Assessment Flashcards
(164 cards)
1
Q
What year did SEMS regulation take effect in California?
A
1994
2
Q
SEMS is a ________ system.
A
Management
3
Q
SEMS provides for a ______ level emergency response organization.
A
5
Field Response Local Govt Operational Area Regional State
4
Q
By _______ law all agencies must use SEMS when responding to emergencies involving multiple agencies.
A
State
5
Q
Unity of Command means?
A
Every individual has a designated supervisor (one)
6
Q
According to SEMS, Standard Emergency Management System, the standard span of control is how many?
A
3 to 7
7
Q
According to SEMS, Operational Periods can be of various lengths, although usually not over ______ hours.
A
24
8
Q
History of SEMS, a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) zone above an incident limits aircraft to 5 nautical mile radius and ______ feet in altitude.
A
2,000
9
Q
History of SEMS is due to overload in what fire?
A
East Bay
10
Q
All ______ should carry a printed copy of TB 102 (glucometer) for reference.
A
ALS Apparatus
11
Q
The Glucometer case will “glow in the dark” when exposed to light for how many minutes?
A
15
12
Q
The unique _______ design of the Glucometer Test Strip is what allows testing of small amounts of blood.
A
Biosensor
13
Q
The glucometer calibration must have the identical ____ digit number as the test strip lot number.
A
5
14
Q
The glucometer lighted feature will
Auto turn off after approx. how many seconds?
A
40
15
Q
The Hydro Foam Nozzle and Jet Controller was distributed to all what?
A
200 series engines
16
Q
What size is the hydro foam jet ratio controller (JRC)?
A
1 1/2
17
Q
When using class B Foam, what percentage of stream flow should land on Flammable liquid?
A
80%
18
Q
How many feet will the Hydro Foam nozzle reach?
A
180
19
Q
What % of Class B Foam concentrate solution should be used with the Hydro Foam Nozzle?
A
3%
20
Q
The Hydro Foam System produces high quality foam that expands to an optimum range of?
A
3:1 to 6:1
21
Q
When using the Hydro Foam nozzle, what is the friction loss for JRC?
A
50 psi
22
Q
The 1 1/2 Williams in line foam educator has foam % ranges of?
A
.5 to 6
23
Q
The 1 1/2 Williams in line eductor is limited to how many gpm?
A
125
24
Q
The JRC has how many ports?
A
3
25
When operating the Tender with Class A foam _____ to ____% is considered dry foam.
.3 to 6
26
To make the bubble cup an aspirating nozzle slide the gray sleeve in which direction?
Forward
27
During USAR incident, a rescue harness is
Recommended
28
Who controls the entry points at a USAR incident?
Rescue Team Leader
29
Who provides the rope rescue system and anchors?
Technical Support Team
30
_____ or more members are used for rigging, cutting, or ventilation.
2
31
The Urban Search and Rescue Standard of Operations and Training is NFPA Standard ______.
1670
32
When assigned to a USAR type incident, who will perform the duties of perimeter control?
Non USAR company
33
Nearly what percentage of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers secondary entries?
60%
34
The SAR (Supplied Air Respirator) has how many feet of breathing line hose for rescuers?
300
35
Who will assist the IC with an Operational Plan at a USAR event?
The USAR Task Force Captain 2 and USAR officer
36
During a USAR incident, who is responsible for “Entry Permit”
Rescue Group Sup
37
The Atmospheric Monitor is responsible for determination of atmospheric conditions. This person must be trained to the Confined Space Rescue Operations Level for _____________.
“Permit required”
38
The AO assigned to USAR 88 will normally fill what role?
TechnicL Safety Officer
39
Confined rescues require rescuers with special qualifications mandated by who?
State
40
During a confined space incident, use what type of blowers?
Electric
41
During a USAR confined space how should you spot apparatus?
Not to cause vibrations
42
Permits are normally available from plant managers and safety engineers. They can also be found in the form of Site Records or _______.
MSDS
43
Using an SCBA on a USAR incident has how many limiting factors?
3
44
The LL in LLCCESS stands for what?
Lookout and Location
45
There are _____ additional direct causes of Firefighter injury or death added to LCES
3 (Location, Condition, Safety Equip.)
46
Chief Gleason of the _______ developed LCES.
US Forestry Dept
47
When firefighters are retreating they should do what?
pull slack out of hose
48
The location that you select to initiate operations as a first arriving company on scene will become a _______ for operations for the balance of the assignment
Focal point
49
During an emergency incident, in many cases it will be the changes that ______ occur that should drive the risk analysis of the crews.
Do not
50
Prior to initiating interior operations, establish the best location for access. More importantly, the best location with a sufficient area for _______.
Exiting
51
According to TB 106, in an operational retreat sounding air horn for _____ seconds followed by ______ seconds of silence and repeated 3 times for a total of ______ seconds indicates that all companies shall retreat to safe area
10, 10, 50
52
How many US companies have FDA approval for making Auto Injectors
1
53
Mark 1 Auto Injectors contains 2 mg Atropine and 600 mg 2-Pam Chloride. What color is the 2-Pam Chloride cap?
Gray
54
What color is the Atropine Cap on Mark 1 Auto Injectors?
Yellow
55
When using the Mark 1 Auto Injectors to stop the effects of nerve agents, what agent is given first?
2 mg Atropine
56
The nervous system controls body functions through the use of ______ which acts as instructions to nerves, muscles and glands
Chemicals
57
When a member is exposed to a nerve agent, but symptoms are mild, you should?
Decontaminate and Observe
58
_____ to _____ minutes after I tea muscular injections with the Mark 1, mild to moderate pain may be experienced.
40 to 60
59
Can a paramedic administer the Mark 1 to a civilian?
Yes, an EMT can never.
60
Once a Mark 1 is administered, victims must be placed under observation for how long?
24 hours
61
Use of the Mark 1 may cause what symptoms?
```
Nausea
Hyperventilation
Increased BP
Blurred Vision
Drowsiness
```
62
The Mark 1 has a shelf life of how many years?
5
63
Special Duty personnel shall store their Mark 1 Injector where?
Glove box or Trauma Box
64
Replacement of the Mark 1 requires an F-80 and F-225 to?
ESB
65
When injecting, hold the Mark 1 firmly in place for how many seconds before removing and massaging the area?
10
66
2 PAM CI is an oxide drug that acts to restore normal functions at the nerve endings by removing the __________ nerve agent.
Organophosphate
67
Since both Atropine and 2PAM CI are relatively ________ acting, repeated doses ________ may be needed, especially if there is no evidence of continuing absorption.
Short, may be
68
The nasal cannula is designated to provide a _________ concentration of O2 and is the most appropriate initial device for COPD.
Lower
69
The main goal of oxygen therapy are to relieve what?
Hypoxemia
70
Non rebreather oxygen mask will provide what percentage of O2?
100
71
Inflate the reservoir bag on a NRB by blocking off the _______ valve between the mask and reservoir bag.
One way
72
Set a nasal cannula to no more than how many LPM?
6
73
The Elevator Rescue Kit is carried on all what?
Truck Companies
74
The skyline ERK has how many components?
4
75
When using the Elevator Rescue Paddle insert the paddle through the center door opening _______ inches from the bottom?
6 and 12
76
When using the elevator paddle push past the hoist way door and do what?
Turn 90 degrees
77
Area near floor threshold where the inner car will open or close the outer hoist way door best describes what?
Floor zone
78
The Skyline Poling tool is how long?
4’
79
The Skyline Poling Tool Extensions are how long?
4 and 8 feet
80
The ERK step stool can hold how many pounds?
300
81
The pipe wrench and tongue and groove pliers are to be used in conjunction with what other tool in the Elevator Equipment Room?
Claw tool (hayward)
82
The Alameda Corridor track # is what?
Center or #2 track
83
Alameda Corridor access ladders are located every how many feet?
1000 (2 green bots dots indicate)
84
How many miles is the Alameda Corridor?
20
85
The Alameda Corridor project was built to consolidate the operations of how many freight railroads?
2
86
Alameda Corridor will connect busiest container ports with transcontinental rail yards ______ of downtown LA
East
87
The Alameda Corridor has 2 pumping stations to control water run off. How wide is the channel?
4 feet
88
When the Alameda Corridor access ladders are lowered, trains slow to what MPH?
10
89
The Alameda Corridor has 2 pumping stations. What are they used for?
Control water run off
90
Does Alameda have a camera system?
Yes a security camera system.
91
Alameda Corridor access ladders are located every 1000 feet. How many are there?
46
92
Consider placing companies ______ to _____ mile(s) away on both sides of the Alameda incident to act as scouts to warn IC of oncoming trains.
1 1/2 to 2
93
Alameda Corridor # symbol indicates what?
Emergency Ladder number
94
Trains can take over how long to stop?
1 mile
95
Alameda Corridor access ladders are identified how?
2 green botz dots
96
______ million containers are shipped annually from Long Beach and San Pedro ports.
25
97
The average speed of trains in Alameda Corridor is?
40 mph
98
How are the issues keys engraved for Alameda Corridor?
ACTA
99
Dry standpipe connections located every how many feet in Alameda Corridor?
500–the sign will also have mile marker and cross street
100
Paramedic Disaster Cache Boxes contain ____ Mark 1s and ____ Amyl Nitrite
30 and 36
101
Amyl Nitrite is used to treat ______ exposure.
Cyanide Compounds
102
How is the metro rail red line left tunnel designated?
Alignment left
103
A metro rail red line train can hold up to how many passengers in a “crush load”?
220
104
The metro rail red line maximum speed is how many mph?
70
105
Metro rail red line cross passengers are usually staggered every ____ feet throughout the tunnel.
750
106
Radio comms inside the metro rail is in what mode?
Repeat
107
The metro rail red line has how many stations?
16
108
The incoming power that supplies the metro rail red line is?
34,500 v
109
The red line emergency trio stations are indicated by what?
Blue light
110
Metro rail red line stations are over how many feet?
450
111
Metro rail red train stations are designed to accommodate how many cars?
6
112
The metro rail red line sprinkler deluge system is found where?
Train station area
113
The metro rail ventilation system uses 200 hp fans that deliver how many cfm?
150,000
114
Each metro rail red line car has two extinguishers rated at what?
10A60BC
115
The Metro Rail EMP is found at what level?
Mezzanine
116
How many feet are metro rail red line trains?
75
117
The metro rail red line first opened when?
1993
118
The metro rail red line ancillary area used for what purpose?
Non public
119
A metro rail red line has a fleet of how many cars?
104
120
The metro rail EMP Mezzanine is usually located ____below ground.
First
121
The metro rail red line doors can be opened by pulling downward on the red ball which is located above the set of doors. Wait _____ seconds for separation.
5
122
The Conterra airway bag is fluid proof and divided into how many sections?
3
123
Which is the only approved cleaning method for airway bag?
10% bleach and mild detergent
124
The tranzport hood comes in how many sizes?
1
125
If tranzport good is applied who must be notified?
Law enforcement and EMS captain
126
What are contraindications for Tranzaport Hood?
Vomiting, compromised airway, dyspneic, nose bleed
127
On the Tranzport Hood, the upper elastic band goes above what?
The nose
128
```
All of the following are types of Radio Frequency Radiation Hazards except?
A) nuclear
B) RF
C) TOT
D) solar
```
C) TOT
129
RF radiation can be harmful in ____dose intervals.
High
130
When operating handie talkies, antenna tips should be at least how far from the eye?
6 inches
131
Cellular antenna poses little exposure to members because they are usually elevated approx how many feet above ground?
60
132
The most common place for radar antennas are where?
Airport and military sites
133
Over exposure to RF energy in rare cases can do what to you?
Cook you
134
When exposed to RF energy, only become exposed as long as it takes to walk by and walk by as _____ as possible
Far
135
There are how many types of dangerous antennas?
6
136
There are how many types of Radar antennas?
2 (type 1 and 2)
137
Satellite dishes are fairly safe because?
Are elevated and send their signal at a high angle.
138
For safety, members operating mobile radios or MDCs should ensure that the _____ is clear before transmitting or updating MDC.
Roof
139
How many different size eval-u splints does lafd use?
3
140
CMS should be assessed prior to evac-u splint application and reassessed every how many minutes?
15
141
When cleaning the Evac-u splint clean with what?
1% bleach solution (only 1% in our library for cleaning)
142
One of the advantages of using the evac-u splint is that it reduces __________ syndrome.
Compartment
143
Cleaning is the best visual and _______ inspection.
Tactile
144
Company Commanders should monitor apparatus cleaning operations. Who should provide CAV time?
BC and Company Commander
145
What document shall be completed every time after cleaning and inspecting the undercarriage? Also applies to pump test.
F-978A, 978B
146
The “C” in COLA stands for what?
Cut in
147
If an apparatus requires transmission fluid, who shall add?
Shops
148
Where will you find the clarifier location in TB 127?
Part 6
149
When lubing with power equipment, max pressure on air compressor is?
60 psi
150
What type of engine oil does lafd use?
15-40w
151
Black pearl lube shall be used for what?
Suspension
152
Which document shall be completed after cleaning but BEFORE inspecting undercarriage?
F-978A
153
Most LAFD apparatus air pressure cut in at what psi?
100
154
What book shall the F-979 be retained in?
Book 55
155
When using MTA yard what is the max mph when driving?
8 mph
156
What psi shall air brake pressure warning activate at?
55 to 75
157
When conducting air leakage rate test, apply steady brake pressure for how long?
1 minute
158
Under how many conditions shall aportes be delivered to S and M?
5 (scheduled repair, non scheduled repair, pump or ladder test, body shop repair, undercarriage/oil change)
159
Body armor purchase in 2005 shall be stored how?
Rolled and in carrying case
160
When should you replace firefighting hood?
Even if small hole in one layer
161
What should you never spray with pressure washer when cleaning?
Rubber boots
162
Apparatus inspection is divided into how many sections?
4 (quiz drivers, thank drivers for work, inspect, paperwork)
163
The Ferno stair chair has two quick release restraints to hold patient. How long are they?
7 feet each
164
The Ferno Stair Chair has a maximum load capacity of how many pounds?
350
