance mismatch. This condition can have numerous causes including a previous papillotomy, a stent in the bile duct, a biliary-enteric anastomosis, and cholangitis.
156
What is the organization that develops guidelines for ultrasound procedures? AIIM. AIUM. AUMI. AAUM.
AIUM AIUM stands for American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine. This association was made to govern the advancement and practice of ultrasound.
157
All but which of the following are sonographic signs of chronic hepatitis? Hyperechoic liver parenchyma. Decreased echogenicity of portal vein walls. Hyperechoic portal vein walls. Enlarged liver.
Hyperechoic portal vein walls. In chronic hepatitis, as opposed to acute hepatitis, there is decreased echogenicity of the portal vein walls. Other signs include enlarged liver and hyperechoic liver parenchyma.
158
The tail of the pancreas is related superiorly to which of the following? Body of the stomach and left lobe of the liver. Colon and splenic hilum. Left kidney and splenic vein. Body and cardia of the stomach.
Body and cardia of the stomach. With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas is related to numerous organs. The tail of the pancreas is superiorly related to the body and cardia of the stomach.
159
Sonographic features of vena cava thrombosis include all but which of the following? Distension. Lack of compressibility. Intraluminal echogenicity. Compressibility.
Compressibility Thrombosis of the vena cava can be identified by the following sonographic features: distension, lack of compressibility, and intraluminal echogenicity. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
160
An upper abdominal longitudinal scan is used to measure which dimension(s) of the gallbladder? Length. Depth. Width. Both length and depth.
Both length and depth Both the length of depth of the gallbladder are measured using an upper abdominal longitudinal scan. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
161
What might be the reason for retained placenta? Contractions are not sufficient. Infection of the uterus. Infection of the placenta. A partially closed cervix.
A partially closed cervix If the cervix is partially closed it can trap the placenta. This must be remedied as soon as possible to prevent bleeding and infection.
162
What might you find in an ultrasound if the baby has a skeletal dysplasia? Asymmetric bone growth. Renal cysts. Abnormal brain development. Extra limbs.
Asymmetric bone growth Skeletal dysplasia causes many abnormalities in the growth of bones. One such abnormality could be that one limb is longer than the other.
163
Which of the following is considered the vaginal entrance? Labia minora. Vaginal introitus. Urethral meatus. Clitoris.
Vaginal introitus There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. The vestibule includes 3 parts. They are: clitoris, urethral meatus, and vaginal introitus. The vaginal entrance is the vaginal introitus.
164
What is a sign the cord could be prolapsed? Breech position. Bradycardia. Decreased movement. PROM.
Bradycardia Bradycardia occurs when the heartbeat drops below 120 beats per minute. If the cord has prolapsed it could slow the blood flow and heart rate.
165
What is the condition called when an infant's intestines stick out the body with no protective sac? Omphalocoele. Gastroschisis. In utero bowel perforation. Intestinal agenesis.
Gastroschisis. Gastroschisis can involve the herniation of the small intestine, large intestine, stomach, or even liver and these organs are not protected by any sac. The prognosis is surprisingly good depending on the condition of the bowel at delivery.
166
Biparietal diameter below what percentile are considered abnormal? 50th percentile. 20th percentile. 15th percentile. 10th percentile.
10th percentile BPD is used once the gestational age is known to assess normal growth rate. When the measurement is below the 10th percentile it would indicate retarded growth.
167
What shows up in an ultrasound as black spots in the kidneys? Renal cysts. Renal cancer. Renal pelvis dilation. All of the above.
All of the above. Black spots that appear on a renal ultrasound can indicate cysts, absecesses, issues with blood vessels, or kidney cancer. Further testing is recommended.
168
The uterus is which of the following? Artery. Organ. Gland. Bone.
Organ The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus includes the following functions: labor, menses, implantation, gestation, and delivery. It responds to hormonal milieu. Hormonal milieu helps the body adjust to the different stages of a reproductive life.
169
The vagina does which of the following? Passage for urine only. Passage for childbirth only. Passage for menstrual flow only. Both passage for childbirth and menstrual flow.
Both passage for childbirth and menstrual flow The vagina is approximately 6 inches long. It leads from the uterus to the external genitalia. It can be found between the rectum and bladder. The vagina is used to give passage for childbirth. It also gives passage for menstrual flow.
170
Symmetrical intrauterine growth restriction is most likely a result of First trimester insult. Placental insufficiency. Maternal hypertension. Second trimester infection.
First trimester insult. Symmetrical intrauterine growth restriction is generally a result of first trimester insult. Asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction may be the result of placental insufficiency, chromosomal abnormality, uterine infection or maternal hypertension.
171
What first covers the embryo and then fills with fluid? Amnion. Chorion. Ectoderm. Mesoderm.
Amnion When amnion first forms it closely covers the embryo. Soon, it will begin to fill with fluid to form the amniotic sac.
172
A condition marked by fluid within the Fallopian tube is known as which of the following? Pylosalpinx. Salpingitis. Myometritis. Hydrosalpinx.
Hydrosalpinx Hydrosalpinx is an accumulation of fluid within the Fallopian tube. It is one condition which may be diagnosed with sonography.
173
By about how many weeks should fetal cardiac activity be present? 6 weeks. 4 weeks. 12 weeks. 15 weeks.
6 weeks A heart beat can often be registered even before the mass of fetal cells is identified. While heart rate is slower at this time, it is present at 6 weeks.
174
What is Chadwick's sign? Contractions. Change in the color of the vagina and cervix. Vaginal bleeding. Increased vaginal discharge.
Change in the color of the vagina and cervix One of the first signs of pregnancy is the change in color of the labia, cervix, and vagina. They will become a blue or purple color.
175
Which of the following is an external organ found in the reproductive system of a female? Mons pubis. Labia minora. Labia majora. All of the above.
All of the above There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineu, and Bartholin’s glands.
176
What does the amniotic fluid level need to be for a diagnosis of polyhydramnios? 18. 0. 21. 0. 24. 0. 25. 0.
25.0 Fluid levels can be indicative of congenital abnormalities. It is considered too much fluid once the levels reach 25.0.
177
Where is the uterus located? In the upper female stomach. In the female pelvis. In both the female and male pelvis. Below the pelvis.
In the female pelvis The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix.
178
In the secretory phase, there are: Low levels of LH. High levels of LH. Randomized levels of LH. No levels of LH.
High levels of LH During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
179
What is the medical term for blood in the urine? Hematuria. Hemectin. Clotuterine. Helioturia.
Hematuria Hematuria is the term used to describe blood in the urine. This can be caused by strenuous exercise, certain medication, or a serious medical problem.
180
What type of neoplasm would originate from all three germinal layers and occur almost anywhere in the body? Lymphangioma. Glioblastoma. Teratoma. Mesoblastic nephroma.
Teratoma There is more than one type of teratoma, and it is the most common congenital neoplasm composed of tissues originating from all three germinal layers. An ultrasound can often confirm this diagnosis.
181
The isthmus does which of the following? Creates a sac around a fetus. Releases eggs into the fallopian tubes. Separates the cervix and body together. Joins the cervix and body together.
Joins the cervix and body together The uterus is an organ found in the female body. It is also known as the womb. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. The isthmus joins the cervix and body together.
182
Which of the following ultrasound findings would indicate the possibility of triploidy? Short limbs. Small placenta. Renal cysts. Extra extremities.
Small placenta. If the condition is derived from the mother, then small placenta will be a good indicator of triploidy. A small placenta can also lead to problems with breathing and oxygen levels.
183
AIUM stands for what? American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine. Allied Institute of Ultrasound in Mediation. American Ideals of Ultrasound in Medicine. Associated Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine.
American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine AIUM stands for the American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine. The AIUM gives guidelines on how to perform and record images during ultrasounds. Patients should make sure that the facility that they are receiving an ultrasound is certified by the AIUM.
184
How will a patient be positioned for a second trimester ultrasound? Lie on her stomach. Lie on her back. Stand straight up. Lie on her left side.
Lie on her back. The second trimester of pregnancy ultrasound can determine the sex of the baby. It looks at how well the baby is progressing. The ultrasound in this trimester is usually done between weeks 18-22. For this ultrasound the patient will lie on her back.
185
What bodily system does the yolk sac take the place of until it develops? Digestive system. Circulatory system. Nervous system. Respiratory system.
Circulatory system The yolk sac provides early nourishment for an embryo, but it also serves as the developmental circulatory system. This is because internal circulation has not yet developed.
186
Many times a choroid plexus cyst can be ignored, but what head shape would indicate the possibility of a chromosomal abnormality? Oblong. Strawberry. Apple. Square.
Strawberry Choroid plexus cysts on their own can go away and mean nothing. However, these cysts plus a strawberry shaped head could lead to a diagnosis of Edward's syndrome also known as Trisonomy 18.
187
Which of the following can be fertilized? First polar body. Secondary oocyte. Cilia. Follicle.
Secondary oocyte The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Oogonia are eggs in a developing fetus. The amount of eggs a person releases is determined before they are born. Oogonia divide into primary oocytes by the time a female is born. Primary oocytes become active at puberty. After it divides, it will produce two different cells, the secondary oocyte (which can be fertilized) and first polar body (cannot be fertilized).
188
When is a biophysical profile typically done? 12-16 weeks. 16-20 weeks. 20-24 weeks. 32-36 weeks.
32-36 weeks A biophysical profile is meant to measure the health of the baby. It is done in the third trimester.
189
What is expelled during a menstruation cycle? Mucus. Blood. Epithelial cells. All of the above.
All of the above During a woman’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a woman’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a woman’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
190
The uterus is given blood through which of the following? Ovarian arteries. Uterine arteries. Both the ovarian and uterine arteries. Aorta.
Both the ovarian and uterine arteries The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix. Blood is brought to the uterus through both the ovarian and uterine arteries.
191
All but which of the following are sonographic features of cystosarcoma phyllodes in the breast? Mass breaches fascial planes. Mass with low- to medium-level echo pattern. Width of mass larger than the height. Smooth wall margins.
Mass breaches fascial planes Cystosarcoma phyllodes are uncommon benign fibroepithelial neoplasms that may undergo a malignant transformation. The sonographic features of cystosarcoma phyllodes include an oval, unilateral mass demonstrating a low- to medium-level echo pattern, may demonstrate cystic spaces within the mass, and smooth wall margins. The mass does not breach fascial planes, and internal blood flow may be demonstrated.
192
All but which of the following are sonographic features of fibroadenoma in the breast? Low- to medium-level echo pattern. Height of mass is larger than the width. Posterior acoustic enhancement. Mass does not breach fascial plane.
Height of mass is larger than the width. Fibroadenoma is a tumor composed of dense epithelial and fibroblastic tissue. Sonographic features of fibroadenoma include a solid oval-shaped breast mass with low- to medium-level echo pattern, and posterior acoustic enhancement. The mass does not breach fascial planes, and the width of the mass is larger than the height. Internal blood flow may be demonstrated.
193
What is breast sonography used for? To remove breast tissue. To acquire images of the breasts. To treat cancer. To grow breast tissue.
To acquire images of the breasts. Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. The sound waves can create images of the breasts. It can show all areas of the breast.
194
Which of the following is a differential consideration for sonographic findings indicative of gynecomastia? Abscess. Normal breast fat. Neoplasm. Complex cyst.
Neoplasm When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of a gynecomastia include neoplasm and mastitis.
195
Parathyroids produce what? Insulin. PTH. Blood. Oxygen.
PTH There are four parathyroid glands. They can be found behind and next to the thyroid. They produce the parathryroid hormone (PTH). A parathyroid sonogram checks the parathyroid’s health.
196
Which of the following is a differential consideration for sonographic findings indicative of mastitis? Papillary carcinoma. Fibrocystic disease. Neoplasm. Complex cyst.
Fibrocystic disease When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. The differential consideration for the sonographic findings characteristic of mastitis is fibrocystic disease.
197
Abnormal thyroid sonography results may be due to which of the following? Enlarged thyroid gland. Thyroid nodules. Cysts. All of the above.
All of the above The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It is painless, and noninvasive. Normal results will include a normal size, position, and shape of the thyroid. Abnormal results can occur because of thyroid nodules, cysts, and an enlarged thyroid gland.
198
Which of the following is not a reason to have a breast sonogram performed? To determine the diagnosis of a mass on the lungs. To determine the nature of a breast abnormality. To determine if a breast abnormality is solid. As a supplemental breast cancer screening.
To determine the diagnosis of a mass on the lungs Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. There are many reasons to have one performed including: as a supplemental breast cancer screening, to determine if an abnormality is solid, to determine the nature of a breast abnormality, and to help diagnosis an abnormality.
199
Which of the following describes the sonographic appearance of the retromammary layer? Hypoechoic. Hyperechoic with posterior acoustic shadowing. Hyperechoic. Anechoic.
Hypoechoic. When scanning the breast, it is important to know how a healthy breast should appear sonographically. The retromammary layer of the breast appears hypoechoic.
200
Which of the following is the origin of nearly all breast pathology? Lactiferous duct. Terminal ductal lobular unit. Superficial fascia. Retromammary space.
Terminal ductal lobular unit The terminal ductal lobular unit is formed by the acini and terminal duct, and several of these units join to form a breast lobe. Terminal ductal lobular units are an origin of nearly all breast pathology.
201
Which of the following should sonographers do? Promote patient privacy. Promote patient dignity. Promote patient comfort. All of the above.
All of the above Sonographers must abide all laws, and follow the code of ethics when working with patients. They should provide care non-judgmentally as well as in a non-discriminatory manner. The sonographer should always advocate for the patient, as well as promote patient privacy, dignity and comfort
202
Which of the following is needed before a sonogram can begin? Patient identity verification. Payment for all future procedures, up to 1 year. A diagnosis. Nothing is needed.
Patient identity verification Before a sonogram can be performed, it is necessary to get certain information. First, a patient’s identity should be verified. This can be done with government issued identifications.
203
Which section of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics contains Amendments to the Standards of Ethics? Risks of work. Administrative procedures. Code of Ethics. Rules of Ethics.
Administrative procedures The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of three large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. There are ten sections. The Rules of Ethics is comprised of 22 sections. The final section, administrative procedures has 6 sections. Amendments to the Standards of Ethics can be found in the administrative procedures category.
204
Permission that is gained from a patient for a procedure, after the patient has been fully informed about the procedure and its potential risks, is known as which of the following? Informed consent. Express consent. Implied consent. Total consent.
Informed consent Informed consent is consent obtained from a patient for a procedure, after he or she has been fully informed about the procedure. Informed consent may or may not be written, though written consent offers more legal protection and is often preferred.
205
A set of protections designed to protect others from germs that are within a patient's wounds is known as which of the following? Enteric precautions. Wound-skin precautions. Reverse isolation. Standard precautions.
Wound-skin precautions Wound-skin precautions are designed to protect others from germs which may be in a patient's wounds. When observing wound-skin precautions, handwashing is required and gloves and gowns must be worn. If the dressing must be removed to perform sonography, a mask must also be worn.
206
Why were the Patient’s Bill of Rights created? - To protect patient’s from insurance companies. - To protect medical professionals from patients. - To limit the amount of people that can get health coverage. - To make health insurance free for all.
To protect patient’s from insurance companies The new Patient’s Bill of Rights was created in 2010. It is part of the Affordable Care Act. It was created to protect patients. Some of the rights given under this are: patient’s are entitled to particular preventive screenings free of charge, patient’s have the right to have an easy to understand list of their health plan benefits, and all people are entitled to coverage regardless of pre-existing conditions.
207
Information consisting of ordinary facts that are not specific to a patient is known as which of the following? Nonprivileged information. Privileged information. Individually Identifiable Health Information. Personal health record.
Nonprivileged information Nonprivileged information is information made of general facts not specific to a patient. The patient does not need to authorize disclosure of this type of information under HIPAA.
208
Which of the following is the federal law that regulates the disclosure of health related information? FERPA. HIPAA. ADA. ENDA.
HIPAA HIPAA, or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is the federal law that governs health information. HIPAA mandates that protected health information may only be disclosed to approved parties.
209
What is the range of ultrasonic wave frequencies? 20,000 to 300,000 Hz. 20,000 to 3,000,000 Hz. 2,000 to 300,000 Hz. 2000 to 30,000 Hz.
20,000 to 3,000,000 Hz Ultrasound is a form of sound energy in the form of waves having a frequency above the human hearing range. The range of ultrasonic range frequencies is 20,000 to 3,000,000 Hz.
210
The measurement SPTA describes the ___ exposure within a beam averaged over the period of exposure. Radiation. Highest. Lowest. Heat.
Highest. SPTA stands for the spatial peak temporal average. This would be the average of the highest exposure with the time of exposure.
211
Incident that travels in a way that is not perpendicular to the boundary between the two different media is ________. Perpendicular Incident. Oblique Incident. Incident. All of the above.
Oblique Incident Oblique Incident occurs when the incident does not travel perpendicularly to the boundary between two different media. The incidence angle provides the direction that is traveled.
212
What does MI stand for? Managed ideals. Managed index. Mechanical index. Maintained index.
Mechanical index MI stands for Mechanical index. It is an estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude. It is used to indicate mechanical bio-effects.
213
Which of the following make up the Doppler mode? - Power Doppler. - Power Doppler and Doppler Sensitivity. - Doppler Sensitivity. - Color Doppler and Power Doppler.
Power Doppler and Doppler Sensitivity. The Doppler mode is used to differentiate blood flow. This mode is made up of Power Doppler and Doppler Sensitivity.
214
The piezoelectric effect is why transducers act as _______. Transmitter and receiver. Transmitter. Receiver. None of the above.
Transmitter and receiver The transducer runs by the piezoelectric effect. This allows it to be both the transmitter and receiver.
215
In which mode is the acoustic axis of the transducer swept through the tissues to create a two-dimensional black and white image? A-mode. B-mode. M-mode. F-mode.
B-mode In the B-mode, the acoustic axis of the transducer is swept through the tissues to acquire the total number of lines needed to make a sectional image. All of the image lines are then assembled to create a two-dimensional, black and white image.
216
Which of the following receives echoes from moving structures such as the heart? B-mode. Doppler. M-mode. Pulse echo.
M-mode The M-mode differs from the B-mode in that it receives echoes from both stationary tissue and moving tissue such as the heart. Like the B-mode, lines are used to complete the image.
217
Pulsed and continuous wave Doppler are both examples of __. Doppler Effect Spectral Doppler. Doppler artifacts. Doppler shift.
Spectral Doppler. Both pulsed and continuous Doppler can be used in conjunction with color flow imaging for the best image possible. These are both known as a type of Spectral Doppler imaging which enhances information in a small region.
218
Which of the following will have the lowest speed of sound? Water. Bone. Gas. Fat.
Gas Gas has low density and low stiffness. This results in an extremely low speed of sound. The speed of sound for gas is lower than it is in liquid or solid materials in the other answer choices.
219
Which of the following is true about ultrasounds? It produces a burning sensation for the patient. It causes bones to deteriorate. There is no risk for patients. The patient will only feel a moderate discomfort from sound waves.
There is no risk for patients Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure is considered completely safe, and there is no risk to patients.
220
How are the sound waves transmitted in ultrasound? Longitudinal waves. Horizontal waves. Oblique waves. Perpendicular waves.
Longitudinal waves Ultrasounds transmit and receive waves. The waves are transmitted as longitudinal waves. These are vibrated to create compression and rarefaction.
221
What type of artifact occurs when two or more highly reflective materials are encountered by an ultrasound beam? Comet tail. Acoustic shadowing. Reverberation. Mirror image.
Reverberation When the beam encounters two highly reflective objects it may bounce back and forth between them. This would cause multiple bands of noise to show up in an image, thus causing reverberation.
222
What is the most common or typical duty factor used in ultrasound imaging? 1. 5%. 1. 6%. 0. 1%. 2. 0%.
0.1%. The ranges of duty factor are from 0.1% to 1%.
223
What is the difference between the actual pressure and the normal rest pressure? Pressure amplitude. Amplitude. Excess pressure. Intensity.
Excess pressure Excess pressure is the difference between actual pressure and normal rest pressure. The pressure is positive if the medium is compressed. It is negative when rarefaction occurs.
224
Which of the following converts echoes to digital form? DAC. RI. PI. ADC.
ADC The analog digital converter (ADC) is used to convert echoes to digital form. The voltage amplitude is the analog. This is converted to discrete numbers for the purpose of numerical coding.
225
All but which of the following are advantages of using sector transducers? Small footprint. Good resolution of structures near the transducer. Ability to scan through a small acoustic window. Clear definition of structures at greater depths.
Good resolution of structures near the transducer. With sector transducers, the ultrasound beam is moved through a fan-shaped sector either mechanically or electronically. Advantages of using a sector transducer include: a small footprint, the ability to scan through a small acoustic window, and clear definition of structures at greater depths.
226
Aliasing occurs with which of the following? Changes in patient body temperature. Changes in room temperature. Continuous ultrasounds. Pulsed ultrasounds.
Pulsed ultrasounds Aliasing occurs in pulsed ultrasounds. It frequently occurs in color dopplers, and pulse wave spectral Dopplers. For pulsed ultrasounds, an upper limit is displayed of the Doppler shift. This is referred to as the Nyquist limit. It is considered pulse repetition frequency/2. Aliasing appears as bright and turbulent blood flow in the color Doppler. There are many ways to avoid aliasing. They include: image a more shallow depth, angle of insonification is increased, a low frequency transducer can be used, continuous wave imaging can be used, the scale can be changed, the baseline display is changed.
227
What is a mirror image? Two of the same vessels in the body. When a vessel image is duplicated. Two of the same vessels outside of the body. A copy of the original image.
When a vessel image is duplicated. A mirror image can be found in the Doppler system. It is when a vessel image can be duplicated. This duplicated vessel is many times mistaken as an extra vessel instead of an image. It is an electronic duplication.
228
Echoes in ultrasound images that do not correspond to an anatomic structure are known as which of the following? Attenuations. Artifacts. Errors. Flaws.
Artifacts Artifacts in the ultrasound images are echoes that do not correspond to an anatomic structure. They result from the physical properties of ultrasound images.
229
What is the term for an abnormality found in a tissue or gland within an organ? Heterogeneous echotexture. Glandular deformation. Echogenicity. Coarse echotexture.
Heterogeneous echotexture Heterogeneous echotexture can refer to any abnormality in glands and tissue within an organ that shows up on an ultrasound. Most often, this is seen in the thyroid, liver, or breasts.
230
What will help prevent snow in the image? Increase gain. Increase intensity. Decrease gain. Decrease intensity.
Decrease gain Snow occurs from noise that is displayed. Increasing the gain too far can result in noise being displayed. If snow is present, gain needs to be decreased.
231
The number of pulses occurring in one second refers to what? Sonographic pulses. Pulse repetition period. Pulse repetition frequency. Pulse duration.
Pulse repetition frequency Pulse repetition frequency is the number of pulses that occur in a second. It is measured in kHz.
232
What is known as the distance between consecutive cycles of sound? Wavelength. Frequency. Wave cycle. Radiolength.
Wavelength The wavelength is measured as the distance between two crests. It is the spatial period of the wave.
233
Which piezoelectric effect is the contraction and expansion of a crystal in response to a voltage applied across it that generates a sound wave? Immediate. Indirect. Direct. Delayed.
Indirect The piezoelectric effect is a reversible process. The indirect or inverse piezoelectric effect is the contraction and expansion of a crystal in response to a voltage applied across it that generates a sound wave.
234
What is MI? - The change in heartbeat during any medical procedure. - A type of heart monitor. - An estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues minimum amplitude. - An estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude.
An estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude MI stands for Mechanical index. It is an estimation of the pressure pulse in tissues maximum amplitude. It is used to indicate mechanical bio-effects.
235
The generation of signals in ultrasounds is what for patients? Highly dangerous. Completely safe. Semi-dangerous. Safety is untested.
Completely safe Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure is considered completely safe, and there is no risk to patients.
236
What occurs when the beam hits the rounded structure edge and reflected at an angle? Banding. Edge-shadowing. Side lobe. Ghosting.
Edge-shadowing The Edge-shadowing artifact occurs when the beam hits the rounded structure edge and is reflected at an angle. Not as many echoes make it to the back of the transducer. This creates a shadow along the edge.
237
What occurs when the transducer’s bandwidth is too small? The pulse length shrinks. The axial resolution increases. The pulse length grows. Nothing.
The pulse length grows The transmit pulse is designed to encompass a full range of frequencies. The transducer should be able to process these frequencies. If the bandwidth is too small, the pulse length will grow.
238
Which of the following is measured in units called Mega Pascals? Amplitude. Intensity. Power. Bandwidth.
Amplitude Amplitude is measured in units of pressure. Units of pressure are expressed as Mega Pascals.
239
Which of the following is Not varied to create spatial compounding? Transmitted beam location. Transducer position. Receiver beam location. Tissue amplitude.
Tissue amplitude Spatial compounding averages different frames from the same area to limit speckling. Variations in the transmitted beam location, receiver beam location, and the transducer position.
240
What is the average vertical liver size? 20-25 mm. 20-25 cm. 15-18 mm. 15-18 cm.
15-18 cm The liver size will vary with age. The appropriate range is 15-18 cm vertically.
241
Lymph nodes of what size are considered to be suspicious? 1 cm or larger. 1.5 cm or larger. 2 cm or larger. 3 cm or larger.
1 cm or larger Lymph nodes 1 cm or larger are considered to be suspicious. Lymph nodes are located in close proximity to blood vessels, thus vascular examinations of the abdomen should include a routine search for enlarged lymph nodes. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
242
Blood that flows toward the liver is said to be which of the following? Hepatofugal. Hepatopetal. Hepatocentric. Hepatospheric.
Hepatopetal. Blood that flows toward the liver is said to be hepatopetal. The direction in which blood does -- or does not -- flow may reveal pathology or other abnormalities.
243
The average diameter of the superior mesenteric artery is which of the following? 0.6 cm. 6 cm. 1.5 cm. 3 cm.
0.6 cm The average diameter of the SMA (Superior Mesenteric Artery) is 0.6 cm. Diameters less than this may indicate stenosis, while diameters greater than this may indicate aneurysm.
244
An upper abdominal transverse scan is used to measure which of the following dimension(s) of the gallbladder? Width. Length. Depth. Length and depth.
Width An upper abdominal transverse scan is used to measure the width of the gallbladder. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
245
What constitutes an enlarged gallbladder? A measurement greater than 5cm. A measurement of greater than 5mm. A measurement of greater than 10 cm. A measurement of greater than 10 mm.
A measurement of greater than 10 cm The gallbladder stores bile in the body, and should be between 7 and 10 cm. More than 10 cm would mean that the gallbladder is enlarged which may indicate a medical problem.
246
If a gallbladder ultrasound is normal, how should the radioactive tracer react? - Flow evenly through the liver, then the gallbladder, then the beginning of the small intestine. - Have a variable flow through the liver and then gallbladder. - Be absorbed within the gallbladder. - Flow through the small and large intestine.
Flow evenly through the liver, then the gallbladder, then the beginning of the small intestine. This indicates that there are no blockages. The tracer must go through the liver first, since that is the easiest way to get to the gallbladder.
247
Which of the following lesions of the liver has a hypoechoic, nonhomogeneous appearance? Typical hemongioma. Nonparasitic hepatic cyst. Atypical hemangioma. Ligamentum teres.
Atypical hemangioma Atypical hemangiomas have a hypoechoic, nonhomogeneous appearance. In contrast, typical hemangiomas are echogenic.
248
What is a common cause of cholecystitis? Liver inflammation. Kidney stones. Gallstones. Reduction of blood flow to the gallbladder.
Gallstones Gallstones can cause an obstruction of the cystic duct. This obstruction will cause inflammation which leads to cholecystitis.
249
Which of the following is characterized by an unsettled parenchymal pattern with fine or coarse granularity? Cystic liver. Fatty liver. Cirrhosis of the liver. Hematoma.
Cirrhosis of the liver The parenchyma of the liver shows a moderately dense, homogeneous echo pattern. Cirrhosis of the liver is characterized by an unsettled parenchymal pattern with fine or coarse granularity.
250
The left hepatic veins divides which of the following segments of the upper liver? Medial and anterior. Lateral and medial. Anterior and posterior. Posterior and lateral.
Lateral and medial The hepatic veins are the structures that mark the segmental boundaries in the upper portion of the liver. The left hepatic vein divides the lateral and medial segments.
251
All but which of the following are sonographic signs of acute hepatitis? Liver enlargement. Hypoechoic liver parenchyma. Hypoechoic portal vein walls. Hyperechoic portal vein walls.
Hypoechoic portal vein walls. When conducting sonography for acute hepatatis, you should expect to see an enlarged liver and hypoechoic liver parenchyma. The walls of the portal veins will be hyperechoic.
252
Which of the following blood vessels passes upward from the celiac trunk and usually can be traced only a short distance? Splenic artery. Hepatic artery. Left gastric artery. Right iliac artery.
Left gastric artery The left gastric artery passes upward from the celiac trunk and runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. It usually only can be traced a short distance on an ultrasound. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
253
What is the term for an enlarged spleen? Splenradicium. Gaucher's disease. Endocarditis. Splenomegaly.
Splenomegaly Spleen is for spleen and mega implies large. There are many conditions that can cause the spleen to be enlarged.
254
All but which of the following are sonographic features of chronic cholecystitis? Hypoechoic rim. Decreased gallbladder size. Mural thickening. Lack of contractility.
Hypoechoic rim Sonographic features of chronic cholecystitis include decreased gallbladder size, mural thickening, hyperechoic wall, and lack of contractility. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
255
Which of the following optimizes scanning conditions and makes the liver more accessible? - Have the patient fast beforehand, including abstinence from coffee and nicotine. - Have the patient raise the right arm above the head. - Have the patient take antigas medication. - Have the patient positioned on the right side with the left arm stretched up over the head.
Have the patient raise the right arm above the head. To optimize scanning conditions and make the liver more accessible for scanning, have the patient lift the right arm above the head. Proper patient positioning increases the quality of sonographic images produced, which are vital to correct diagnosis and superior patient care.
256
How should a patient prepare for a pancreas ultrasound? Fasting for 6 hours before and no smoking. Fasting for 24 hours before and no smoking. No food or drink within an hour of the ultrasound. Eat and drink as normal.
Fasting for 6 hours before and no smoking Food doesn't directly affect the pancreas but bowel gas can obstruct the view. Smoking can also affect the pancreas and stomach enough to make results different.
257
Which of the following abnormalities of the vena cava appears as an intraluminal area of high echogenicity? Fusiform aneurysm. Kinking. Thrombus. Saccular aneurysm.
Thrombus A thrombus, or blood clot, appears as an intraluminal area of high echogenicity. Proper evaluation of sonographic images is vital to correct diagnosis and quality patient care.
258
A condition marked by the thickening and hardening of the arterial walls is known as which of the following? Atherosclerosis. Arteriostenosis. Arteriosclerosis. Aneurysm.
Arteriosclerosis. Arteriosclerosis is a condition marked by the thickening and hardening of the arterial walls. This can lead to loss of elasticity, which in turn can restrict blood flow.
259
All but which of the following are hypoechoic lesions in the liver? Nonparasitic hepatic cyst. Metastasis. Adenoma. Hematoma.
Nonparasitic hepatic cyst Hypoechoic lesions have echoes that are not as bright as normal or less bright than surrounding structures. They can be difficult to interpret in some cases. Hypoechoic hepatic lesions include metastasis, adenoma, focal nodular hyperplasia, atypical hemangioma, and hematoma.
260
Which artery supplies the appendix? Superior mesenteric artery Ileocolic artery Right colic artery Interior mesenteric artery
Ileocolic artery The ileocolic artery supplies the appendix. This artery also supplies the distal ileum.
261
How much water should a patient drink before a first trimester ultrasound? 24-32 oz of water. 30-45 oz of water. 45-65 oz of water. 68-79 oz of water.
24-32 oz of water The first trimester ultrasound occurs during week 5-14 of pregnancy. During a first trimester ultrasound, images are taken of the uterus using sound waves. Radiation is not used. One hour before the ultrasound, the patient will drink between 24-32 oz of water. The patient should not empty their bladder before the procedure. The bladder should be filled with fluids so a clear image can be taken.
262
What the average fetal heart rate by 5-6 weeks? 110 bpm. 140 bpm. 170 bpm. 200 bpm.
110 bpm At 5-6 week weeks, the average fetal heart rate is 110 bpm. Fetal heart rate is usually first visible on sonography at 6 weeks of gestation. Monitoring of fetal heart rate is important for detecting possible complications in the pregnancy.
263
Hydraencephaly is an abnormality of the Vein of Galen. Third ventricle. Cerebral cortex. Cisterna magna.
Cerebral cortex Hydraencephaly is a replacement of normal cerebral spinal fluid. This procedure is the necessary result from vascular compromise or congenital infection of the fetal brain.
264
For non-conjoined twins to be in a single sac, when would the split have to happen? After the 12th day. In the first 3 days. Between the 4th and 9th day. After the 9th day.
After the 9th day The longer it takes the split to happen, the more the twins will share. Once it gets past the 12th day, the twins will be conjoined.
265
When in the pregnancy can an ultrasound generally detect a neuroblastoma? First trimester. Second trimester. Third trimester. It is not detectable by ultrasound.
Third trimester Neuroblastoma shows up as either a solid or cystic fetal adrenal mass. It is usually detectable in the third trimester once the adrenal gland is big enough to clearly see.
266
The mons pubis is what? Covered with cilia. Covered with fine hair. Covered with coarse hair. Covered in no hair.
Covered with coarse hair. There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineu, and Bartholin’s glands. The mons pubis is covered with coarse hair and overlies the symphysis pubis.
267
On average, how long is the uterus? 8 mm. 8 feet. 8 inches. 8 cm.
8 cm The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix.
268
Using a trans-abdominal scan, a fetal heartbeat should be visible when the MSD measures which of the following? 16 mm. 20 mm. 25 mm. 30 mm.
25 mm The mean sac diameter (MSD) is a sonographic measurement of the gestational sac. Using a trans-abdominal scan, when the MSD measures 25 mm a fetal heartbeat should be visible.
269
What phase of a menstrual cycle occurs from days 15-28? Phase 1. Phase 2. Phase 3. Phase 6.
Phase 3 During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
270
What might be a sign that a patient should be tested for gestational diabetes before the second trimester? Weight gain in the first trimester. Poor diet. Low blood sugar. Sugar in the urine.
Sugar in the urine Sugar in the urine is generally a sign that diabetes has already developed. If this is the case, the test will be done in the first and second trimester.
271
The labia minora is enclosed by what? Vestibule. Labia majora. Fallopian tube. Uterus.
Labia majora There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. Running posteriorly from the mons pubis is the labia majora. The labia majora has 2 long skin folds which are covered in hair. The labia majora is used to protect other external reproductive organs. The labia minora has two small folds. It is enclosed by the labia majora. The job of the labia minora is to protect the openings of the urethra and vagina.
272
What mode should be used in the first trimester to confirm fetal heartbeat? Doppler Mode. B-Mode. M-Mode. Color Doppler Mode.
M-Mode M-mode is used in echocardiography. It is a way to get readings on fetal heart rate without using Doppler which could be harmful at this time in gestation.
273
How will a patient be positioned for a third trimester ultrasound? Lie on her back. Lie on her stomach. Stand straight up. Lie on her left side.
Lie on her back. The third trimester occurs from the 28th week to the conclusion of the pregnancy. In the third trimester, the last ultrasound usually occurs at the 30 week mark. Third trimester ultrasounds occur to check the baby’s heart rate. It also checks the amniotic fluid levels. In the third trimester the patient will lie on her back.
274
At how many weeks of pregnancy should a nuchal translucency screening test be performed? Between 6 and 10 weeks. Between 16 and 20 weeks. Between 11 and 14 weeks. Between 20 and 24 weeks.
Between 11 and 14 weeks The base of the baby's neck still needs to be transparent in order to perform the test, but the body must be developed enough to see structures properly. The last day this test can be performed is 13 weeks and 6 days of pregnancy.
275
What organs might be affected by a two-vessel umbilical cord? Heart and gallbladder. Heart and kidneys. Liver and kidneys. Liver and intestines.
Heart and kidneys These two organs develop at the same time as the umbilical cord. If this stage of development is interrupted, it can affect all three.
276
The ovaries produce which of the following? Estrogen. Progesterone. Both estrogen and progesterone hormones. Testosterone only.
Both estrogen and progesterone hormones The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovaries are kept in place by the broad ligament. Ovarian follicles are compact like tissues that are on the ovaries.
277
A patient should begin drinking water to fill their bladder how long before the first trimester ultrasound? 6 hours. 4 hours. 3 hours. 1 hour.
1 hour The first trimester ultrasound occurs during week 5-14 of pregnancy. During a first trimester ultrasound, images are taken of the uterus using sound waves. Radiation is not used. One hour before the ultrasound, the patient will drink between 24-32 oz of water. The patient should not empty their bladder before the procedure. The bladder should be filled with fluids so a clear image can be taken.
278
A genitourinary abnormality that is dependent on fetal gender is called Renal agenesis. Infantile polycystic disease. Multicystic dysplastic kidney. Posterior urethral valve obstruction.
Posterior urethral valve obstruction Posterior urethral valve obstruction is a genitourinary abnormality that is dependent on fetal gender. The presence of valves within the male urethra results in a urinary obstruction demonstrating a dilated bladder and posterior urethra.
279
How long is the average vaginal wall anteriorially? 9 cm. 7.5 cm. 7.5 in 10 cm.
7.5 cm The average vaginal wall is 7.5 cm long anteriorally. Posteriorally, the average vaginal wall measures 9 cm.
280
The uterus consists of how many tissue layers? 3. 5. 7. 9.
3 The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The inner layer is considered the most active layer. This layer reacts to cyclic ovarian hormone changes. This layer is crucial for menstruation and reproduction.
281
What type of uterus is tipped backward? Anteverted uterus. Retroverted uterus. Metroverted uterus. Converted uterus.
Retroverted uterus The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix. Blood is brought to the uterus through both the ovarian and uterine arteries. An anteverted uterus is a normally positioned, tipped forward uterus. A retroverted uterus is tipped backward.
282
What term is used to describe the urethra’s opening? Clitoris. Vaginal introitus. Labia minora. Urethral meatus.
Urethral meatus There are several external organs found in the reproduction system of the female. There are 6 of them. They include: labia majora, labia minora, mons pubis, vestibule, perineum, and Bartholin’s glands. The vestibule includes 3 parts. They are: clitoris, urethral meatus, and vaginal introitus. The vaginal entrance is the vaginal introitus. The urethral meatus is considered the urethra’s opening. The urethra is used to drain out urine for the bladder.
283
What layer of uterus tissue makes up the majority of uterine volume? Myometrium. Endometrium. Perimetrium. Trenometrium.
Myometrium The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The myometrium layer of tissue creates most of uterine volume. It is considered a muscular layer. It is made of mostly smooth muscle cells.
284
What is follicle stimulating hormone used for? To remove a fetus from the body. To lubricate the vagina for intercourse. To increase a woman’s sex drive. To stimulate an ovum maturing.
To stimulate an ovum maturing During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
285
The rectouterine pouch is found where? Between the spleen and rectum. In the outside center of the uterus. Between the wall of the uterus and rectum. Inside of the fallopian tube.
Between the wall of the uterus and rectum A cul-de-sac is the term given to a blind cavity that has one end closed. There are many areas of the body that are considered cul-de-sacs. The rectouterine pouch is commonly referred to as the pouch of Douglas. It is a cavity found between the wall of the uterus and rectum.
286
What chemical has been linked to cervical insufficiency? Progesterone. Diethylstilbestrol. Adrenaline. Relaxin.
Diethylstilbestrol Diethylstilbestrol is a synthetic form of estrogen. Exposure to this chemical before birth has often been linked to cervical insufficiency.
287
Which of the following is a non-immune cause of hydrops fetalis? Rh disease. Twin-twin transfusion syndrome. Hypothyroidism. Hypertension.
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome Hydrops fetalis is sometimes likened to heart failure. Twin-twin transfusion syndrome can cause this problem for the recipient twin.
288
What is an immune cause of hydrops fetalis? Tumors. Anemia. Parvovirus B19. Rh disease.
Rh disease Rh disease, while preventable, is a main immune cause of hydrops fetalis. Rh negative mothers need an injection before and sometimes during delivery.
289
Ovaries are kept in place by what? Broad ligament. Fimbriae. Peritoneal ligament. Cilia.
Broad ligament The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovaries are kept in place by the broad ligament. Ovarian follicles are compact like tissues that are on the ovaries.
290
Which of the following is a common cause of intrauterine growth restriction? Hyperthyroidism. Type 2 diabetes. Strep throat. Preeclampsia.
Preeclampsia Preeclampsia often comes along with hypertension, both of which put the baby at risk for restricted growth and low birth weight. Often they are accompanied by other conditions that are also a cause for smaller babies.
291
The diameter of a terminal ductal lobular unit should not exceed what measurement? 2 cm. 1 mm. 2 mm. 4 mm.
2 mm The terminal ductal lobular unit is formed by the acini and terminal duct, and several of these units join to form a breast lobe. Terminal ductal lobular units are an origin of nearly all breast pathology. Their diameter should not exceed 2 mm.
292
All but which of these are differential considerations for sonographic findings indicative of lipoma? Abscess. Glandular breast tissue. Fibroadenoma. Complex cyst.
Abscess When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of lipoma include glandular breast tissue, fibroadenoma, and complex cyst.
293
Thyroid sonograms cannot do which of the following? Determine the size. Determine the orientation. Determine presence of abnormalities. Tell how well the thyroid gland is working.
Tell how well the thyroid gland is working. The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It is painless, and noninvasive. Normal results will include a normal size, position, and shape of the thyroid. It can also check for abnormalities, such as cysts, nodules, or tumors. The test can tell a lot, but it cannot tell how well the thyroid gland is working
294
How should a patient prepare for a testicular sonogram? No special preparation is needed. Not eat or drink 5 hours before the exam. Not eat or drink 8 hours before the exam. Drink 8 cups of water 1 hour before the exam.
No special preparation is needed Testicular sonography is used to acquire images of the testicles and scrotum. Sound waves are used in testicular sonography. It can show pictures of the epididymis, vas deferens, and prostate gland. It is used to evaluate a mass in the testicles, to evaluate pain in the testicles, to monitor for any recurrence of testicular cancer, identify infection, monitor inflammation, and locate undescended testicles. No special preparation is needed for the sonogram.
295
The right testicular vein drains directy into which of the following veins? Superior vena cava. Right renal vein. Left renal vein. Inferior vena cava.
Inferior vena cava Venous drainage of the testes is achieved through two testicular veins, which drain into separate veins. The right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava.
296
The thyroid sonogram is considered: Invasive. Useless. Painful. Painless.
Painless The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It is painless, and noninvasive.
297
All but which of the following are differential considerations for sonographic findings indicative of galactocele? Fibroadenoma. Dilated lactiferous duct. Complex cyst. Abscess.
Dilated lactiferous duct When evaluating sonographic findings, it's important to take into account differential considerations. Differential considerations for the sonographic findings characteristic of a galactocele include fibroadenoma, complex cyst, and abscess.
298
Where is the thyroid located? Stomach. Brain. Neck. Lower body.
Neck The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid.
299
Breast sonography looks at what part of the breast? The left side of the breast. Directly under the nipple. The entire breast. Only the superficial breast area.
The entire breast Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. The sound waves can create images of the breasts. It can show all areas of the breast.
300
Which of the following is an accumulation of fluid between the testicle and the tunica vaginalis? Hydrocele. Haematocele. Varicocele. Epididymal cyst.
Hydrocele There are many different causes of lumps or swelling of the testicles. A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid between the testicle and the tunica vaginalis.
301
An intentional verbal threat or attempt to commit physical harm to another person, which results in the person having a reasonable fear that he or she will be harmed, is known as which of the following? Battery. Unlawful restraint. Negligence. Assault.
Assault Assault occurs whenever an attempt or threat to do harm is made. No actual harm need result for an incident to be considered assault. It is a breach of the sonographer's duty to the patient to commit assault.
302
An oral or written agreement to undergo a procedure or pursue a course of action/treatment is known as which of the following? Express consent. Implied consent. Formal consent. Explicit consent.
Express consent An oral or written agreement constitutes express consent. This is different from informed consent, as informed consent cannot be oral – it must involve a signature.
303
The 1996 Act which governs privacy rules about health care information is known as which of the following? Patient's Bill of Rights. FERPA. HIPAA. TARP.
HIPAA HIPAA, or the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act, was signed in 1996. It governs the privacy and disclosure of healthcare information, as well as the electronic transfer of such information between institutions. Sonographers and other radiology technicians are bound by the provisions of HIPAA.
304
Which of the following is REQUIRED for direct contact when observing enteric precautions? - Gloves, gown, and handwashing. - Gloves, gown, mask, and handwashing. - Mask and gloves. - Gloves only.
Gloves, gown, and handwashing Enteric precautions are designed to protect against diseases spread via the ingestion of microorganisms. Gloves, gown, and handwashing are required for direct patient contact when observing enteric precautions. Masks are not required.
305
Judging the beliefs and practices of a patient's culture and deeming them inferior to your own is known as which of the following? Paternalism. Ethnocentrism. Cultural relativism. Negligence.
Ethnocentrism Ethnocetnrism occurs when one judges another's cultural beliefs or practices and deems them inferior to his or her own way of life. Cultural factors exert great influence on a patient's health. As a result, it is important to avoid judging cultural differences or imposing your own beliefs on a patient.
306
Wrongs that occur because a healthcare professional failed to abide by the standards of care, even if he or she did not intend to harm the patient, are known as which of the following? Intentional torts. Accidental torts. Unintentional torts. Liabilities.
Unintentional torts Unintentional torts result when a healthcare professional fails to observe the standards of care. Though harm may not have been intended, harm results from this negligent behavior. Malpractice is an unintentional tort.
307
Which of the following is a patient's expressed consent to undergo a procedure? Implied consent. Given consent. Informed consent. Offered consent.
Informed consent A patient's expressed desire to undergo a procedure is known as informed consent. The Patient's Bill of Rights states that patients have the right to give or to withhold consent for care.
308
Which of the following is the second main category of the ARRT’s Standards of Ethics? Risks of work. Rules of Ethics. Code of Ethics. Administrative procedures.
Rules of Ethics. The ARRT’s Standards of Ethics is for the use of only people that have a certification from ARRT. The goal of the standards is to act in the patient's best interest. The Standards of Ethics gives proactive guidance that promotes qualified and ethical behavior in the work environment. It is comprised of two large categories. The first is the Code of Ethics. The second is the Rules of Ethics.
309
If ____ is used in imaging as a technique for images of better quality, it can help by increasing signal to noise ratio as well as increasing both axial and lateral resolution. Harmonics. Compensation. Power. Gain.
Harmonics The distorting layer of the body will be traversed only once, and the increased clarity comes from the harmonic beam that makes better use of the sound to create an image. This explains the increase in signal to noise ratio.
310
Ultrasounds use which of the following? Radiation. Catheters. X-ray machines. Transducers.
Transducers Ultrasounds are considered both painless and safe. They use sound waves to see images of inside of the body, instead of radiation. The procedure uses a probe or transducer. The transducer is moved around on the skin directly. High frequency sound waves are used for the procedure.
311
Which of the following is an advantage of M-mode? - It is only slightly painful. - It gives clean images. - It is the highest rated echocardiography form. - It uses low doses of radiation.
It gives clean images. There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. M-mode gives a one dimensional. This is of cardiac structures over time moving. It uses a high sampling rate. It gives clean images. Standard views are gathered from the right parasternal position.
312
What is the length of time between pulses? TIS. PRF. TIC. PRP.
PRP. The pulse repetition period (PRP) is the length of time between the pulses. This is the inverse of the pulse repetition frequency (PRF).
313
If you are in need of more penetration, you should trade out the transducer you are using for another with a ____. Higher resolution. Higher frequency. Larger crystal. Lower frequency.
Lower frequency The higher the frequency of the transducer crystal, the less penetration is has. A transducer with a lower frequency may sacrifice resolution but will yield more penetration.
314
Which of the following is filtered out in harmonics? Fundamental frequency. Third harmonic frequency. Second harmonic frequency. All frequencies.
Fundamental frequency Harmonics uses a broad bandwidth to transmit both the fundamental frequency and the harmonic frequencies. The fundamental frequencies are filtered out, leaving the harmonic frequencies.
315
Pulse dynamic range is defined by ______ divided by the amplitude of ripples following the pulse. Amplitude of ripples during the pulse. Lowest amplitude of the pulse. Peak amplitude of the pulse. Frequency of the pulse.
Peak amplitude of the pulse Pulse dynamic range describes the effectiveness of damping. The key component to damping is the pulse’s amplitude.
316
The greatest distance that a particle moves from its normal rest position is what type of measurement_______. Intensity. Pressure. Power. Amplitude.
Amplitude The amplitude is also the strength of the wave. The wave’s amplitude measures the greatest distance that a particle can move from the normal resting position. It is the displacement amplitude.
317
What mode uses a single scan line and is useful for recording rapid movements? B-mode. M-mode. Doppler mode. Transducer mode.
M-mode M-mode is known for its excellent temporal resolution making it the perfect mode for catching rapid movements. The single scan line is used to show how structures intersected by the line move over time.
318
Where can piezoelectric materials be found? Water. Blood. Pacemakers. Transducers.
Transducers The voltage created between a non-conducting substance as a mechanical stress is put on it is known as the piezoelectric effect. Piezoelectric materials can be found in transducers. It is considered a reversible process.
319
What occurs when the particles in regions that are adjacent move towards each other? Rarefaction. Filtration. Compression. Echo.
Compression Adjacent particles that are moved with sound waves will result in increased pressure or decreased pressure. When they move towards each other compression occurs as the pressure increases. Rarefaction occurs when they move away from each other and pressure decreases.
320
In which mode does the acoustic axis of the transducer remain stationary? B-mode. D-mode. F-mode. M-mode.
M-mode M-mode is used to display moving structures. The acoustic axis in the M-mode display does not move to demonstrate the changing location of the mobile anatomic structures.
321
Which of the following types of Doppler is the most sensitive? Color Doppler. Power Doppler. Challenge Doppler. Visual Doppler.
Power Doppler A Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow that is occurring in a blood vessel. It includes both arteries and veins. There are three types. They are color Doppler, power Doppler, and spectral Doppler. A color Doppler turns measurements into a variety of colors through a computer. It can be used to show both the speed and direction of blood flow. The power Doppler is considered more sensitive than the color Doppler. It is used to get images that are considered hard or impossible to gather. It provides a greater detail of blood flow in blood vessels found in organs. It is not used to provide images about direction of blood flow. The spectral Doppler gives information about blood flow in graph measurements. It will give information about flow velocities that have been taken over a period of time.
322
What is used to control the ultrasound beam’s width? Beam diameter. Focusing. Dampening. Focal zone.
Focusing Focusing is used to control the width of the beam in an ultrasound. This is what lateral resolution is based on. Focusing to create a thin beam will improve the lateral resolution.
323
For M-mode, standard views are gathered from what position? Both the left and right parasternal position. Left parasternal position. Right parasternal position. All positions.
Right parasternal position There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. M-mode gives a one dimensional. This is of cardiac structures over time moving. It uses a high sampling rate. It gives clean images. Standard views are gathered from the right parasternal position.
324
What is the purpose of gray-scale resolution? To differentiate between organs. To get a good general image of a large area. To learn about the blood flow. To view subtle changes in tissues.
To view subtle changes in tissues Tissues are hard to differentiate in most ultrasounds. Gray-scale gives the contrast needed to have small variations stand out so the sonographer can better pinpoint a problem.
325
What is the portion of time in which the transducer is transmitting the signal? Duty factor. Frequency. Resolution. PFR.
Duty factor The duty factor is also called the duty cycle. It is the portion of time when the signal is transmitted by the transducer.
326
Which one of the following artifacts is considered most useful? Ring down. Comet tail. Reverberation. Acoustic shadowing.
Acoustic shadowing Acoustic shadowing occurs when sound is reflected instead of going through an object. This can tell a physician if there is some kind of blockage, tumor, or other solid object.
327
What type of ultrasound uses a transducer to get images of the heart? Transvaginal ultrasound. Transoral ultrasound. Transrectal ultrasound. Transesophageal echocardiogram.
Transesophageal echocardiogram There are three types of ultrasounds that include inserting the transducer into a natural opening of the body. They are transesophageal echocardiogram, transrectal ultrasound, and transvaginal ultrasound. The transesophageal echocardiogram, the transducer is placed into the esophagus. It is used to get images of the heart. In the transrectal ultrasounds, the transducer is placed into the rectum of a man to view the prostate. In the transvaginal ultrasound, the transducer is placed into a woman’s vagina. IT is used to get images of the uterus and ovaries.
328
How is PI calculated? - (Minimum flow – Mean flow) divided by the Mean Flow. - (Maximum flow + Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow. - (Minimum flow – Maximum flow) divided by the Mean Flow. - (Maximum flow – Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow.
(Maximum flow – Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow PI stands for pulsatility index. It is associated with Doppler. It is calculated by (Maximum flow – Minimum flow) divided by the Mean Flow. The PI should be between 1 and 5. The higher the PI, the more likely the probability of technical errors is.
329
Which type of echocardiography uses a high sampling rate? M-mode. C-mode. H-mode. K-mode.
M-mode There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. M-mode gives a one dimensional. This is of cardiac structures over time moving. It uses a high sampling rate. It gives clean images. Standard views are gathered from the right parasternal position.
330
As absorption increases, how is the penetration of the ultrasound wave affected? It increases. It decreases. It stays the same. First it increases, then it decreases.
It decreases As a sound wave propagates through matter, some of its energy is converted into heat, and this loss of energy is called absorption. As absorption increases, the penetration of the ultrasound wave decreases.
331
Which of the following enlarges the pixels? Compensation. Read magnification. Harmonics. Write magnification.
Read magnification Read magnification is also called zoom and enlarges pixels. In this, the monitor displays the smaller pixel groups rather than all of the pixels. The smaller pixels are enlarged so they can be easily seen.
332
What is a main disadvantage of using a pulsed wave Doppler? Images are not as sharp. Cannot capture specific regions. Inaccurate measurements of low velocity signals. Inaccurate measurements of high velocity signals.
Inaccurate measurements of high velocity signals A common problem with pulsed wave Doppler is aliasing. This is an artifact that occurs when high velocity signals are confused for negatives.
333
What will improve spatial resolution? Narrow beam. Wide beam. Low pulse. Long pulse.
Narrow beam The beam width affects the spatial resolution. This occurs by affecting the depth. A narrower the beam the better the spatial resolution will be.
334
Doppler uses which of the following? Pulsed waves. Continuous waves. Both pulsed waves and continuous waves. Monument waves.
Both pulsed waves and continuous waves There are three different types of echocardiography. They are M-mode, B-mode, and Doppler echocardiography. Doppler is used to view blood flow patterns, velocity, and direction. It is based upon detection of frequency changes. This is also known as the Doppler shift. Doppler uses both pulsed waves and continuous waves.
335
Cross-sectional images created by the echoes of stationary tissues are _________. B-mode. M-mode. Doppler. None of the above.
B-mode B-mode images are cross-sectional images. Echoes that reflect the boundaries between tissues create them. They also show irregularities within tissues.
336
Tissue that produces echoes of the same brightness as those produced by surrounding tissues is known as which of the following? Hypoechoic. Hyperechoic. Anechoic. Isoechoic.
Isoechoic Isoechoic tissues produce echoes of the same brightness as those produced by the surrounding tissue. These tissue are sometimes also called isosonic tissues.
337
As the angle of incidence increases, the Doppler shift __. Increases. Stays the same. Decreases. Disappears.
Decreases. Doppler effect and angle of incidence have an inverse relationship. This means as one decreases the other increases.
338
Axial resolution is improved by _________. High frequencies. Low frequencies. Beam length. Beam width.
High frequencies Axial resolution is one-half of the spatial pulse length. The higher the frequency, the lower the spatial pulse length. This helps to improve the axial resolution.
339
Which of the following describes the principle that a transducer probe uses to generate and receive sound waves? Curie effect. Doppler effect. Crystal effect. Piezoelectric effect.
Piezoelectric effect Piezoelectric ceramics or crystals are the materials used in a transducer. When electric currents are applied to this material it changes shape rapidly, thus producing vibrations and sound waves that move outward.
340
Which of the following spaces is located between the spleen and left hemidiaphragm? Right subphrenic. Left perinephrenic. Left subphrenic. Perinephrenic.
Left subphrenic The subphrenic space is the recesses in the peritoneal cavity between the anterior part of the liver and the diaphragm, and it is separated into right and left by the falciform ligament. The left subphrenic space is located between the spleen and the left hemidiaphragm. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
341
The tail of the pancreas is related posteriorly to which of the following? Body of the stomach and left lobe of the liver. Body and cardia of the stomach. Left kidney and splenic vein. Colon and splenic hilum.
Left kidney and splenic vein. With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas is related to numerous organs. The tail of the pancreas is related posteriorly to the left kidney and splenic vein.
342
What position does the patient need to be in when performing an Inferior Vena Cava ultrasound? Prone. Supine. Anterior. Posterior.
Supine The supine position is where the patient lays on his or her back. This is best for imaging since the interior vena cava is located to the left of the abdominal aorta.
343
All but which of the following are echo-free lesions on the liver? Hemangiomas. Nonparasitic hepatic cyst. Hydatid cyst. Liver abscess.
Hemangiomas. Echo-free lesions appear as black masses on the ultrasound. Echo-free lesions of the liver include nonparasitic hepatic cyst, hydatid cyst, and liver abscess.
344
What is the medical term for an enlarged prostate? Inflammatory prostate disease. Prostatic colitis. Malignant hyperplasia. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia Hyperplasia means overformation, and benign means specifically noncancerous. This term is used to describe an enlarged prostate that is not due to cancer.
345
Which of the following conditions is characterized by cysts of varying sizes that permeate the liver? Fatty liver. Cystic liver. Cirrhosis of the liver. Adenoma.
Cystic liver Hereditary cystic liver disease is characterized by cysts of varying size that permeate the liver. These cysts appear as echo-free lesions, meaning that they are black masses on the ultrasound.
346
Which of the following structures can be used to aid in visualizing the right adrenal gland? Portal vein. Liver. Aorta. All of the above.
All of the above The location of the right adrenal gland above the right kidney puts it close to many other structures. This is why it can be seen using any of the above.
347
What are the rules about eating before a gallbladder ultrasound? No eating after midnight the night before. No eating right before the exam. No eating 24 hours before. Eat as normal.
No eating after midnight the night before Gallbladder ultrasounds require minimal or no contraction and as little gas as possible. The best way to achieve this is to cease eating after midnight the night before.
348
All but which of the following are aortic branches that can be seen with ultrasound? Superior mesenteric artery. Right and left renal arteries. Right gastric artery. Right and left iliac arteries.
Right gastric artery The branches of the aorta that can be seen with ultrasound are the celiac trunk with the splenic, hepatic, and left gastric artery; the superior mesenteric artery; the right and left renal arteries; and the right and left iliac arteries. These vessels create patterns in scans that can be used as landmarks. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
349
All but which of the following are isoechoic hepatic lesions? Focal nodular hyperplasia. Hepatocellular carcinoma. Hemangioma. Ligamentum teres.
Ligamentum teres. Lesions that are isoechoic to the liver parenchyma can be detected by changes in their surroundings or structural differences. Examples of isoechoic lesions include focal nodular hyperplasia, hepatocellular carcinoma, metastasis, and hemangioma.
350
Strongly echogenic portal veins in the liver is: Normal. Normal variant. Abnormal. Typical variant.
Normal variant Occasionally, cross sections of the portal vessels appear as very bright echoes in a completely healthy liver. This ultrasound finding is a normal variant.
351
What might be a sign of pancreatitis? Small pancreas. Pancreatic lipase in serum. Low blood sugar. Random bruising.
Pancreatic lipase in serum Pancreatitis can disrupt proper pancreatic functioning. When it is disrupted lipase is released into serum.
352
Focal sparing is usually which of the following shapes? Round. Triangular or oval. Triangular or round. Round or oval.
Triangular or oval Focal sparing refers to one or more areas of normal liver parenchyma that have been spared by the process of fatty infiltration. They usually have a triangular or oval shape.
353
The tail of the pancreas is related laterally to which of the following? Jejunum. Colon and splenic hilum. Body of the stomach and left lobe of the liver. Left kidney and splenic vein.
Colon and splenic hilum. With a length of approximately 15 cm and a diameter of 2-3 cm, the pancreas is related to numerous organs. The tail of the pancreas is related laterally to the colon and splenic hilum.
354
Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the kidneys? Renal artery. Colic artery. Cystic artery. Hepatic artery.
Renal artery The rental arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The ability to identify and locate the vessels and organs of the abdomen, and an understanding of which vessels supply which organs, is a key skills in abdominal sonography.
355
Which of the following arteries curves upward and to the right from the celiac trunk to the porta hepatis? Common hepatic artery. Splenic artery. Left gastric artery. Left iliac artery.
Common hepatic artery The common hepatic artery curves upward and to the right from the celiac trunk to the porta hepatis. The common hepatic artery runs alongside the bile duct and the portal vein. Knowledge of anatomy is key to successful sonography.
356
Which of the following is true regarding adenomas? - They can be positively distinguished from metastases based on ultrasound alone. - They are echo-free lesions. - They sometimes appear as rounded, hypoechoic or isoechoic masses. - They cannot be distinguished from hepatocellular carcinoma based on ultrasound criteria alone.
They cannot be distinguished from hepatocellular carcinoma based on ultrasound criteria alone. Adenomas of the liver are rare lesions that are classified as precancerous. They cannot be positively distinguished from metastases or hepatocellular carcinoma based on ultrasound criteria alone.
357
Hepatic metastases may appear as all but which of the following? Hypoechoic. Echo-free. Isoechoic. Hyperechoic.
Echo-free Hepatic metastases typically appear as hypoechoic lesions, or they may be isoechoic or hyperechoic. They may be relatively homogeneous, especially when small, but they typically appear as a target lesion with a hypoechoic rim.
358
Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the spleen? Hepatic artery. Cystic artery. Splenic artery. Colic artery.
Splenic artery The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen. The ability to locate and identify the key vessels and organs of the abdomen is a vital skill in abdominal sonography.
359
Which of the following are the main barriers to scanning the liver? Ribs and a high diaphragm. Stomach and transverse colon. It may be contracted or hidden by bowel gas. Ribs and transverse colon.
Ribs and a high diaphragm The two main barriers to scanning the liver are the ribs and a high diaphragm. Different techniques may be used to overcome these barriers and optimize scanning conditions.
360
When preparing for a portal vein ultrasound, what medical history needs to be known first? Portal vein blockage. Hepatocellular disease. Ulcers. Hemorrhaging.
Hepatocellular disease Hepatocellular disease is responsible for many liver cancers. It is important when it comes to an ultrasound of the portal vein because metastasis can commonly occur here.
361
What is the main purpose of the myometrium? Cause shedding of the lining. Induce uterine contractions. Protect the baby from harm. Contain the fallopian tubes.
Induce uterine contractions The smooth muscle it contains has a phasic pattern between contracting and resting. This is what causes contractions to begin labor.
362
Which of the following can be detected during a second trimester ultrasound? All birth defects. No birth defects. Fetal cancer. Fetal down syndrome.
Fetal down syndrome The second trimester of pregnancy ultrasound can determine the sex of the baby. It looks at how well the baby is progressing. The ultrasound in this trimester is usually done between weeks 18-22. During this trimester, fetal down syndrome can be determined.
363
What may show up as elevated in the mother's blood if gastroschisis is seen in the fetus? Alpha fetoprotein. CA 19-9. CA 125. Fibrin.
Alpha fetoprotein. Alpha fetoprotein is a plasma protein found in the human fetus. While the exact use of it is unknown, it is known that it is used in abundance during gestation. In gastroschisis, the mother often has extremely high levels of the protein.
364
How much amniotic fluid is needed for amniocentesis? Three ounces. Two ounces. Less than one ounce. One ounce.
Less than one ounce Amniocentesis is used to detect defects such as Down syndrome and Tay-sachs in those with a high risk. Very little is needed in order to perform the tests.
365
When does the uterus begin to soften? Week 6. Week 10. Week 12. Week 20.
Week 6 Changes in the body begin to occur almost immediately after conception. In the 6th week, the uterus will soften, and this is generally when the heartbeat can be detected as well.
366
An inflammation of the Fallopian tube is known as which of the following? Hydrosalpinx. Salpingitis. Salpingosis. Adenomyosis.
Salpingitis Salpingitis is an inflammation of the Fallopian tube. This is one condition that may be seen via sonography. It is often a sign of a larger condition, such as PID.
367
What releases the lutenizing hormone? Vagina. Anterior pituitary gland. Posterior pituitary gland. Fallopian tubes.
Anterior pituitary gland The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovulation occurs when a mature egg is ejected from the ovary. Ovulation is in response to the luteinizing hormone. The anterior pituitary gland releases the luteinizing hormone.
368
What would be a reason to have an ultrasound in the third trimester? - Signs of placenta previa appearing in the second trimester. - Gender unidentifiable at second trimester scan. - Signs of Down syndrome during the first trimester. - Unsuccessful images of the femur.
Signs of placenta previa appearing in the second trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta hangs low and does not retreat for the third trimester. It would mean that a C-section would have to be performed.
369
The best measuring method for evaluating gestational age in the first trimester is the Femur length. Mean sac diameter. Biparietal diameter. Crown-rump length.
Crown-rump length. Crown-rump length during the first trimester is the best and most accurate method for measuring gestational age. Femur length and biparietal diameter as well as mean sac diameter are not considered to be the most accurate measurement of gestational age.
370
What might be going on if during an ultrasound you see free fluid and a pseudo gestational sac? Ectopic pregnancy. Subcchorionic hemorrhage. Spontaneous abortion. Phantom pregnancy.
Ectopic pregnancy An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo is outside the uterus. The sac and fluid would form in preparation for the embryo, but the embryo would not be present. This would lead to the pseudo gestational sac and free fluid.
371
What is a common characteristic determining a mono-amnitotic pregnancy? No intertwin membrane. Thin intertwin membrane. T sign. Single-placental mass.
No intertwin membrane Since the twins are sharing amniotic fluid, there is no membrane in between them. This often means only one yolk sac is present.
372
In what phase of the menstrual cycle does a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production occur? Menses phase. Secretory phase. Motion phase. Proliferative phase.
Menses phase During a woman’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a woman’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a woman’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
373
Which of the following puts a patient at high risk for gestational diabetes? Hypoglycemia. Obesity. Hyperthyroidism. Psoriasis.
Obesity Obesity puts anyone at risk for diabetes because it puts excess strain on the pancreas. A body mass index over 30 is what is considered obese.
374
When a primary oocyte divides, what happens? It will produce unlimited cells. It will produce two of the same cells. It will produce one unique cell. It will produce two different cells.
It will produce two different cells The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Oogonia are eggs in a developing fetus. The amount of eggs a person releases is determined before they are born. Oogonia divide into primary oocytes by the time a female is born. Primary oocytes become active at puberty. After it divides, it will produce two different cells.
375
Days 15-28 of a menstrual cycle is known as what? Proliferative phase. Secretory phase. Motion phase. Menses phase.
Secretory phase During a women’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a women’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a women’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
376
The middle layer of uterine tissue is arranged in which type of pattern? Circular. Spiral. Longitudinal. All of the above.
All of the above The uterus is made up of 3 tissue layers. They include the endometrium ( inner layer), myometrium (middle layer), and serosa or perimetrium (outer layer). The myometrium layer is comprised of smooth muscle fiber. These fibers are arranged in different patterns like spiral, circular, and longitudinal.
377
All but which of the following is a risk factor for a cord knot? Being large for gestational age. Being small for gestational age. Being a twin. Excessive amniotic fluid.
Being large for gestational age. Risk factors for cord knots include: - babies with long cords - small fetuses - identical twins (share the same amniotic sac) - breech - excessive amniotic fluid
378
When progesterone drops during the menstrual cycle, what happens? Endometrial lining is fully removed. Endometrial lining begins to slough off. Endometrial lining doubles in size. Endometrial lining begins producing testosterone.
Endometrial lining begins to slough off During a woman’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a woman’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a woman’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
379
The vagina is approximately how long? 3 inches. 6 inches. 9 inches. 12 inches.
6 inches The vagina is approximately 6 inches long. It leads from the uterus to the external genitalia. It can be found between the rectum and bladder. The vagina is used to give passage for childbirth. It also gives passage for menstrual flow.
380
The ovaries lie against what? Oocytes. Fimbriae. Vagina walls. Pelvis’ lateral walls.
Pelvis’ lateral walls The main function of the ovaries is to produce eggs and for the production of estrogen and progesterone hormones. The ovaries are similar in both size and shape to an almond. The ovaries lay against the pelvis’s lateral walls. Ovaries are kept in place by the broad ligament. Ovarian follicles are compact like tissues that are on the ovaries.
381
For a first trimester ultrasound, which of the following is true? - An internal sonogram cannot be done during this trimester. - The bladder should be fully filled for an internal sonogram. - The bladder should be partially filled for an internal sonogram. - The bladder should be emptied for an internal sonogram.
The bladder should be emptied for an internal sonogram. The first trimester ultrasound occurs during week 5-14 of pregnancy. During a first trimester ultrasound, images are taken of the uterus using sound waves. Radiation is not used. One hour before the ultrasound, the patient will drink between 24-32 oz of water. The patient should not empty their bladder before the procedure. The bladder should be filled with fluids so a clear image can be taken. The bladder should be emptied for an internal sonogram.
382
What type of procedure would use ultrasound to assist? Endometrial biopsy. Hysterectomy. Prophylactic oophorectomy. Tubal ligation.
Endometrial biopsy An ultrasound can be used when a biopsy is being done. This will help guide the physician through finding the right area to pull a sample from.
383
What is one of the conditions that would indicate a need for a biophysical profile? Strep throat. Lupus. Hypothyroidism. Fatty liver.
Lupus A biophysical profile is especially important in high risk pregnancies. Lupus is known to carry many risks in pregnancy for both mom and baby.
384
At seven weeks gestational age, what should the fetal heart rate be? 100-120bpm. 80-100bpm. 180-200bpm. 120-180bpm.
120-180bpm. By seven weeks the heart rate is at its normal rate. A fetus is very small and requires a faster heart rate to ensure oxygen is pumped through the blood properly.
385
What condition or factor could interfere with getting a clear image? Bone fragment. A full bladder. Diabetes. Obesity.
Obesity Ultrasound may prove to be difficult in those who are severely overweight. The amount of fat tissue between the transducer and the object can make it hard to see.
386
Ultrasounds can cause which of the following? Radiation poisoning to both the baby and mother. Brain damage to the baby. Abnormal bleeding in the mother. None of the above.
None of the above Ultrasounds gain an image of the baby with sound waves. It is safe for both the baby and mother. They can be done during all three trimesters.
387
The uterine cavity opens up to what? Vagina cavity. Lungs. Spleen. Upper stomach.
Vagina cavity The uterus is an organ found in the female body. It is also known as the womb. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix. The uterine cavity opens up to the vagina cavity. The uterus and vaginal cavity combined create the birth canal.
388
There are how many hormonal phases in a woman’s menstrual cycle? 3. 4. 5. 6.
3 During a woman’s menstruation, mucus, blood, and epithelial cells are all expelled from the uterus. It occurs on a monthly basis. Menstruation does not occur in women that are pregnant and lactation. There are three distinct hormonal interactions in a woman’s cycle. In days 1-5 of a menstrual cycle there is a decrease in both estrogen and progesterone production. This phase is known as the menses phase. When progesterone drops, endometrial lining begins to slough off. The proliferative phase occurs in days 6-14. During this time, FSH s released. FSH is used to stimulate an ovum maturing. At the close of this phase, an increase of LH causes the ovum to be released or the body to ovulate. The final phase is the secretory phase which is days 15-28 of a woman’s cycle. There are high levels of LH and that causes graafian follicles to turn into corpus luteum.
389
During what weeks does the fetal pole become visible? 5-6 weeks. 7-8 weeks. 3-4 weeks. 10-11 weeks.
5-6 weeks The fetal pole is the first image that can be seen of the embryo. It shows in the form of a thickening on the margin of the yolk sac between 5 and 6 weeks of pregnancy.
390
Which of the following is a part of the uterus? Fundus. Body. Cervix. All of the above.
All of the above The uterus is an organ found in the female body. The uterus has a pear like shape appearance. It is found in the female pelvis. It is between the bladder and rectum. The size on average is 8 cm long. It is divided into 3 parts, the fundus, body, and cervix.
391
Which of the following is a congenital anomaly of the breast in which the nipple inverts inward? Amastia. Amazia. Polythelia. Nipple inversion.
Nipple inversion When scanning the breast, it is important to know congenital anomalies. Nipple inversion is a congenital breast anomaly in which the nipple inverts inward.
392
Breast sonograms are good screening tools for which of the following? Women with dense breasts. Women with breast implants. Pregnant women. All of the above.
All of the above Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. There are many reasons to have one performed including: as a supplemental breast cancer screening, to determine if an abnormality is solid, to determine the nature of a breast abnormality, and to help diagnosis an abnormality. It is a good screening tool for woman will breast implants, pregnant woman, and woman that have dense breasts.
393
The left testicular vein drains into which of the following? Inferior vena cava. Right renal vein. Left renal vein. Superior vena cava.
Left renal vein Venous drainage of the testes is achieved through two testicular veins, which drain into separate veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.
394
A varicocele is most common after which of the following? Trauma. Vasectomy. Hematoma. Torsion.
Vasectomy There are many different causes to testicular lumps and swellings. A varicocele is the dilation of venous drainage of the testicle. It most commonly occurs on the left and after a vasectomy.
395
Which of the following reasons is not a reason that a thyroid sonogram would be performed? To check for colloid nodular goiters. To check for brain cancer. To check for papillary carcinoma of the thyroid. To check for thyroid cancer.
To check for brain cancer The thyroid is a glad found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. There are many reasons that a test will be conducted including checking for: thyroid cancer, papillary carcinoma of the thyroid, and colloid nodular goiters.
396
Which of the following is a dilated epididymal duct that contains proteins and sperm? Spermatocele. Hematocele. Pyocele. Varicocele.
Spermatocele There are many different causes to testicular lumps and swellings. A spermatocele is a dilated epididymal duct that contains proteins and sperm. It is a benign mass and rarely require treatment.
397
A thyroid sonogram can: - Measure the size of the thyroid gland. - Measure the shape of the thyroid gland. - Both measure the size and the shape of the thyroid gland. - Measure the size and shape of all of the surrounding structures.
Both measure the size and the shape of the thyroid gland The thyroid is a gland found in the neck that is used to regulate a person’s metabolism. The thyroid ultra sound is used to view the thyroid. It is an imaging method that gives a glimpse into the health of the thyroid. It is painless, and noninvasive. Normal results will include a normal size, position, and shape of the thyroid.
398
Breast sonography is commonly used for which of the following reasons? As a last resort in breast cancer patients. To examine the growth cycle of healthy breast tissue. As a breast reduction tool. To better evaluate what is found in a mammogram or breast exam.
To better evaluate what is found in a mammogram or breast exam Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. The sound waves can create images of the breasts. It can show all areas of the breast. They are commonly used to better evaluate what is found in a mammogram or breast exam.
399
Who reviews the breast sonogram images? Pediatrician. Hospital management. Any medical doctor. Radiologist.
Radiologist Breast sonography is used to acquire images of one or both of the breasts. Sound waves are used in breast sonography. The images received will be reviewed by a radiologist.
400
All but which of the following are sonographic features of a galactocele? Hypoechoic retroareolar mass. Smooth wall margins. Posterior acoustic enhancement. Anechoic round or oval mass.
Anechoic round or oval mass A galactocele is an obstruction of a lactating duct that presents as a palpable retroareolar mass. The sonographic features of a galactocele include a round or oval hypoechoic retroareolar mass with smooth wall margins and posterior acoustic enhancement.