Arthropathies Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

What is OA?

A

degenerative disorder of joints

imbalance between wear and repair of cartilage

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2
Q

What predisposes you to developing OA?

A

obesity
age
mechanical injury
high impact sport

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3
Q

How does OA present?

A

joint pain

short lived morning stiffness

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4
Q

What joints does OA effect?

A

DIP, PIP, hip, knee

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5
Q

What is found on examination in OA?

A

effusion, tender joint, crepitations, bony enlargement
Baker’s cyst - behind knee
Heberden’s nodes - bony enlargement of DIP joints

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6
Q

What is seen on xray in OA?

A
LOSS
loss of joint space 
osteophytes 
sclerosis 
subchondral cysts
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7
Q

How is OA managed?

A

weight loss
physio
analgesia:
- paracetamol, topical NSAIDs (hands, knee)
- oral NSAIDs or COX2 inhibitors, opioids, capsaicin cream, IA steroids
- duloxetine
?joint replacement

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8
Q

What is RA?

A

autoimmune inflammatory symmetrical polyarthropathy

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9
Q

What predisposes you to developing RA?

A

female
smoker
genetics (HLA DR1/4)

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10
Q

How does RA present?

A

joint pain and swelling
morning stiffness
deformity

extra articular manifestations:
lungs - pulmonary fibrosis
eyes - keratoconjunctivitis sittica, episcleritis, uveitis
anaemia

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11
Q

What joints does RA effect?

A

small joints of hands and feet
cervical spine

DIP not affected

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12
Q

What can cervical spine RA cause?

A

cord compression - atlantoaxial subluxation

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13
Q

What is found on examination in RA?

A

synovitis
deformity
swelling
tenderness

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14
Q

How is RA diagnosed?

A

raised CRP
xray - osteopenia, soft tissue swelling
USS - synovitis
autoantibodies - anti CCP, rheumatoid factor

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15
Q

How is RA managed?

A

simple analgesia, NSAIDs, steroids used in combination
aim to start DMARDS within 3 months of symptoms
- methotrexate (first line)
- sulfasalazine
- hydroxychloroquine
- leflunomide

flares - steroids

if inadequate response to at least 2 DMARDs (including methotrexate)
- anti TNF (etanercept, infliximab)

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16
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate?

A

pneumonitis
liver cirrhosis/ LF derangement
myelosuppression

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17
Q

What can happen with anti TNF use?

A

reactivation of TB

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18
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

chronic inflammatory disease of the spine and the sacro-iliac joints

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19
Q

What can ank spon lead to?

A

fusion of the IV and SI joints

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20
Q

What is associated with ank spon?

21
Q

How does ank spon present?

A

spinal pain
morning stiffness
worse at night, improves with exercise
loss of spinal movement over time

22
Q

What extra articular manifestations of ank spon are there?

A

anterior uveitis
pulmonary fibrosis
aortitis
amyloidosis

23
Q

What is a question mark spine in ank spon?

A

loss of lumbar lordosis

24
Q

How is ank spon diagnosed?

A
Schober's test <5cm (lumbar spine flexion) 
increased inflammatory markers 
HLA B27 positive 
xray 
MRI
25
What is seen on xray and MRI in ank spon?
xray - sclerosis, fusion, sacroiliitis, bamboo spine MRI - early features (e.g. bone marrow oedema)
26
How is ank spon managed?
physio exercise NSAIDs e.g. naproxen (prescribe PPI alongside) Anti-TNF - for aggressive disease
27
What kind of arthritis do you get with psoriasis?
psoriatic | asymmetrical oligoarthritis
28
What nail changes do you get in psoriatic arthritis?
pitting | onchylysis
29
What do you see on xray in psoriatic arthritis?
pencil in cup | erosive changes
30
What do you get in psoriatic arthritis that you don't in RA?
dactylitis (swelling of entire digit)
31
How is psoriatic arthritis managed?
like RA
32
What antibodies are positive in RA?
anti CCP
33
What is enteropathic arthritis?
affects peripheral joints and spine in people with IBD
34
How does enteropathic arthritis present?
symptoms of IBD, history of IBD | large joint arthritis
35
What organisms can cause reactive arthritis?
salmonella, campylobacter | chlamydia, neisseria gon.
36
What is Reiter's syndrome?
urethritis uveitis arthritis
37
What causes gout?
deposition of urate crystals within a joint - usually due to increased serum uric acid levels
38
What is uric acid?
final product of purine breakdown (DNA metabolism)
39
What can trigger gout?
trauma surgery dehydration
40
What causes hyperuricaemia?
renal underexcretion (precipitated by diuretics) high red meat, alcohol, seafood diet
41
How does gout present?
intensely painful, hot, swollen joint unilateral 1st MTPj, ankle, knee gouty tophi
42
What are gouty tophi?
painless white accumulations of uric acid in chronic gout
43
How is gout diagnosed?
increased inflammatory markers joint aspirate - polarised microscopy - needle shaped crystals, negative birefringence
44
How is gout managed?
acute: NSAIDS, colchicine (when NSAIDs are contraindicated) chronic: allopurinol (what until acute flare is over as can precipitate), lifestyle changes
45
What is pseudogout?
calcium pyrophosphate crystals deposited in joint
46
How is pseudogout diagnosed?
joint aspiration - polarised microscopy - weakly positive birefringence - rhomboid shaped crystals
47
How is pseudogout treated?
NSAIDs, corticosteroids
48
What are the side effects of hydroxychloroquine and what should you monitor?
monitor visual acuity can cause retinopathy and corneal deposits
49
What helps to distinguish gout from pseudogout?
pseudogout - chondrocalcinosis