Assessment Exam 2 Flashcards by Ssherwyn Lavarias

Crossmatch results at the antiglobulin phase were negative. When 1 drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The
most likely explanation is that the:
a. Red cells were overwashed
b. Centrifuge speed was set
too high
c. Residual patient serum
inactivated the AHG reagent
d. Laboratorian did not add
enough check cells

c. Residual patient serum
inactivated the AHG reagent

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At the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing, there is no agglutination between patient serum and screening cells. One of 3 donor units was incompatible. The most probable explanation for these findings is that the:

a. Patient has an antibody
directed against a high
incidence antigen
b. Patient has an antibody
directed against a low
incidence antigen
c. Donor has an antibody
directed against donor cells
d. Donor has a positive antibody
screen

b. Patient has an antibody
directed against a low
incidence antigen

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Which of the following would most likely be responsible for an incompatible antiglobulin crossmatch?
a. Recipient’s red cell possess
a low frequency antigen
b. Anti-K antibody in donor
serum
c. Recipient’s red cells are
polyagglutinable
d. Donor red cells have a
positive direct antiglobulin test

d. Donor red cells have a
positive direct antiglobulin test

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A blood speciment types as A, Rh-positive with a negative antibody screen, 6 units of group A, Rh-positive Red Blood Cells were
crossmatched and 1 unit was incompatible in the antiglobulin phase. The same result was obtained when the test was repeated.
Which should be done first?
a. Repeat the ABO grouping
on the incompatible unit using
a more sensitive technique
b. Test a panel of red cells
that possesses low-incidence
antigens
c. Perform a direct
antiglobulin test on the donor
unit
d. Obtain a new specimen and
repeat the crossmatch

c. Perform a direct
antiglobulin test on the donor
unit

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A 29-year-old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-negative, 6 units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types
abailable in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch?
a. AB, Rh-positive
b. A, Rh-negative
c. A, Rh-positive
d. O, Rh-negative

b. A, Rh-negative

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A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?
a. A false-positive result due
to antigen excess
b. A false-positive result due
to the prozone phenomenon
c. A false-negative result due
to the prozone phenomenon
d. A false-negative result due
to antigen excess

d. A false-negative result due
to antigen excess

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A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time.
It would be most helpful to:
a. Phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
b. Recommend the use of directed donors, which are more likely to be compatible
c. Use proteolytic enzymes to destroy the “in vitro” activity of some of the antibodies
d. Freeze the patient’s serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units

a. Phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced

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An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of ten crossmatched donor units is most likely:
a. Anti-Lea
b. anti-s
c. anti-k
d. anti-E

a. Anti-Lea

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Which characteristics are true of all 3 of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, andti-Jka, and anti-K?
d. anti-E
a. Detected at IAT phase and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) and transfusion reactions
b. Not detected with enzyme treated cells; may cause delayed transfusion reactions
c. Requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not responsible for causing HDFN.
d. May show dosage effect; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions

a. Detected at IAT phase and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) and transfusion reactions

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Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient’s red blood cells in vivo?
a. Direct antiglobulin
b. Indirect antiglobulin
c. Complement fixation
d. Immunofluorescence

a. Direct antiglobulin

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In the direct (DAT) and indirect (IAT) antiglobulin tests, false-negative reactions may result if the:
a. Patient’s blood specimen was contaminated with bacteria
b. Patient’s blood specimen was collected into tubes containing silicon gel
c. Saline used for washing the serum/cell mixture has been stored in glass or metal containers
d. Addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture

d. Addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture

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In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to:
a. Mediate hemolysis of indicator red blood cells by providing complement
b. Precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies
c. Measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement
d. Detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes

d. Detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes

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A 56 year-old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). When the DAT is repeated using
monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. C3d
d. C4a

c. C3d

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Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:
a. Causing rapid decay of complement components
b. Chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6
c. Chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
d. Preventing chemotaxis

c. Chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1

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Serological results on an untransfused patient were:

Antibody screen: negative at AHG
Direct antiglobulin test: 3+ with anti-C3d
Eluate: negative

These results are most likely due to:
a. Warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia
b. Cold agglutinin syndrome
c. Paraoxysmal cold
hemoglobinura
d. Drug induced hemolytic
anemia

b. Cold agglutinin syndrome

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The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
a. Anti-A1
b. Anti-A2
c. subgroups of A
d. Subgroups of B

c. subgroups of A

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Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells
with proteolytic enzymes?
a. Fya
b. E
c. S
d. M

b. E

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Of the following, the most useful technique(s) in the identification and classification of high-titer, low-avidity (HTLA) antibodies
is/are:
a. Reagent red cell panels
b. Adsorption and elution
c. Titration and inhibition
d. Cold autoadsorption

c. Titration and inhibition

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What happens to an antibody in neutralization study when a soluble antigen is added to the test?
a. Inhibition
b. Dilution
c. Complement fixation
d. Hemolysis

a. Inhibition

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An antibody screen performed using solid phase technology revealed a diffuse layer of red blood cells on the bottom of the well.
These results indicate:
a. A positive reaction
b. A negative reaction
c. Serum was not added
d. Red cells have a positive
direct antiglobulin test

a. A positive reaction

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Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?
a. RBCs typing as weak D+
b. Presence of red cell
autoantibody
c. Decreased serum bilirubin
d. Agglutination with normal
adult ABO compatible sera

d. Agglutination with normal
adult ABO compatible sera

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A patient’s serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka, and anti-Fya and
possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(ies)?
a. Enzyme panel; select cell panel
b. Thiol reagents
c. Lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time
d. Using albumin as an enhancement media in combination with selective adsorption

a. Enzyme panel; select cell panel

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One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:
a. 10% sucrose
b. LISS
c. Change in pH
d. Distilled water

c. Change in pH

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For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?
a. Renal dialysis patients
b. Sickle cell patient
c. Bone marrow and
hematopoietic cell transplant
recipients
d. CMV-seropositive patients

c. Bone marrow and
hematopoietic cell transplant
recipients

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A 10-year-old girl was hospitalized because her urine had a distinct red color. The patient had recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection and appeared very pale and lethargic. Tests were performed with the following results: Hemoglobin: 5 g/dL (50 g/L) Reticulocyte count: 15% DAT: weak reactivity with poly-specific and anti-C3d; anti-IgG was negative Antibody screen: negative Donath-Landsteiner test: positive; P-cells showed no hemolysis The patient probably has: a. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) c. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. Hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test (HEMPAS)

a. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)

The serum of a group O, Cde/Cde donor contains anti-D. In order to prepare a suitable anti-D reagent from this donor’s serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption? a. Group O, cde/cde cells b. Group O, Cde/cde cells c. group A2B, Cde/cde cells d. group A1B, cde/cde cells

d. group A1B, cde/cde cells

A patient’s serum was reactive 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel including their own. Transfusion was performed 6 months previously. The optimal adsorption method to remove the autoantibody is: a. Autoadsorption using the patient’s ZZAP-treated red cells b. Autoadsorption using the patient’s LISS-treated red cells c. Adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a normal donor d. Adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells

a. Autoadsorption using the patient’s ZZAP-treated red cells

The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as: a. Diffusion b. Adsorption c. Neutralization IMMUNOSEROBB QUESTIONNAIRE d. Elution

d. Elution

After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked “May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only.” Which of the following should be placed on this shelf? a. 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups b. Units of group O, Rh positive Whole Blood c. Units of group O, Rh negative Red Blood Cells d. Any units that are expiring at midnight

c. Units of group O, Rh negative Red Blood Cells

A 42-year-old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cenns are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL (70 g/L), the expected posttransfusion hemoglobin concentration should be: a. 8.0 g.dL (80 g/L) b. 9.0 g/dL (90 g/dL) c. 10.0 g/dL (100 g/L) d. 11.0 g/dL (110 g/L)

b. 9.0 g/dL (90 g/dL)

Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for: a. Recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. Acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura d. Severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets

d. Severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets

Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen plasma? a. Only blood group-specific plasma may be administered b. Group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups c. Group AB may be administered to AB recipients only d. Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients

d. Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients

What increment of platelets/L (platelets/L), in the typical 70-kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA-sensitized recipient? a. 3,000 – 5,000 b. 5,000 – 10,000 c. 20,000 – 25,000 d. 25,000 – 30,000

b. 5,000 – 10,000

Washed Red Blood Cells would be the product of choice for a patient with: a. Multiple red cell alloantibodies b. An increased risk of hepatitis infection c. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemic d. Anti-IgA antibodies

d. Anti-IgA antibodies

Fresh Frozen Plasma from a group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group: a. A, Rh-negative b. B, Rh-negative c. AB, Rh-positive d. AB, Rh-negative

a. A, Rh-negative

Fresh Frozen Plasma: a. Contains all labile coagulative factors except cryoprecipitated AHF b. Has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than does Whole Blood c. Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing d. Need not be ABO-compatible

c. Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing

Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? a. Allergic b. Circulatory overload c. Hemolytic d. Anaphylactic

c. Hemolytic

A poor increment in the platelet count 1 hour following platelet transfusion is most commonly caused by: a. Splenomegaly b. Alloimmunization to HLA antigens c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation d. Defective platelets

b. Alloimmunization to HLA antigens

An unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with Red Blood Cells 1 week previously would most likely indicate: a. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria b. Posttransfusion hepatitis infection c. Presence of HLA antibodies d. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

d. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems? a. ABO b. Rh c. MN d. Duffy

a. ABO

Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? a. Lewis b. Kidd c. MNS d. I

b. Kidd

A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develop: a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Leukocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia

d. Thrombocytopenia

The most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute posttransfusion hemolysis is: a. A visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin b. Plasma haptoglobin concentration c. Examination for hematuria d. Serum bilirubin concentration

a. A visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin

Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure? a. Bacterial contamination b. Circulatory overload c. Febrile d. Anaphylactic

a. Bacterial contamination

When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a bilirubin determination? a. 6 hours posttransfusion b. 12 hours posttransfusion c. 24 hours posttransfusion d. 48 hours posttransfusion

a. 6 hours posttransfusion

A posttransfusion blood sample from a patient experiencing chills and fever shows distinct hemolysis. The direct antiglobulin test is positive (mixed field). What would be most helpful to determine the cause of the reaction? a. Auto control b. Elution and antibody identification c. Repeat antibody screen on the donor unit d. Bacteriologic smear and culture

b. Elution and antibody identification

In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, the direct antiglobulin test is typically: a. Negative b. Mixed-field positive c. Positive due to complement d. Negative when the antibody screen is negative

b. Mixed-field positive

For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to: a. Prevent alloimmunization b. Diminish chills and fever c. Prevent hemoglobinemia d. Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage

d. Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage

The use of Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells and Platelets is indicated for which of the following patient groups? a. CMV-seropositive postpartum mothers b. Victims of acute trauma with massive bleeding c. Patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions d. Burn victims with anemia and low serum protein

c. Patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions

Which test is most likely to be positive in the tertiary stage of syphilis? a. FTA-ABS b. RPR c. VDRL d. Wasserman complement fixation

a. FTA-ABS

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent syphilis? a. Serum sample b. Chancre fluid c. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d. Joint fluid

c. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patient with: a. Leukocyte antibodies b. Erythrocyte antibodies c. IgA deficiency d. Factor VIII deficiency

c. IgA deficiency

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? a. Antibodies are undetectable b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre c. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

b. Detected 1-3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

What type of antigen is used in the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) card test? a. Live treponemal organisms b. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms d. Burn victims with anemia and low serum protein d. Wasserman complement fixation d. Joint fluid d. Factor VIII deficiency d. Detected within 2 weeks after infection c. Cardiolipin d. Tanned sheep cells

c. Cardiolipin

A biological false-positive reaction is least likely with which test for syphilis? a. VDRL b. Fluorescent T. pallidum antibody absorption test (FTA ABS) c. RPR d. All are equally likely to detect a false positive

b. Fluorescent T. pallidum antibody absorption test (FTA ABS)

Tests to identify infection with HIV fall into which three general types? a. Tissue culture, antigen and antibody tests b. Tests for antigens, antibodies, and genes c. DNA probe, DNA amplification, and Western blot tests d. ELISA, Western blot, and Southern blot

b. Tests for antigens, antibodies, and genes

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV? a. ELISA and rapid antibody tests c. DNA probe, DNA amplification, and Western blot tests b. IFA, Western blot, and RIPA c. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction d. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

b. IFA, Western blot, and RIPA

A woman who has had five pregnancies tests positive for HIV by Western blot. What is the most likely reason for this result? a. Possible cross reaction with herpes virus or Epstein-Barr virus antibodies b. Interference from medication c. Cross reaction with HLA antigens in the Western blot d. Possible technical error

c. Cross reaction with HLA antigens in the Western blot

Interpret the following results for HIV infection. ELISA: positive; Western blot: indeterminate; RIPA: negative. a. Positive for HIV b. Negative for HIV c. Cross reaction; biological false positive d. Impossible to determine

c. Cross reaction; biological

Which cell is primarily infected by HIV? a. T suppressor b. B cell c. NK cell d. T helper

d. T helper

Which T helper to T-suppressor ratio (Th:Ts) is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 2:3 d. 1:2

d. 1:2

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers? a. ELISA b. Western blot c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) d. Viral culture

c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

What constitutes a diagnosis of viral hepatitis? a. Abnormal test results for liver enzymes IMMUNOSEROBB QUESTIONNAIRE b. Clinical signs and symptoms c. Positive results for hepatitis markers d. All of the above

d. All of the above

All of the following viruses are spread through blood or blood products EXCEPT: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

a. Hepatitis A

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV? a. Anti-HBs b. Anti-HBc c. Anti-HBe d. All are detectable at the same time

b. Anti-HBc

What is the most likely explanation when a patient has clinical signs of viral hepatitis but tests negative for hepatitis markers? a. Tests were performed improperly b. The patient does not have hepatitis c. The patient may be in the “core window” d. Clinical evaluation was performed improperly

c. The patient may be in the “core window

Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against reinfection with HBV? a. Anti-HBc IgM b. Anti-HBc IgG c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HBs

d. Anti-HBs

If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out? a. HBV vaccination b. Distant past infection with HBV c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) injection d. Chronic HBV infection

d. Chronic HBV infection

Which statement concerning non-Forssman antibody is true? a. Is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen b. Is absorbed by guinea pig antigen c. Does not agglutinate horse RBCs d. Does not agglutinate sheep RBCs

a. Is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen

Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns? a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) b. Human T-lymphotropic virus II (HTLV-II) c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. Hepatitis D virus

c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Which control shows the correct result for a valid ASO test? a. SLO control, no hemolysis b. Red cell control, no hemolysis c. Positive control, hemolysis in all tubes d. Hemolysis in both SLO and red cell control

b. Red cell control, no hemolysis

All of the following are tests for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT: a. Enzyme immunoassay b. Anti-hyaluronidase enzyme inhibition c. NADPH oxidase d. DNAse-B

c. NADPH oxidase

How can interfering cold agglutinins be removed from a test sample? a. Centrifuge serum and remove the top layer b. Incubate clot at 1-4C for several hours then remove serum c. Incubate serum at 56C in a water bath for 30 minutes d. Use an anticoagulated sample

b. Incubate clot at 1-4C for several hours then remove serum

All positive cold agglutinin tubes remain positive after 37C incubation except the positive control. What is the most likely explanation for this situation? a. High-titer cold agglutinins b. Contamination of the test system c. Antibody other than cold agglutinins d. Faulty water bath

c. Antibody other than cold agglutinins

What is the principle of the Weil-Felix test for Rickettsia? a. Proteus vulgaris shares common antigens with Rickettsia b. Shigella shares common antigens with Rickettsia c. E. coli has O and H antigens similar to Rickettsia d. Salmonella S-R variations are similar to Rickettsia

a. Proteus vulgaris shares common antigens with Rickettsia

Which disease may give a false-positive result for a patient with Lyme disease? a. AIDS b. Syphilis c. Cold agglutinins d. Hepatitis C

b. Syphilis

From the following, identify a component of the nonspecific adaptive immune system. a. Lysozyme b. Complement c. Commensal organisms d. Immunoglobulin

b. Complement

Which markers are found on mature, peripheral T helper cells? a. CD1, CD2, CD4 b. CD2, CD3, CD8 c. CD1, CD3, CD4 d. CD2, CD3, CD4

d. CD2, CD3, CD4

Which cells produce immunoglobulins? a. T lymphocytes b. Natural killer (NK) cells c. Plasma cells d. Macrophages

c. Plasma cells

Which of the following macrophage products activates lymphocytes? a. Interleukin I (IL-1) b. Interferon alpha (IFN-) c. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) d. Plasminogen

a. Interleukin I (IL-1)

How are cytotoxic T cells (Tc cells) and NK cells similar? a. Require antibody to be present b. Effective against virally infected cells c. Recognize antigen in association with GLA Class II markers d. Do not bind to infected cells

b. Effective against virally infected cells

Which complement component is found in both classical and alternative pathways? a. C1 b. C4 c. Factor D d. C3

d. C3

Which complement component forms the recognition unit of the classical complement pathway? a. C4 b. C2 c. C1 d. C3

c. C1

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? a. Fab b. Fc c. CL d. CH

a. Fab

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has/have a J chain? a. IgM b. IgE and IgD c. IgM and sIgA d. IgG3 and IgA

c. IgM and sIgA

What type of reactions can be assessed by measuring IgE levels? a. Inflammation and phagocytosis b. Immunoprophylaxis and autoimmune response c. T-cell-mediated reactions and tumor responses d. Type I immediate Hypersensitivity and response to parasites

d. Type I immediate Hypersensitivity and response to parasites

Which test measures IgE levels against a specific allergen? a. Histamine release assay b. RIST c. RAST d. Precipitin radioimmunosorbent test (PRIST)

c. RAST

Which test measures antibody which has coated RBCs in vivo? a. Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) b. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) c. ELISA d. Hemagglutination

b. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

All of the following conditions are examples of Type II Cytotoxic reactions EXCEPT: a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) b. Transfusion reaction c. Contact dermatitis d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

How are most autoimmune disease such as SLE classified? a. Type I Immediate Hypersensitivity b. Type II Cytotoxic reactions c. Type III Immune Complex d. Type IV Delayed or Cell Mediated

c. Type III Immune Complex

What immune elements are involved in a reaction to poison ivy? a. IgE antibodies b. T cells and macrophages c. NK cells and IgG antibody d. B cells and IgM antibody

b. T cells and macrophages

Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE

a. IgG

Which immunoglobulin cross-links mast cells to release histamine? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE

d. IgE

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system? a. Result will be falsely c. Result will be unaffected decreased b. Result will be falsely increased d. Impossible to determine

b. Result will be falsely increased

Which of the following antigens is classified as a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class II antigen? a. HLA-A b. HLA-B c. HLA-C d. HLA-DR

d. HLA-DR

Which of the following are products of HLA Class III genes? a. T cell immune receptors b. HLA-D antigens on immune cells c. Complement proteins C2, C4, and factor B d. Immunoglobulin VL regions

c. Complement proteins C2, C4, and factor B

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera? a. Center well b. Outer wells c. Gel d. Antisera may be added to any well

c. Gel

What is the most likely cause of a double precipitin ring in a RID test? a. Presence of too much antibody b. Presence of too much antigen c. Defective gel d. Presence of two antibodies

d. Presence of two antibodies

Which gel method employs movement of both antigen and antibody? a. RID b. Immunofixation c. Ouchterlony technique d. Electroimmunodiffusion

c. Ouchterlony technique

Which of the following methods has the highest analytical sensitivity? a. Immunofluorescence (IF) b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) d. Agglutination inhibition

b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

Assessment Exam 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)