Arthroplasty Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

Vancouver Classification for periprosthetic THA and Tx?

A

A: troch fx, if less than 2 cm displacement can tx nonop

B1: Stable stem, ORIF with locking plate and cables

B2: loose stem, long porous coated or MFTS

B3: poor bone stock and loose, Femoral revision with proximal femoral allograft or PFR

C: Fx well below prosthesis, ORIF with plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Risk factor for intraop femoral fx during THA?

A
Female***
Anterolateral approach**** (vs posterolateral)
MIS surgery
Cementless stem***
Revision***
Metabolic bone disease***

Intraop calcar fx treated with cerclage does NOT increase risk of component subsidence or failure in long term f/u

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polyethylene sterilization

1-Radiation, oxidation vs cross linking, removal of free radicals

2 - how to solve these issues?

A

1- Gamma radiation is MOST COMMON form of PE sterilization –> get oxidized PE which wears poorly and causes osteolysis***

Oxidation vs cross linking
O2 rich environment –> PE becomes oxidized –> early failure 2/2 delimitation, pitting, fatigue strength/crakcing

O2 depleted environment: PE becomes CROSS LINKED –> better resistance to adhesive and abrasive wear*
Decreased Mechanical properties –> decrease4d ductility and fatigue resistance! –> higher risk of catastrophic failure under high loads
Must package in argon or nitrogen or in vacuum
*

Free radical removal:
Thermal stabilization/remelting –>? removes free radicals made during radiation sterilization for cross linking –> most effective as it occurs above PE melting point* –> changes PE from partial crystalline state to amorphous state –> this REDUCES mechanical properties*

Annealing: MAINTAINS MECHANICAL PROPERTIES –> less effective at removing free radicals! –> susceptible to oxidation ***

2 - Solution: Irraiate PE in INERT GAS (nitrogen or argon) or in vacuum to minimize oxidation***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PE manufacturing fabrication methods

Causes of failure?

Solution?

A

Manufacturing Methods
1-Ram bar extrusion and machining
UHMWPE powder into heated chamber, ram pushes into heated cylinder barrel –> cylindrical rod –> 10 ft length –> implants from bar stock –> get VARIATIONS in PE quality w/in bar***

2- Calcium stearate additive –> leads to fusion defects in PE

3- Sheet compression molding: UHMWPE powder into 4’ x 8’ rectangular container to make sheets up to 8” thick –> implants from molded sheets

4 - direct compression molding/net shape
UHMWPE poser into molded shape of final component –> heated –> BEST PE FABRICATION PROCESS*** –> lower wear rates but slow and expensive

Failure
Machining shear forces causes subsurface region stretching of PE chains
PE more susceptible to XRT in this region –> more oxidation –> delimitation and fatigue cracking –> Classic white band of oxidation 1-2 mm below articular surface***

Perfect storm for catastrophic wear:
Metal backed tibia w/ bone conserving tibial cut = thin PE
Flat bearing design –> low contact area with HIGH contact load
PCL retention w/ flat PE –> high sliding wear
Ram bar PE w/ calcium stearate additive –> fusion defects in PE
Gamma rad in air –> weakened mech properties of PE (oxidation)
Machine PE surface –> cutting tool stretch effect on PE

Solution
Use DIRECT COMPRESSION MOLDING of PE
Less fatigue crack formation and propagation vs ram bar extrusion*
Avoid machining of articular surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What process changes PE from partial crystalline to amorphous state?

What process most increases wear resistance for UHMWPE?

Does annealing or remelting decrease free radicals more?

A

Crystalline to amorphous - Remelting***

Increases wear-resistance: Radiation –> cross linking***

Remelting reduces free radicals more***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What wear rate is ass’d with osteolysis and component loosening?

What component factor most determines wear rate for THA?

A

Linear wear rate > 0.1 mm/year***

Most important factor = head size***
V = 3.14r^2w (V = volumetric wear, r = head radius, w = linear head wear)

HOWEVER –> femoral head sizes between 22 and 46 do NOT influence wear rates appreciably for UHMWPE**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors cause greater MoM serum ion levels?

A

Cup abduction >55 degrees***

Smaller component sizes***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors do macrophages release to cause osteolysis in total joint?

A

Osteolytic factors/cytokines
TNA-alpha*
IL-1
*
IL-6***

Increase in TNF-alpha INCREASES RANK*
increase of VEGF with UHMWPE enhances RANK and RANKL activation –> RNAKL mediated bone resorption
*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to measure bone turnover on labs?

A

N-telopeptide urine levels***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What size of PE particles are the most reactive?

A

<1 micron* –> most reactive to macrophage induced osteolysis*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is anakinra?

What is tocilizumab?

A

Receptor antagonist of IL-1**

IL-1 = PRO inflammatory cytokine –> causes osteolysis***

tocilizumab = monoclonal Ab against IL-6 (another pro inflammatory cytokine that causes OSTEOLYSIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How much wear per year puts a prosthetic joint at risk for failure?

A

0.1 mm/year***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a normal Tonnis angle?

A

Measures angle of the weight bearing surface

Angle between horizontal line from medial and lateral edges of sourcil***

Normal about 10 degrees***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lateral center edge angle?

A

Measures femoral head lateralization on AP pelvis

Angle formed by intersection of vertical through center of head and line extending from center of head to lateral sourcil***

Normal 25-45; <20 DIAGNOSTIC for DDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anterior center edge angle?

A

Measures ANTERIOR DYSPLASIA on FALSE PROFILE

Angle between vertical line through center of head and line going from center of head to anterior sourcil***-

normal: 25-50 degrees; <20 diagnostic for DDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does alpha angle check on frog leg lateral?

A

checking for FAI secondary to femoral head/neck offset deformity***

Anything over 42 degrees = FAI***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cell count for infection in TKA?

Acute infection numbers?

For hips?

MoM hips?

A

Cell count (long standing joint) for TKA –> 1100 cells and 64% PMN***

Acute infection: 27,800 cells in first 6 weeks after TKA** (basically 30,000)

Hips: WBC >3000 and PMN >80%***

MoM hips: 4350+ cells and 85% PMN***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does alpha anti-defensing test for?

A

Presence of an INTRAARTICULAR, antimicrobial peptide**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long can an infection be considered a surgical site infection (SSI)?

A

one year***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What inflammatory marker has the highest correlation for PJI?

A

IL-6 ***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can decrease joint reactive forces? (Acetabulum, femur, gait)

What increases forces?

A

Decrease joint reactive forces by shifting center of rotation medially* –> do this by:
Acetabulum: Move acetabular component medially, inferiorly and anterior
*

Femur: Increase offset***
Long sem prosthesis
Lateralization of GT

Gait: shifting body weight over affected hip –> Trendelnburg gait*
Cane in contra hand
* –> reduces abductor muscle pull and decreases moment arm between center of gravity and femoral head –> cane creates additional force that keeps pelvis level during unilateral stance***

Increase joint reactive forces: Valgus neck-shaft angulation –> BUT decreases shear***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How to determine joint reactive forces (equation)?

A

Joint reactive force = Abductor tension + 5/6(body weight) ***

Abductor tension (distance from center of rotation to greater Troch) - (5/6BW x distance from center of head to center of pubis)***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in Trendelenburg gait?

A

The pelvis on swing side drops, causing increased adduction of the affected hip during the stance phase***

Lurch of trunk towards affected side (during stance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Normal Q angle in extension of males? females?

A

Males - 13 degrees***

Females 18 degrees***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is "screw home" mechanism of knee mechanics?
Tibia EXTERNALLY ROTATES in last 15 degrees of extension*** Due to medial tibial plateau being longer than lateral plateau*** Relevance: "locks" knee in extension to decrease work performed by quad during stance
26
Normal tibia-femoral joint kinematics with flexion/extension
tibia EXernally rotates on femur as the knee EXtends*** (screw home mechanism) Tibia internally rotates during knee flexion*** Medial femoral condyle does not move much from 0-120 degrees, but lateral femoral condyle moves posteriorly*** Then both move posteriorly from 120 degrees of flexion on***
27
What is "paradoxical motion" used to describe knee kinematics?
Used to describe ACL deficient CR TKA*** Femur usually has "rollback" --> posterior movement of tibiofemoral contact point with knee motion from extension to flexion In "paradoxical rollback" --> ACL deficient CR knee can't create normal femoral rollback w/ knee flexion*** --> get ANTERIOR contact movement (happens more on medial side than lateral in kinematic trial)
28
Risk of femoral head collapse based on imaging - how to predict?
Based on modified Kerboul necrotic angle --> add arc of femoral head necrosis on mid-sagittal and mid-coronal MR images*** Low risk: <190 combined degrees Moderate: 190-240 High risk: >240 degrees***
29
What does bone marrow edema on MRI predict in case of early AVN of hip?
Predictive of worsening pain** and future progression of dz***
30
Tx of femoral head AVN Nonop?
Nonop: precollapse AVN --> can try alendronate --> shown to prevent head collapse in AVN w/ subchondral lucency*** Operative Core decompression --> early AVN before subchondral collapse --> relieve intraosseos HTN and stimulate healing response via angiogenesis *** Rotational osteotomy --> for small lesions (<15%) in which lesion can be rotated away from weight bearing surface --> do in IT region (varus for medial dz, valgus for anterolateral dz) Vascularized free fibula For young patient with either pre collapse or collapsed head --> remove necrotic area and place fibular star under subchondral bone to prevent collapse Complications of Free fib --> sensory deficit, motor weakness, FHL contracture, tibial stress fx *** THA Younger patients: Higher rate of linear wear of PE and osteolysis when compared to older THA for OA***
31
Who does best with hip resurfacing?
Male <55 y/o OA patients
32
What % of asymptomatic patients with SCD who have AVN of femoral head will develop collapse? Pain?
75% develop collapse*** 90% develop pain***
33
What are some of MMP's responsible for hip OA? What are inflammatory cytokines?
MMP's 1 - stromelysin*** 2 - plasmin ** 3 - aggrecanase - 1 (ADAMTS-4)*** Inflammatory cytokines*** IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha
34
How do corticosteroid injections work?
Bind directly to nuclear receptors to interrupt the inflammatory and immune cascade via mRNA changes***
35
What changes are ass'd with adult hip dysplasia?
Increased femoral ante version w/ posterior GT**** Coxa valga** Head-neck junction deformity Femoral head asphericity hypoplasia of femoral canal
36
Crowe classification of hip dysplasia
I: proximal displacement <10% vertical height of pelvis, proximal migration of head neck junction from inter-teardrop line < 50% of femoral head vertical diameter (standard THA) II: 10-15% vertical heigh, 50-75% femoral head subluxation (uncemented cup at or near true acetabulum, may need femoral shortening) III: 15-20% vertical displacement, 75-100% femoral head subluxation (same as II) IV: >20% vertical displacement, >100% femoral head subluxation (Extra-small acetabular component in true acetabulum, proximal shortening or subtroch osteotomy)
37
Hip arthroscopy for adult DDH outcomes?
Chondral and labral pathology 2/2 osseous instability --> recurs and progresses Ass'd with: Accelerated progression of OA*** hip subluxation*** Increased surgical failure and reoperation***
38
THA for adult DDH outcomes
Outcomes for Crowe I and II initially the same as THA for OA, but long term f/u shows higher revision rates*** Increased complication profile: Infection, instability and neuromuscular injury*** Risk of sciatic injury if limb lengthened by 4cm *** (peroneal division***) Perform trochanter or subtroch osteotomy to shorten***
39
How much uncoverage with the super-lateral margin is acceptable in THA?
up to 30%***
40
Most common acute failure of hip resurfacing?
Periprosthetic femoral neck fracture*** Likely due to osteonecrosis Risk factors: Femoral neck notching --> by placing implant in slight varus (rather than slight valgus)*** tx: covert to THA
41
Risk factors for developing pseudo tumor after MoM hip resurfacing?
Female*** <40 y/o*** Small components*** Procedure done for DDH***
42
Why does MoM larger head not cause increased wear rates?
Larger bearings have greater sliding speed*** Higher sliding speed increases amount of fluid drawn in so get increased separation of bearing surfaces --> offsets the negative effect of increased sliding distance of the larger head***
43
leukocyte chromosomal aberrations are ass'd with what type of hip?
MoM hips***
44
What risk do lateralized liners in acetabulum carry?
Increases risk of acetabular component loosening***
45
What is optimal size for biologic fixation for femoral component in terms of: Pore size? Porosity? Gaps? Micromotion?
Pore size: 50- 300 micrometers (preferably 50-150 micrometers***) Porosity 40-50% --> increased porosity leads to shearing of metal Gaps < 50 micrometers --> gap between bone and prosthetics Micromotion <150 micrometers --> if more get fibrous ingrowth***
46
Risks of acetabular screw zones: Posterior-superior? Posterior-inferior? Anterior-inferior? Anterior-superior?
Posterior-superior "Target zone" --> ideal location for screws Can get into sciatic if elevate hip center during revision*** Posterior-inferior "Caution zone" --> keep screws <20 mm At risk: Sciatic, inferior gluteal nerve and vessels, internal pudendal nerve and vessels Anterior-inferior quadrant "Danger zone" At risk: Obturator nerve, vessels Anterior-superior "Death zone" At risk: external iliac vessels****
47
Risk factors for sciatic nerve palsy after THA? How often do post op THA sciatic palsies fully recover?
``` DDH*** Revision surgery*** Female*** Limb lengthening*** Post traumatic arthritis*** Surgeon self rating case as difficult*** ``` Recovery: only 35-40% fully recover*** (Takes 12-18 months, so continue AFO during this time)
48
Dose of radiation and when to give for HO prophylaxis?
600-800 cGy within 24-48 hours after procedure (or 24 hours prior to procedure = just as effective)***
49
Co or Cr levels to get a MARS MRI?
7 ppb***
50
Paprosky classification of acetabular bone loss?
Type I: minimal deformity, intact rim Type IIA: Superior bone lysis w/ intact SUPERIOR rim Type IIB: absent superior rim, super-lateral migration Type IIC: Localized destruction of the medial wall Type IIIA: Bone loss from 10 am - 2 pm around rim w/ super-lateral cup migration, ISCHIAL osteolysis Type IIIB: Bone loss from 9 am - 5 pm around rim, superomedial cup migration, Ischial osteolysis
51
Paprosky classification of femoral bone loss?
Type I: minimal metaphyseal bone loss Type II: Extensive metaphyseal loss w/ intact diaphysis Type IIIa: Extensive metadiaphyseal bone loss, min of 4 cm of intact cortical bone in diaphysis Type IIIb: <4 cm of intact cortical bone in diaphysis Type IV: Extensive metadiaphyseal bone loss and a non supportive diaphysis
52
What pathway/signaling pathway causes osteophyte formation in OA?
Indian hedgehog*** Important mediator of chondrocyte and osteoblast differentiation in endochondral bone formation***
53
AAOS strong evidence treatments for knee OA?
1 - NSAIDs*** 2 - Tramadol*** 3 - Low impact aerobic activity*** Strong against: HA injection Arthroscopy w/ lavage an/or debridement
54
Young patient with knee valgus (symptomatic), operation to perform?
Distal femoral osteotomy*** (not HTO) Varus producing distal femoral osteotomy Lateral femoral condyle is hypoplastic*** HTO will not correct deformity and will result in obliquity at the joint Overall: HTO for varus knee*** Distal femoral for valgus knee***
55
Indications for UKA? Contraindications?
Indications: Older (>60), lower demand, thin (<82 kg) --> very few pts meet these criteria Contraindications: Inflammatory arthritis*** ACL deficiency*** (absolute for mobile bearing, relative for fixed bering) Varus (fixed) >10 degrees Valgus (fixed) >5 degrees Previous meniscectomy in nonop compartment Tricompartment arthritis*** Overweight patients Grade IV patellofemoral chondrosis/anterior knee pain***
56
Complications from UKA?
1 - Aseptic loosening --> most common cause of early <5 years failure *** 2- Stress fx --> always tibia Risk factors: Penetrating posterior cortex w/ tibial guid pin, placing guidepin metal in periphery, redrilling for guid pin, undersized tibial component*** 3- Intraop fx
57
How many degrees can be corrected for TKA on coronal plane with bony cuts alone?
20 degrees*** Any more and require extra-articular osteotomy***
58
What changes when PCL resected in TKA?
Increases FLEXION gap***
59
Females vs males with TKA?
Females have improved implant survivorship vs males***
60
What factors will increase Q angle in TKA?
Internally rotating femoral or tibial component*** Medializing femoral or tibial component*** Placing patellar button on lateral side (medialize this)***
61
What happens to handicap after TKA? THA?
Golf handicap after TKA: significantly rises*** After THA: no change***
62
What can cause anterior knee pain after healed HTO?
Patella baja*** Immobilization after closing wedge can precipitate anterior knee pain***
63
what is most common intraop fx during TKA?
Medial condyle fx***
64
What is starting point for retrograde nail thru TKA? what is malalignment that occurs?
Starting point is more POSTERIOR than normal*** Leads to HYPEREXTENSION***
65
Tx of periprosthetic fx of patella in TKA?
Nonop Cast or brace: if stable implant with intact extensor implant Operative Loose patellar or extensor mech disruption***
66
How does lateral plating compare to retrograde nail for periprosthetic TKA fracture?
Same nonunion*** Less malunion with lateral plating (likely due to nailing having posterior start point leading to hyperextension)***
67
Why does TKA dislocate?
Loose flexion gap*** Popliteus cut, too much tibial slope, undersizing femoral component, anteriorizing femoral component
68
How to treat a partial quad tendon rupture with TKA?
Nonop*** Knee immobilizer for 6 weeks***
69
Risk factors for peroneal palsy after TKA?
Valgus*** Tourniquet >120 min*** Postop use of epidural Aberrant retractor placement Prognosis 50+% improve w/ time
70
What is a contraindication to using a metaphyseal sleeve?
large UNCONTAINTED defect in tibial metaphysis*** Use CONES for uncontained defects***
71
What approach for revision TKA with patella Baja?
Tibial tubercle osteotomy***
72
TKA in general population vs TKA in patient with previous tibial plateau fx?
HIGHER COMPLICATIONS*** SAME outcomes and satisfaction****