ASIS PSP Exam Flashcards
(377 cards)
1
Q
How is risk measured?
A
The value of the asset in relation to the threats and vulnerabilities associated with it.
2
Q
How is security risk rating calculated?
A
Asset value rating X threat likelihood rating X security of incident rating X vulnerability rating = security risk rating.
3
Q
Conditions that tend to increase assets’ exposure to the risk of loss can be divided into which categories?
A
Physical- includes factors such as the organization’s types and locations of facilities, the operational technology or industrial control systems, and the criticality of on-site processes and assets.
Non-Physical- Includes factors such as geo-political landscape, culture, speed of decision making, and intensity of competition.
Logical- Includes information and digital assets, and the network or digital space that connects them.
4
Q
How often should the risk assessment process be revisited?
A
It should be a cyclical and continuous effort since the elements are constantly subject to change over time.
5
Q
What is the purpose of the security survey?
A
- Determine and document the current security posture.
- Identify deficiencies and excesses in existing security measures.
- Compare the current posture with a determination of the appropriate level of protection needed.
- Recommend improvements in the overall situation.
6
Q
What factors should be addressed with considering vulnerabilities?
A
- Lack of redundancy or backups for critical functions.
- Single points of failure.
- Collocation of critical systems, organizations, or components.
- Inadequate response capability to recover from an attack.
- Ease of an aggressor to access a facility.
- Inadequate security measures are in place.
- Presence of hazardous materials.
- Potential for collateral damage from other companies in the area.
7
Q
What is the difference between a physical security assessment and a security survey?
A
A security survey focuses more on vulnerabilities.
8
Q
Is a cost-benefit analysis used in a physical security assessment or in a risk assessment?
A
A cost-benefit analysis should be used in both.
9
Q
What are the functions included in a functional approach to a physical security assessment?
A
- Security architecture and engineering.
- Structural security measures.
- CPTED
- Electronic security systems.
- Security officers and the human element.
10
Q
What are typical areas to assess in a physical security assessment?
A
- Barriers, doors, windows, other openings
- Locks, safes, and containers, signage
- Alarm systems, lighting, electronic systems, security services, vehicle traffic, parking controls, utilities protection, visitor management, and package handling.
11
Q
Why should automated assessment tools only be used to ASSIST in completing an assessment?
A
- May give a false sense of knowledge in security assessments.
- High cost.
- Complexity of software.
- Computers cannot factor in unquantifiable characteristics.
12
Q
What is asset prioritization based on?
A
Each asset’s criticality to the organization’s mission and overall strategy.
13
Q
What is the defense-in-depth approach?
A
An adversary must avoid or defeat a number of protective devices or features in sequence (i.e., peeling an onion).
14
Q
Why does each layer of security require a separate act by the adversary?
A
- This causes uncertainty in the perpetrator’s mind.
- Increases attack preparation time.
- Adds steps to the intrusion.
- Allows time for a security or police response.
15
Q
What is an important thing to consider when assessing layered security?
A
The interdependencies of each layer.
16
Q
What is the principle of balanced protection?
A
The protection system’s individual applications and components will be integrated and conveyed so that they provide an equal level of protection.
17
Q
What is involved in the appraisal component of the security survey?
A
Developing and communicating recommendations for enhancements.
18
Q
What is the focus of a physical security assessment?
A
The risks to the physical assets and property of an organization and the protective/protection measures (against any risk) that comprise the realm of physical security.
19
Q
The physical security assessment could provide the basis for what?
A
- A comprehensive and integrated security analysis and risk assessment across the organization.
- Identifying security gaps.
- Identifying the range of potential solutions and their advantages/disadvantages.
- Assisting in the development of organization security risk management, continuity, response, and recovery programs.
20
Q
What costs should be considered in a cost-benefit analysis?
A
- Technology costs.
- Opportunity costs.
- Process impact costs.
- Time costs.
- Personnel costs.
- Overall capability costs.
21
Q
What are three common approaches to a physical security assessment?
A
- Outside-inward approach (outward-inward approach).
- Inside-outward approach.
- Functional approach.
22
Q
This physical security assessment approach occurs when an assessment team takes the role of the perpetrator and begins outside the facility focusing on the successive layers of security.
A
Outside-inward approach (outward-inward approach)
23
Q
This physical security assessment approach occurs when an assessment team takes the role of the defender and works their way from the asset out toward the outer perimeter.
A
Inside-Outward Approach
24
Q
This physical security assessment approach occurs when an assessment team evaluates security functions/disciplines and collates the findings from the assessment component.
A
Functional (security discipline) approach
25
What are five criteria of a good security survey report?
1. Accuracy
2. Clarity
3. Conciseness
4. Timeliness
5. Slant or Pitch
26
What are the objectives of physical access control?
1. Deter potential intruders
2. Distinguish authorized from unauthorized persons
3. Delay and prevent intrusion attempts
4. Detect intrusions and monitor intruders
5. Trigger appropriate incident response by communicating to security officers and the police.
6. Deny by opposing or negating the effects of an overt or covert action.
27
What is an asset?
Anything that has tangible or intangible value to an enterprise.
28
What is risk analysis?
A process for identifying asset values, threats, and vulnerabilities to ascertain risks.
29
How is an asset's criticality determined?
Based on the mission/goals of the organization and how the company would recover in the event that the asset was no longer available.
30
What are the three steps to identifying a company's assets?
1. Define the company's primary business functions.
2. Identify site/building infrastructure and systems.
3. Identify the company's tangible and intangible assets.
31
What two types of costs should be considered when valuing an asset?
Direct costs and indirect costs.
32
What are some factors to consider in valuing assets?
1. Injuries or deaths related to facility damage.
2. Asset replacement costs.
3. Revenue loss due to lost functions.
4. Backup/system redundancy existence.
5. Availability of replacement.
6. Critical/sensitive information value.
7. Impact on revenue and reputation.
33
When determining asset values, what are some direct costs?
1. Financial losses (value of goods)
2. Increased insurance premiums
3. Insurance deductibles
4. Lost business
5. Labor expenses incurred as a result of the event
6. Management time dealing with the event
7. Punitive damage awards not covered by insurance
34
When determining asset values, what are some indirect costs?
1. Negative media coverage.
2. Long-term negative consumer perception
3. Public relations cost to overcome image problems
4. Lack of insurance coverage due to higher risk categories
5. Higher wages needed to attract future employees
6. Shareholder suits for mismanagement
7. Poor employee morale leading to work stoppages and higher turnover rates.
35
What legal and regulatory requirement procedures should be established as part of a physical asset protection program?
1. Identify the legal, regulatory, and other requirements to which the organization subscribes related to the risks to its assets, activities, functions, products, services, stakeholders, environment, and supply chain.
2. Determine how these requirements apply to its risks.
3. Ensure that these requirements are taken into account in establishing, implementing, and maintaining its physical asset protection program.
36
What are two types of assets?
Tangible and Intangible
37
What are two ways assets can be valued?
1. They can be assigned a relative value, such as a number from 1 (low) to 5 (high), based on priority.
2. Apply a cost of loss formula.
38
What is the cost-of-loss formula to calculate asset value?
K= Cp + Ct + Cr + Ci - I
K= total loss
Cp= Cost of permanent replacement
Ct= cost of temporary substitute
Cr= total related costs (remove old asset, install new, etc.)
Ci= lost income cost
I= available insurance or indemnity
39
What are the two types of adversaries?
1. An adversary who uses intrusion to gain access to the target asset.
2. An adversary who plans to attack the site from outside.
40
What are two common physical security compliance metrics in the public sector?
1. Compliance of facilities.
2. Compliance of systems.
41
What are two objectives of collecting physical security program metrics?
1. To provide assurance to the organization on the effectiveness of the program.
2. To facilitate improvement.
42
This is commonly used to provide management with a snapshot of the effectiveness and efficiency of a physical security program?
Metrics summary chart.
43
What is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis?
To identify and evaluate the potential impact of a disruptive event on/to its operations.
44
What is the purpose of a business continuity management system (BCMS)?
To enable an organization to identify, develop, and implement policies, objectives, capabilities, processes, and programs- taking into account legal and other requirements- to address disruptive events that might impact the organization and its stakeholders.
45
What is considered the foundation for establishing the business continuity objectives, targets, programs, and plans?
The Business Impact Analysis (BIA) and Risk Assessment
46
What are the three generic and interrelated management response steps that require preemptive planning and implementation in case of a disruptive incident and/or crisis event?
1. Emergency response
2. Continuity
3. Recovery
47
What is the basis for setting recovery time objectives?
The results of the business impact analysis (BIA).
48
What is a disruptive event?
An event that interrupts planned activities, operations, or functions, whether anticipated or unanticipated.
49
What is a threat?
Potential cause of an unwanted incident which may result in harm to individuals, assets, a system or organization, the environment, or the community.
50
What is a loss event profile?
A list of the kinds of threats affecting the assets to be safeguarded.
51
What is a hazard?
A source of potential danger or adverse condition. Hazards are generally associated with nature.
52
Threats or loss risk events can fall into which three distinct categories?
1. Crimes
2. Non-criminal events such as man-made incidents or natural disasters.
3. Consequential events caused by an enterprise relationship with another organization.
53
What are some examples of non-criminal threats?
1. Natural threats/disasters: hurricanes, tornadoes, major storms, etc.
2. Man-made threats or disasters: labor strikes, airplane crashes, electrical power failures, etc.
54
What are examples of peripheral systems and interfaces?
Life safety systems, building controls, IT infrastructure, liaison relationships, outsourced services, and policies and procedures.
55
What is a consequential event?
An event that occurs because of a relationship between events or between two different organizations- the company suffers a loss as a consequence of that event or affiliation.
56
How is the probability of a threat occurring decided?
By considering the likelihood that a loss risk event may occur in the future.
57
What factors are used in determining the probability of a threat?
1. Historical data at the site.
2. The history of like events at similar companies.
3. The make-up of the neighborhood and immediate vicinity.
4. Overall geographic location.
5. Political and/or social conditions.
6. Changes in the economy.
7. Other factors.
58
What is vulnerability?
Any weakness that can be exploited by an aggressor (terrorist or criminal) or that makes an asset susceptible to damage from natural hazards or consequential events.
59
What are some factors to consider when assessing asset vulnerability?
1. Lack of redundancy or backups for critical systems.
2. Single points of failure.
3. Collocation of critical systems/organizations.
4. Inadequate response capability to recover from an attack.
5. Ease of aggressor access to a facility.
6. Inadequate security measures are in place.
7. Presence of hazardous materials.
8. Potential for collateral damage from other companies in the area.
60
What are examples of four levels of risk?
1. Catastrophic
2. High
3. Moderate
4. Low
61
What level of risk requires treatment at any cost for activities and functions to continue?
Catastrophic
62
What level of risk cannot be further reduced without expenditure of costs disproportionate to benefits?
High
63
What level of risk is negligible or can be managed with routine procedures?
Moderate
64
What is the level of risk where an organization is prepared to pursue, retain, or take based on informed decisions?
Low
65
What should accompany the regular reviews of the physical security assessment report?
Monitor and follow-up on the assessment findings, observations, and recommendations.
66
What are two categories of threats?
Manmade threats and natural threats.
67
This metric measures time responsiveness of external dependencies in meeting a security department request.
External dependency responsiveness.
68
What are some physical security design attributes?
1. Type of adversary
2. The amount of time the adversary requires to get to the assets inside
3. Number and type of detectors inside and out of the site.
4. Delays that slow down the attack.
5. Size, strength, and equipage of the response force.
69
The overall and systematic process for evaluating the effects of uncertainty on achieving an enterprise's objectives is called what?
Risk Assessment
70
What is the goal of a cost-benefit analysis?
To identify the optimal level of risk reduction at the best value available.
71
Which analysis method does not use numbers, but instead uses comparative terms?
Qualitative Analysis
72
Which analysis method utilizes numeric measures to describe the value of assets or the level of threats, vulnerabilities, impact, or loss events?
Quantitative Analysis
73
When is it most suitable to use qualitative analysis?
When evaluating basic security applications.
74
What is a SWOT analysis?
A situational business analysis that involves strategic evaluations of key internal and external factors.
75
What does SWOT stand for?
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
76
In a SWOT analysis, what are the external factors?
Opportunities and Threats
77
In a SWOT analysis, what are the internal factors?
Strengths and Weaknesses
78
What is the annual loss expectancy?
The product of the cost of incident impact and the frequency of occurrence.
79
What are some state and local requirements that should be considered for projects?
1. Code regulations
2. Trade or industry guidelines or best practices
3. Standards
4. Permitting requirements (permits)
5. Contractual requirements
80
What conditions affect the likelihood of occurrence?
1. Physical environment
2. Social environment
3. Political environment
4. Historical experience
5. Procedures and processes
6. Criminal capabilities
81
What data may be included in an incident management system?
1. Loss event history
2. Threat frequency analysis
3. Single and annual loss expectancy
4. Impact assessment
82
What tests should be considered as part of a security survey?
1. Shipping and receiving
2. Alarms
3. Computer/server room security
4. General access controls
83
With whom should you be coordinating when performing security system and procedure tests during a security survey?
The building owner or manager and, if applicable, any outside agencies that may be involved.
84
What is checked during a security survey test on shipping and receiving?
Controls are checked by physical observation of selected shipments (incoming and outgoing) against bills of lading or inventory records.
85
What is evaluated during a security survey test on alarms?
The response as well as the reaction of facility occupants and security officers.
86
What is tested during a security survey test on a computer/server room?
The security and access controls of computer/data processing areas during both working and nonworking hours.
87
How are general access controls tested during a security survey?
1. Attempt to gain access to the facility and selected internal areas during working and nonworking hours.
2. Determine whether access is possible and, if so, whether employees challenge the "intruders" after the fact.
88
How should areas, items, and issues be evaluated during a security survey?
In terms of appropriateness for the situation, age, operability, maintenance, interoperability, aesthetics, and consistency with the current us of the space.
89
What should be reviewed when assessing key/card security during a security survey?
1. Accountability and Policy
2. Recordkeeping and inventory
3. Recovery procedures (for keys)
4. Changed when appropriate (turnover of key personnel, after a theft, burglary, etc.)
90
What are some examples of other (not windows and doors) openings that should be assessed during a security survey?
1. Manholes
2. Skylights
3. Roof hatches
4. Ventilation/air conditioning vents/shafts
5. Penthouses and penthouse/roof/veranda access
6. Sidewalk grates
91
What should be examined when assessing the protection of utilities during a security survey?
1. Location and physical protection
2. Access control
3. Backup/emergency services
4. Protection of telecommunications and data lines
92
What is the first step in a risk assessment?
Identification and valuation of assets.
93
What are the four D's?
Deter, Delay, Detect, Deny
94
What are the five risk treatments?
1. Accepting the risk
2. Transferring the risk
3. Spreading the risk
4. Avoiding the risk
5. Mitigating the risk
95
What are the seven functions of physical security?
1. Access Control
2. Deterrence
3. Detection
4. Assessment
5. Delay
6. Response
7. Evidence gathering
96
What factors should be considered when selecting a risk mitigation strategy?
1. Availability
2. Affordability
3. Feasibility
97
The effectiveness of individual countermeasures and the security system depends on what?
The adversary and the threat.
98
What must happen as a threat increases in sophistication?
The effectiveness of the countermeasures must also increase or the additional risk must be managed by some other means.
99
What four criteria can be used to rank assets based on criticality?
1. Workforce
2. Service Delivery
3. Dependencies
4. Mission/Objectives
100
Which risks should be prioritized?
Those risks that have the potential to cause significant mission impact or harm.
101
What conditions tend to increase an asset's exposure to the risk of loss?
Physical environment- includes factors such as types and locations of facilities, operational technology, and criticality of on-site assets.
Nonphysical environment- includes factors such as geopolitical landscape, culture, speed of decision making, and compliance requirements.
Logical Environment- includes information and digital assets, and the network or digital space that connects them.
102
What are two common approaches to measure vulnerability?
Observability and Exploitability
103
The ability of an adversary to see and identify a vulnerability is known as what?
Observability
104
The ability of an adversary to take advantage of the vulnerability is known as what?
Exploitability
105
When is observability reversed?
In assessing natural threats.
106
How is risk calculated?
Risk = (Threat x Vulnerability x Impact)/3 (R= TxVxI/3)
107
The determination of the actual cost of a security program against the impact in terms of loss reduction, financial savings, acquisition, life cycle, replacement or other measures is known as what?
Cost-Benefit Analysis
108
A measure based on a reference that involves at least two points is known as what?
Metrics
109
What are the technical criteria of a Security Metrics Evaluation Tool (MET)?
1. Reliability
2. Validity
3. Generalizability
110
What are the operability criteria of a Security Metrics Evaluation Tool (MET)?
1. Cost
2. Timeliness
3. Manipulation
111
What are the strategic criteria of a Security Metrics Evaluation Tool (MET)?
1. ROI
2. Organizational relevance
3. Communications
112
What are the high level evaluation criteria for a Security Metrics Evaluation Tool (MET)?
1. Technical Criteria
2. Operational Criteria
3. Strategic Criteria
113
What are three major physical security metrics?
1. Systems
2. Personnel
3. Compliance
114
What are some common physical security systems metrics?
1. Forced Door
2. Door Held Open
3. Unauthorized Access Attempts
4. User-Defined Actions/Alarms
5. Communications Failures
115
What are two measurable physical security personnel metrics?
Response and Training
116
What is the first step in asset protection?
Perform a threat vulnerability assessment.
117
What is one potential pit fall in choosing security technology?
Inability to thoroughly evaluate product claims prior to installation.
118
What is the primary challenge for security system designers?
Balance the need for public access against ensuring public safety.
119
What document describes the company's requirements for qualification of bidders, such as licenses, labor affiliations, experience, and bonds?
Bidder's Instructions
120
What enables bidders to understand exactly what they are expected to supply and install?
Specifications
121
What party should clearly state what its evaluation criteria are, how each criterion is weighted, and what the method of evaluating proposals will be?
The purchasing organization
122
What is the purpose of the invitation for bid (IFB)?
When a system is already designed, the IFB is used to obtain the lowest cost for the equipment, software, and installation.
123
What should the company be prepared to use to defend its selection of qualified contractors?
Written selection criteria and results documentation.
124
The output of the project design phase is called what?
Bid Package
125
What are the components of the bid package?
1. Bidder's instructions
2. Specifications
3. Drawings and schedules
4. Hardware schedules
126
Which component of the bid package supplies the security system requirements in sufficient detail that bidders have a common understanding of what is needed?
Specifications
127
What are the most commonly supplied drawings within the bid package?
1. Plan drawings
2. Elevation drawings
3. Detail drawings
4. Riser diagrams
5. Conduit and cable lists
128
What hardware schedules are included in the bid package to aid in understanding the specific components to be provided?
1. Data panel schedule
2. Door hardware schedule
3. CCTV camera schedule
129
What group carries out the security system procurement activities?
The procurement committee
130
What brings all potential bidders together in a room so the project manager can explain the procurement requirements to all of them at the same time?
Bidders conference
131
What should a bidders conference include?
1. Opening Remarks
2. Introduction of the evaluation team and bidders
3. Overview of the project and key objectives
4. Explanation of the procurement process
5. Discussion of purpose, timeline, evaluation criteria, etc.
6. Tour of the site
7. Opportunity for vendors to submit questions.
132
What should the company consider giving a bidder to resolve a minor informality or irregularity in the bid?
A chance to cure any minor deficiency such as missing information or attachments, wrong number of copies, or missing signatures.
133
What are the six phases of the physical protection system (PPS) life cycle process?
1. Planning
2. Design and Estimation
3. Procurement
4. Installation, operations, and training.
5. Testing and warranty.
6. Maintenance, evaluation, and replacement.
134
How long cant he typical physical protection system (PPS) implementation process take?
18 to 24 months
135
What is the most important phase of the physical protection system (PPS) life cycle?
Planning phase
136
The procurement process is included in which physical protection system (PPS) life cycle phase?
Phase three, procurement.
137
What are the three common types of procurement actions?
1. Sole source
2. Request for proposals (RFP)
3. Invitation for bid (IFB)
138
What are the three major components of the physical protection system (PPS) procurement phase?
1. Form a procurement committee
2. Prepare bid package
3. Prequalify contractors
139
Conducting a bidder's conference, reviewing technical and cost evaluations, and interview and due diligence results are part of which physical protection system (PPS) life cycle phase?
The procurement phase
140
What has evolved for the purpose planning, coordinating, and controlling the complex and diverse activities of modern security projects?
Project Management
141
What is the documentation called that is prepared during the planning stage of project management?
Project Scope Document
142
What is good practice for project managers in ensuring the comprehensiveness and appropriateness of a physical protection system (PPS)?
Divide the project into several stages.
143
What are two key reminders for project managers?
Determine and sequence activities and keep the project on schedule and under control.
144
When is a project complete?
When there is proof that all objectives have been achieved and the necessary transfer of knowledge from the project team to operations personnel has occurred.
145
What are some risks involved in security system procurement?
1. The system may be delivered late or over budget.
2. The system may not work as required.
3. The system may adversely affect existing systems or processes.
4. The organization may be unable to recover losses after a contract breach.
5. Third-party subcontractors may make claims against the company.
146
What are some steps in the security system procurement process?
1. Forming a procurement committee.
2. Specifying hardware and software requirements.
3. Identifying potential integrators.
4. Launching a competitive tender program.
5. Selecting a successful bidder.
6. Issuing a purchase order.
7. Receiving and installing the products and services.
147
When should a project manager schedule a bidders conference?
About one week after the request for proposal (RFP) is issued.
148
In selecting contractors, what must be accomplished?
1. Qualifications reviewed.
2. References checked.
3. Interviews held with the people who will perform the work.
149
What skills and characteristics must a good project manager possess?
1. Process management skills (organized, logical, analytical, self-disciplined).
2. People management skills (leadership, supervision, team-building, and communication abilities).
150
Considering the techniques of project management, what approach is considered to provide a pathway to success?
A standardized approach with repeatable and documented work practices.
151
Over the length of a project, what consumes the greatest amount of project management time, day in and day out?
The control effort, which includes gathering information, reviewing progress, documenting issues and decisions, and managing overall work plan.
152
How often should the project manager require status meetings of a project?
Weekly.
153
Which physical protection system (PPS) life cycle phase includes developing a punch list and taking necessary actions to formally accept and commission the system?
The installation, operation, and training phase.
154
Wat is the process of ensuring that all systems and components of a system are designed, installed, testing, operated, and maintained according to the operational requirements of the owner?
Commissioning.
155
What is a contract document used in the architecture and building trades to organize the completion of a construction project?
Punch List.
156
Who must receive end user training of the physical protection system (PPS)?
All personnel involved in operating, updating, and maintaining the PPS.
157
When commissioning a physical protection system (PPS), what are the three types of tests that should be conducted?
1. Factory acceptance.
2. Site acceptance.
3. Availability or reliability.
158
What should testing simulate in the physical protection system (PPS) commissioning process?
Realistic conditions.
159
Within testing and commissioning, when should a certification of completion be issued and a contract considered complete?
After successful completion of all prescribed testing.
160
What does equipment performance testing determine?
1. Whether equipment is functioning.
2. Whether it has adequate sensitivity.
3. Whether it meets design and performance objectives.
161
What does personnel performance testing determine?
1. Whether procedures are effective.
2. Whether personnel know and follow procedures.
3. Whether personnel and equipment interact effectively.
162
How does the contractor perform predelivery or factory acceptance testing?
1. Assemble a test system including some or all of the system components.
2. Conduct tests to demonstrate that system performance complies with specified requirements in accordance with approved factory test procedures.
163
How does a contractor perform site acceptance testing?
1. Develop a plan to calibrate and test all components.
2. Verify data transmission system operation.
3. Install the system.
4. Place the system in service.
5. Test the system.
164
How long should reliability testing be conducted?
24 hours per day for 15 consecutive calendar days, including holidays.
165
What are six types of post-implementation tests?
1. Operational tests
2. Performance tests
3. Post-maintenance tests
4. Subsystem tests
5. Limited scope tests
6. Evaluation tests
166
Reliability testing is performed in what four phases?
1. Phase I testing
2. Phase II testing
3. Phase I assessment
4. Phase II assessment
167
What type of post-implementation test is performed periodically to prove correct system operation but does not involve verification of equipment operation specification?
Operational Tests
168
What type of post-implementation test is conducted after prevention or remedial maintenance has been performed on a security system to make sure the systems are working properly?
Post-Maintenance Test
169
What type of post-implementation test is used to test a complex system that is broken down into several subsystems or segments that are tested seperately?
Limited scope tests
170
What type of post-implementation test verifies that equipment conforms with equipment or system specifications, thereby demonstrating effectiveness?
Performance tests.
171
What type of post-implementation test ensures that large parts of the system are all working together as orginally designed?
Subsystem tests
172
What type of post-implementation test is a periodic, independent, test of the security system to validate the vulnerability analysis and ensure that overall effectiveness is being maintained?
Evaluation tests
173
What are the deliverables during the commissioning and warranty of the implementation phase?
1. Testing of the system to demonstrate its effectiveness and reliability.
2. Correction of any problems, free of charge, by the installation contractor during the warranty period.
174
Maintenance, evaluation, and replacement fall under which project stage?
Stage 4: Closeout
175
How often should evaluation tests be performed?
At least once a year.
176
What tests checks people's or objective tolerance to abuse or misuse under deliberately introduced stress?
Stress tests
177
What are regression tests?
Tests that apply to subsystems, systems, or procedures that have been altered to perform a new function and must still perform some of their original function.
178
What should a training manual for a physical protection system (PPS) include?
1. An agenda
2. Defined objectives for each lesson
3. A detailed description of the subject matter for each lesson.
179
When should approval of the planned training content and schedule be obtained from the customer?
At least 30 days before the training.
180
What should system troubleshooting and maintenance training cover?
1. Physical layout of each piece of hardware.
2. Troubleshooting and diagnostic procedures.
3. Repair instructions.
4. Preventive maintenance procedures and schedules.
5. Calibration procedures.
181
How many site acceptance tests (SAT) are normally conducted for each physical location where system components are being installed?
One.
182
What are the goals of preventive maintenance?
1. Keep equipment and software operating efficiently.
2. Extend the operational life of the equipment.
3. Identify equipment issues before failure occurs.
4. Check and verify that all secondary power sources such as standby batteries are fully charged and functioning.
183
What type of maintenance corrects faults and returns the system to operation after a hardware or software component fails?
Remedial maintenance
184
What is the major goal of system maintenance agreements?
To ensure that the security system operates at its optimum capability with minimum downtown.
185
What is standards compliance testing (SCT)?
SCT evaluates the system compliance with both in-house company standards and industry standards.
186
What is the common time for the contractor to report to the job site to address a warranty issue?
Within four hours.
187
What results can be expected from preventive maintenance?
1. Correct operation of electromechanical equipment.
2. Replacement of hardware to keep equipment updated.
3. Updates of system and application software.
4. Problem detection through testing and analysis of system reports.
5. Maintenance of system documentation.
188
Most security system failures occur in the first year due to what two issues?
1. Infant mortality of system components.
2. Improper installation.
189
How often should maintenance logs be provided to the security department for analysis?
On a quarterly basis.
190
What type of records identify problems operators have with certain subsystems or components?
System operator records
191
As a rule of thumb, how much of the capital cost of the physical protection system (PPS) equipment for a locations should be allocated each year for spare parts and purchases?
5% (Five Percent)
192
What are two benefits of in-house maintenance?
1. In-house systems expertise is built and maintained, reducing reliance on outside contractors.
2. Management retains control over resource priorities.
193
What are three benefits of outsourcing maintenance?
1. Technicians keep current on products and systems.
2. Supervision and control is transferred to the other company.
3. Backup resources are available.
194
How long does it take before most security systems are considered obsolete due to advancement of technology?
Five years or less.
195
What should be included in a service report for a warranty repair?
1. Date and time the fault was reported.
2. Nature of the reported fault.
3. Date and time of the service visit.
4. Actual fault identified.
5. Remedial work carried out.
196
What is the purpose of a warranty?
To repair, correct, or replace any defect for a period of time (usually 12 months) from the date of issue of the certificate of practical completion.
197
What qualifications should personnel have for conducting training on the new system?
1. All personnel giving instruction should be certified by the equipment manufacturer for the hardware and software.
2. Trainers should have experience in conducting similar training.
3. The customer should approve the trainer.
198
What are seven training topics for new systems?
1. system administration
2. system monitoring
3. alarm assessment and dispatch
4. incident response
5. system troubleshooting and maintenance
6. IT functions
7. system overview
199
What is the goal of system administration training?
System administrators will learn to use all system functions including:
1. ID badge design and production
2. Cardholder setup and access level assignment.
3. Access door programming.
4. Alarm setup and administration.
5. Data storage and retrieval through reports.
6. System database backups.
200
What is the goal of alarm assessment and dispatch training?
Security systems operators will learn to assess the cause of different alarm conditions and properly deal with them.
201
What are some functions, other than protection, that security officers may be asked to assist in?
1. Communications
2. Customer service
3. Transportation
202
What is the continuing challenge when procuring services within the contract security industry?
During procurement, companies overemphasize low price, which leads to disappointing and compromised service quality.
203
The need for security personnel can be analyzed using which concept?
The "necessary human being" concept.
204
What are the two categories of patrols for security officers?
Foot patrol and mobile patrol
205
Regardless of the patrol method, how should security officers patrol their assigned area?
1. Systematically
2. Frequently backtracking
3. Taking unexpected routes
206
What is the goal when dealing with mentally ill or incapacitated people?
Prevent harm from the person's act and to control the person without injury, discomfort, or embarassment.
207
What positive impact can security officers have in a security awareness program?
Encouraging employees to report or decrease security risks.
208
To be successful in an intelligence role, what should security officers be trained in?
1. Fundamentals of investigation.
2. Interviewing techniques.
3. Investigative report writing.
209
What should be reviewed before an organization purchases security uniforms and equipment?
State and local statutes and regulations to ensure that any proposed purchases of uniforms and equipment comply with the law.
210
The decision to arm an officer should be based on the existence of what conditions?
1. There is a greater danger to life and safety without the weapon.
2. The officer may reasonable expected to use fatal/deadly force.
211
What guideline is used for standards for private security officers?
ASIS Private Security Officer Selection and Training Guidelines, which was updated in 2019.
212
Which organization promulgated a code of ethics for security officers?
The International Foundation for Protection Officers
213
Affective learning helps a person change the way he or she views a situation. What are some types of affective training for security officers?
1. Understanding various cultures.
2. Dealing with disabled persons.
3. Practicing safety compliance.
4. Exploring methods used by adversaries to acquire information.
214
Psychomotor training offers hands-on experiences. What are some examples of psychomotor learning for security officers?
1. Equipment operation
2. Defensive driving tactics
3. Firearms training
4. Fire extinguisher training
5. First aid skills
6. Emergency response skills
215
What is training?
The acquisition of the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) directly related to job performance.
216
What method of training is useful for guiding the learner in any topic where discretionary judgement is necessary?
Case Studies
217
What are post orders based on?
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
218
Besides a list of procedures for the security group to follow in day-to-day operations, what else might standard operating procedures (SOPs) include?
Emergency Response Procedures
219
"Officers will maintain a professional or military bearing" is an example of which type of order?
General Order
220
What should post orders convey for the security force?
1. Express the policies of the protected enterprise.
2. Summarize required other duties.
3. Avoid the problems of word-of-mouth instructions.
4. Provide a basis for site-specific training.
221
What may be included in personnel databases that hold a skills inventory list of security officers?
1. Special training
2. Certifications
3. Qualifications
222
Aside from post hours and shift time, what else must be considered and calculated into the work schedule for a proprietary security officer?
1. Paid Holidays
2. Sick Time
3. Other absences such as jury duty, family illness, or emergencies.
223
Contract security agencies have a broad personnel base from which they can draw additional officers when necessary. What can be major disadvantages to this approach?
Officers may never have been assigned before to the particular client location. Such a security officer cannot become familiar with post requirements in one or two hours, and an inexperienced officer may cause more harm than good.
224
Why is it important for security officers to log their meal and break periods?
If an incident occurs, the log may allow verification of whether an officer was on a break or should have been at their post.
225
When do experienced supervisors provide continuous training?
1. They provide feedback to an officer in response to observed situations that were not handled correctly.
2. They provide training when new material is introduced that requires familiarization by the officer.
226
What can a supervisor do to ensure that post orders are read and to reinforce training?
1. Ask one or more specific questions about the new order.
2. Observe the officer in an actual situation involving its application.
3. Set up hypothetical situation requiring the officer to show a working knowledge of the order.
227
What are some items that can be evaluated during regular assessments of security officer performance?
1. Personal appearance and condition of the officer.
2. Condition of the post.
3. Availability and condition of required personnel and post equipment.
4. Quality of officer response to training questions or simulations.
5. Quality of officer response to real-life situations.
228
Regular assessments and recordings of officer performance by supervisors after every post visit can be used for what?
To identify trends and additional training needs.
229
In the context of security officer operations, what is the focus of quality assurance (QA) programs?
To test, inspect, or identify problems in order to correct them and to maintain and improve service, as well as prevent problems before they happen.
230
What is the outcome of effectiveness assessments?
Maintain service quality as well as to continuously improve security officer performance and operation.
231
Aside from on-site supervisors, contract security companies can use "independent" inspections for what type of inspections?
Quality control inspections
232
What can quality control inspections of security officers identify?
1. Substandard performance
2. Subject areas requiring supplemental training
3. Procedures needing clarification
233
What are some cost-effective and practical ideas to increase organization-wide security awareness?
Incorporating security awareness training into new-hire orientations, special luncheons, and regular business meetings.
234
What is the strategy of the Business Watch program?
Connecting designated police officers with business leaders who jointly assist businesses in reporting and preventing crime.
235
What is a security policy?
A security policy establishes strategic security objectives and priorities for the organization, identifies the organization representatives primarily accountable for physical security and sets forth responsibilities and expectations for managers, employees, and others in the organization.
236
What is a security procedure?
Procedures should describe how the organization will take proactive steps to protect its assets by establishing architectural administration, design, operational, and technological approaches to avoid, eliminate, or reduce the likelihood that risks will materialize.
237
What is a post order?
Post orders are the most important written instructions for the security force. Post orders:
1. Express the policies of the protected enterprise.
2. Summarize required officer duties.
3. Avoid the problems of word-of-mouth instructions.
4. Provide a basis for site-specific training.
238
What considerations should be given to security officer ID badges?
The badge normally provides the officer with proper ID and access to areas that they tour regularly or may need to enter during an emergency.
239
What are the two functional design principles?
1. The Four D's (deter, detect, delay, deny)
2. Layered Security (defense-in-depth)
240
The point where the delay time remaining exceeds the response force time is known as what?
Critical Detection Point
241
What is the term for the type of security where there is significant perimeter protection and entry is tightly controlled at a single portal?
Area Security
242
What is the term for the type of security where the outer perimeter is loosely controlled and the primary security focus is at an individual building or restricted area within?
Point Security
243
What are some conflicts that might arise in the design process for physical security measures?
1. Surveillance systems, sensors, door systems, and other access control measures may conflict with one another.
2. Safety and security objectives may not be the same.
3. Security goals may not align with an organization's mission or culture.
244
What concept is used in the security design process to describe all aspects (electronic, structural, human, and procedural) of a security system complementary and working with one another?
Balanced Protection
245
What key factor in the nature of the physical security design and strategy employed to meet protective objectives?
The type or use of the facility or asset being protected.
246
What are the two types of design criteria?
1. Performance Criteria- elements chosen for their contribution to performance.
2. Feature Criteria- elements chosen because certain features are required.
247
What type of design process selects elements and procedures according to the contribution they make to overall system performance?
Performance Criteria
248
What type of design process selects elements or procedures to satisfy requirements that certain items be present?
Feature Criteria
249
What are the five different aspects that need to be taken into account when developing security system procedures?
1. People
2. Operations
3. Maintenance
4. Training Awareness
5. Incident-based and exploratory investigations
250
What are the nine (9) basic factors to know from the onset in security design?
1. Governing codes and regulations
2. Protection requirements
3. Company standards and guidelines
4. Type of construction
5. Site layout
6. Material Selection
7. Utilities
8. Life Safety
9. Infrastructure
251
What equation is used for calculating risk when developing a design?
Risk = Vulnerability x Threat x Asset Value
252
According to the U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) model, what are the two basic classifications of threats or hazards?
1. Natural
2. Human-Caused
253
What is the design basis threat (DBT)?
A profile of the type, composition, capabilities, and methods (tactics, techniques, and procedures) as well as the goals, intent, and motivation of an adversary, upon which the security engineering and operations of a facility are based.
254
What is a requirements document?
A requirements document identifies the primary reasons for implementing new measures or upgrading an old system. It is closely tied to the risk assessment by identifying the specific security measures to mitigate threats and reduce vulnerabilities.
255
The collection, review, and analysis of data relative to the facility where the system will be implemented is an integral part of which process?
Planning Process
256
What are the two important criteria in developing the objectives for implementing or upgrading the physical protection system (PPS)?
The objective must be clearly stated and it must be SMART.
257
What does SMART stand for?
Specific, Measurable, Aggressive but Achievable, Realistic, Time-Based (Time- Dependent)
(Objectives to be clear, focused, and appropriate to the task)
258
What are some influencing characteristic factors to consider in physical security design?
1. Assets under protection
2. Building or facility type
3. Surroundings
4. Location
5. Additional concerns, such as management support and resources.
259
According to CPTED security layering, where is the final layer of security?
The first layer should be at the perimeter of the property.
260
According to CPTED security layering, where is the second layer of security?
The second layer should be at the building exterior.
261
According to CPTED security layering, which layers are inside the building?
1. The third, fourth, and fifth layers.
2. The third layer should segregate authorized and unauthorized visitors.
3. The fourth layer should segregate generally accessible client areas from staff-only areas.
4. The fifth layer should further restrict staff access to highly sensitive areas.
262
What is crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED)?
An approach to reducing crime or security incidents through the strategic design of the built environment, typically employing organizational, mechanical, and natural methods to control access, enhance natural surveillance and territoriality, and support legitimate activity.
263
What are the three approaches of CPTED strategies?
1. Natural or architectural measures
2. Mechanical measures
3. Organizational measures
264
What is natural surveillance?
Natural surveillance is a CPTED strategy to increase visibility, both interior-to-exterior and exterior-to-interior, to increase witness potential, foster a sense of exposure to the criminal element, and give advanced visibility to areas people are entering.
265
What is the "Broken Windows" theory?
The theory suggests that leaving broken windows or other decay unattended or unrepaired, can lead to the impression of abandonment and increase crime opportunity because no capable guardian is observed.
266
What is compartmentalization?
Compartmentalization is a CPTED strategy to design multiple or concentric layers of security measures so that highly protected assets are behind multiple barriers. This is also known as protection-in-depth.
267
What are the four levels of integration?
1. Integrated electronic security systems
2. Integrated physical security elements
3. Integrated security programs
4. Integration in enterprise risk management
268
A successful security design integrates what three primary elements?
1. Architectural Aspects
2. Security Systems
3. Operational Factors
269
What does PSIM stand for?
Physical Security Information Management
270
What involves planning, organizing, and controlling resources on a project?
Project Management
271
What are four constraints on a project?
1. Project Scope
2. Schedule
3. Budget
4. Quality
272
What are typical elements in the project management process for a physical protection system (PPS)?
1. Project concept
2. Designing the project
3. Managing the bid process
4. Managing the implementation process
5. Acceptance of work
6. Initializing and managing the warranty process
273
What are the two first phases of system design principles?
Planning and Assessment
274
Technical security projects typically progress through which six tasks?
1. Risk analysis
2. Conceptual (schematic)
3. Design development
4. Construction development
5. Bidding
6. Construction
275
What term is used to describe the outcome of the overall planning phase through a set of security requirements or objectives that is used as a basis of the eventual design?
Design Basis
276
The ground rules and guidelines for the design are referred to as what?
Design Criteria
277
What are the two phases in design and documentation?
1. Design Development States
2. Construction Documents Phase
278
What are the three sections of the procurement documents that are also known as contract (or bid) documents?
1. Contractual details
2. Construction specifications
3. Construction drawings
279
The construction document (CD) phase package includes what five items?
1. CD drawings
2. Specifications
3. Bill of quantities
4. Refined system budgets
5. Contract terms and conditions
280
What are the results of detailed specifications?
1. Final implementation reflects what was intended.
2. All bidders get some complete understanding of requirements.
281
What does CADD stand for?
Computer-Aided Design Drafting
282
The table of related security devices is commonly known as what?
Hardware Schedules
283
What are the three types of cost estimates?
1. Budgeting estimates
2. Preliminary design estimates
3. Final design estimates
284
What are the two possibilities for who will design the system?
1. Customer or end user
2. Contractor or integrator
285
An approximation of the cost of each alternative security solution prepared for budgeting and planning purposes is known as what?
Budgetary Estimates
286
What are the three different types of project estimates?
1. Budgeting
2. Preliminary Design
3. Life-Cycle Cost(s)
287
What are the seven procedures to be covered when creating a detailed estimate?
1. Identify Physical Protection System (PPS) subsystems
2. Identify other installation activities
3. Develop list of components
4. Establish component prices
5. Formulate installation crews and establish productivity
6. Identify required special equipment and rates
7. Use spreadsheet format
288
Project scope documents should have what 10 sections?
1. Executive summary
2. Project benefits
3. Project objectives
4. Project scope
5. Estimated project hours
6. Estimated cost
7. Estimated duration
8. Assumptions
9. Major risks
10. Objectives
289
What are the four stages of a project?
1. Project feasibility
2. Project development
3. Project execution
4. Project closeout
290
In which stage of the project should any changes to the project scope, deliverables, or activities be subject to a more systematic change process and submitted to a change review board (CRB)?
Stage 3: Project Execution
291
What are the 7 deliverables of the planning stage?
1. Risk assessment report
2. Procurement method
3. Budgetary estimate
4. Selection of project manager
5. Selection of project team
6. Design criteria
7. Contracting and legal requirements
292
What are two types of physical barriers?
1. Natural Barriers
2. Structural Barriers
293
Examples of this type of barrier includes fields, rivers, cliffs, marshes, and deserts.
Natural Barriers
294
Examples of this type of barrier includes berms, ditches, planted trees and shrubs, fences, doors, and glazing materials.
Structural Barriers
295
What are the most common means for securing grounds against trespassing?
Walls, chain link fences, moats, and other barriers.
296
What should be considered when installing chain link fences?
Posts, bracing, fabric, fence top treatment, gates, turnstyles
297
When should barbed wire be installed atop a fence?
If fences are intended to discourage human trespassing.
298
What is the purpose of installing a cement apron under the fence?
To prevent individuals or objects from going under the fence.
299
What should be considered when implementing physical barriers and site hardening?
1. Target attractiveness
2. Overall risks for the site
3. Neighboring perimeters and adjacencies
4. Effectiveness of multiple options or perimeter and outer and inner security structures.
5. Cost-effectiveness
6. Response directives and operational procedures.
300
Planters can be an effective vehicle barrier under what conditions?
When properly anchored to the ground
301
A sturdy and short cylindrical post intended to divert traffic or aborb vehicular impact are known as what?
Bollards
302
What is the purpose of a turnstyle?
To control pedestrian traffic and minimize tailgating (piggybacking)
303
What measures can be taken to strengthen doors?
1. Adding steel plates for reinforcement
2. Anchoring frames
3. Adding kick plates
4. Using set screws and hinges
5. Spot welding hinges
304
What are five types of window glass?
1. Annealed or plate glass
2. Tempered glass
3. Wired glass
4. Laminated glass
5. Bullet-resistant or burglar-resistant glass
305
What are four window-related security materials?
1. Window bars
2. Window film
3. Blast curtains
4. Security shutters
306
At what dimensions should openings be fortiifed?
96 square inches (619 square centimeters)
307
What are four key factors in hardening a facility?
1. Stand-off distance
2. Structural integrity of the premises
3. Prevention of progressive collapse
4. Redundancy of operating systems
308
What are four typical objectives of an access control system?
1. Permit authorized asset access to controlled areas.
2. Detect, minimize, and prevent the access attempts or exit of unauthorized assets from controlled areas.
3. Provide information to security personnel for the assessment and response to unauthorized entry.
4. Provide a record of who, what, when, where, and how access to controlled areas was granted.
309
What are three types of credentials that can be validated in an electronic access control system?
1. Identifying a valid key or credential- something an asset has.
2. Validating an identification number or code- something a person knows.
3. Processing the unique characteristics for biometric identification- what is inherent to a person.
310
What are the six types of locks?
1. Mechanical
2. Electrified
3. Electromagnetic
4. Credential-operated
5. Combination
6. Biometric
311
The time required to defeat a lock should approximate what?
The penetration delay time of the rest of the security barrier.
312
What are the four methods of contraband detection?
1. Metal detectors
2. Package search
3. Explosives detection
4. Chemical and biological agent detection.
313
What is stand-off distance?
The distance between a critical asset and the nearest point of attack.
314
What are some advantages of security lighting?
1. Possible deterrence of adversaries and suspicious activities.
2. Improved surveillance by users and security response.
3. Reduced liability from trips and falls and premises security negligence cases.
4. Enhanced observation of spaces.
5. Proper lighting fosters a sense of security to the legitimate users of the space.
315
What are six application types of security lighting?
1. Continuous
2. Glare protection
3. Standby
4. Controlled
5. Portable (moveable)
6. Emergency
316
How is light intensity measured?
Lux and foot candles
317
hat lamps are the least efficient, most expensive, and have a short life span?
Incandescent
318
What lamps are more efficient than incandescent lamps but are not used extensively outdoors except for underpasses, tunnels and signs?
Flourescent
319
What lamps provide about 25% better efficiency and life than ordinary incandescent bulbs?
Halogen and Quartz Halogen
320
What lamps take several minutes to produce full light output and have a poor color rendition for video surveillance, but have a long life?
Mercury Vapor
321
What lamps best imitate daylight and work well with video surveillance systems by providing accurate color rendition?
Metal Halide
322
What lamps are energy efficient an have a long life span, but poor color rendition for video surveillance?
High pressure sodium. Their particular quality of light enables people to see more detail at greater distances in fog, so they are often used in streets or in parking lots.
323
What lamps are more efficient than high-pressure sodium, but are expensive to maintain and provide poor color rendition?
Low Pressure Sodium
324
What lamps provide cost-effective alternative that lasts longer, without sacrificing illumination?
LED (Light-emitting diodes)
325
What lamps have a long life and are utilized mainly indoors?
Induction
326
What are 10 types of devices used to detect intrusions?
1. Position detection devices
2. Motion detectors
3. Sound detectors
4. Vibration sensors
5. Heat sensors
6. Temperature sensors
7. Capacitances devices
8. Impact sensors
9. Glass break sensors
10. Duress/panic alarms
327
Video surveillance cameras are selected to provide what four things?
1. Scene identification and general observation.
2. Recognition and actor identification.
3. Automation through analytics.
4. Personal/Personnel identification.
328
How do thermal cameras work?
They monitor the temperature of objects in their field of view and use grayscale to represent temperatures in black and white. Color may be artificially assigned.
329
A specially constructed room or area intended to limit access and provide protection to the asset in the space is known as what?
A vault.
330
A safe weighing less than what is required to be anchored?
750 pounds (340 kilograms)
331
What organization has the well-established protocol for testing and rating safes and protective containers?
Underwriters Laboratories (UL)
332
Underwriters Laboratories (UL) designates what three classes of records protection equipment?
1. Class 350- specified for paper records and products.
2. Class 150- specified for magnetic media, tapes, discs, and photographic materials.
3. Class 125- specified for floppy discs and similar flexible computer media.
333
What differentiates high-security locks from other mechanical locks?
The keys are cut at precise angles and depths so that the key will both raise the individual tumbler array of driver and pins to a shear line and, at the same time, turn each pin so that the interlocking mechanism is positioned to pass through a grove at the base of the plug, permitting it to rotate enough to move the bolt.
334
What is the purpose of master keying?
Master keying is used to provide hierarchy of access to groups of locks, from access to only one lock, to increasingly larger groups of locks, and to all locks in the population.
335
What are the primary attack avenues of mechanical locks?
1. Attack by force
2. Surreptitious attack
3. Attack by impression-making and try keys
336
What are the four major components of lighting systems?
1. Lamp (light bulb)
2. Luminaire (fixture)
3. Mounting hardware
4. Electrical power
337
What constitutes lighting operating costs?
1. Capital items (84%)
2. Maintenance (4%)
3. Energy (88%)
338
What additional lighting consideration must be made for electronic surveillance systems and/or cameras?
Color rendering index (CRI) for accurate reproduction and identification of colors, reflection of materials, directionality of the reflected lighting.
339
What discipline addresses the design of facilities and building complexes such that security features are built in from the start rather than as an afterthought?
Security architecture and design
340
What may be included as perimeter protection?
1. fence line
2. security officers
3. cameras
4. vehicle barriers
5. intrusion detection systems
6. signs
7. natural barriers
341
What are the three types of security zones?
1. perimeter
2. non-exclusive zone
3. exclusive zone
342
Which security zone typically features entry control and vehicle barriers?
Perimeter
343
Which security zone typically features controlled entry with less restrictive access and public right-of-way?
Nonexclusive zone
344
Which security zone typically features controlled entry with high restrictive access and access control with proximity cards, keypads, passwords, or facial recognition CCTV?
Exclusive zone
345
What spacing is typically used for signage on boundary fences?
50 feet (15 meters)
346
What are two categories of barriers?
1. Passive (fixed)
2. Active (operable)
347
Where are active barriers most effective?
Active barriers are used at vehicle access control points within a perimeter barrier system or at the entry to specific buildings within a site to provide a barrier for vehicle screening or inspection.
348
How is a barrier rated?
1. The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) and the United States Department of State both rate barriers according to vehicle weight and speed.
2. ASTM ratings are M30, M40, and M50, while Department of State ratings are K4, K8, and K12.
349
What barrier rating stops a 15,000 pound (6800kg) vehicle traveling at 30 mph (48 kmh)?
K4 or M30
350
During a fire emergency, how does a fail-safe locking mechanism respond?
A fail-safe locking mechanism will unlock under any failure condition, such as loss of power.
351
During a fire emergency, how does a fail-secure locking mechanism respond?
A fail-secure locking mechanism remains locked when power is lost or another failure occurs.
352
What is second generation CPTED?
Second generation CPTED refocuses attention to encompass not only reducing physical opportunities for crime but also creating a sense of neighborliness to help reduce motives that cause crime in the first place.
353
What are the four main strategies of second generation CPTED?
1. Cohesion
2. Capacity threshold
3. Community culture
4. Connectivity
354
What are the five most common types of badges?
1. Magnetic stripe
2. Wiegand wire
3. Bar code
4. Proximity
5. Smart cards
355
How does magnetic strip encoding work?
A strip of magnetic material located along one edge of the badge is encoded with data. The data are read as the magnetic strip is moved through or inserted into a magnetic reader.
356
How are proximity badges classified?
1. By the method of powering the badge.
2. By the operating frequency range of the badge.
3. Whether the badge is read-only or has read/write capability.
357
What are the six types of electrified shocking mechanisms?
1. Electric deadbolt
2. Electric latch
3. Electric strike
4. Electric lockset
5. Exit device
6. Electromagnetic lock
358
How does a biometric lock function?
Biometric locks function by verifying a person's specific physical characteristic, if that characteristic is verified, the locking device is activated to permit access.
359
What are the two error types in biometric technologies?
1. False reject (Type I error): the improper rejection of an authorized user.
2. False accept (Type II error): the improper acceptance of an unauthorized person.
360
What are two methods that can be used to detect metal?
1. Continuous wave detectors
2. Pulse-field detectors
361
What are the x-ray approaches for package searches?
1. Single energy transmission x-ray
2. Multiple energy x-ray
3. Computed tomography (CT) scan
4. Backsatter x-ray
362
Which type of x-ray can be safely used on people?
Low-dose backscatter x-ray
363
What methods are used for trace explosive detection?
1. Ion mobility spectrometry
2. Colorimetric
3. Mass spectrometry
4. Fluorescence
5. Canine olfaction
364
What are two ways biological agent detection differs from chemical detection?
1. Most biological agents are not immediately lethal, so response time may not be as critical as for chemical attacks.
2. Biological detection methods usually involve filtering air for several hours then analyzing the filter, while chemical detectors sample air at various perimeter locations and work more quickly.
365
What is a nuisance alarm?
Any alarm caused by an intrusion.
366
What are three main characteristics of intrusion sensor performance?
Probability of detection (PD); nuisance alarm rate; vulnerability to defeat.
367
The probability of detection depends on what factors?
1. Target to be detected
2. Sensor hardware design
3. Installation conditions
4. Sensitivity adjustment
5. Weather conditions
6. Condition of the equipment
368
What are three general ways to defend a sensor?
1. Bypass
2. Adversary path exploitation
3. Spoof
369
What are classifications of intrusion sensors?
1. Passive or active
2. Covert or visible
3. Line-of-sight or terrain-following (exterior only)
4. Volumetric or line detection
5. Application
370
What are the main elements of video surveillance?
1. Field of view
2. Scene
3. Lens
4. Camera
5. Transmission medium
6. Monitor
7. Recording equipment
371
What are four uses for video surveillance?
1. To obtain visual information about something that is happening.
2. To obtain visual information about something that has happened.
3. To deter or discourage undesirable activities.
4. To use video analytic tools.
372
What are the three theoretical identification views of a video surveillance system?
1. subject identification
2. action identification
3. scene identification
373
What are the typical part of a video surveillance system (VSS)?
1. camera
2. transmission medium
3. power over ethernet (POE) network switch
374
What are the five main types of camera lenses?
1. wide angle
2. standard
3. telephoto
4. zoom
5. varifocal
375
When should the object occupy at least 10% of the scene's width?
For subject identification
376
What are the five basic tasks of physical protection system (PPS) implementaiton?
1. Conducting planning and assessment to determine security requirements.
2. Developing conceptual solutions for resolving vulnerabilities.
3. Preparing PPS design and construction documentation.
4. Soliciting bids and conducting pricing and vendor negotiations.
5. Installing, testing, and commissioning the PPS.
377
A typical integrated physical protection system (PPS) project would include what six elements?
1. Project concept
2. Designing the project
3. Managing the bid process
4. Managing the implementation process
5. Acceptance of work
6. Initializing and managing the warranty process
