Assessment & Management of Minor Conditions Flashcards by Rob Flint

Uncomplicated Sciatica typically resolves itself within

4-6 weeks

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Ankylosing Spondylitis is an

Inflammatory Condition

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How would you manage muscular sprain or strain of the back?

-Encourage gentle mobilisation
-OTC analgesia
-Provide Red Flag advice
- Refer Pt to own GP

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What are the three categories of excluding factors you need to assess in back pain?

-Described or observed Red Flags
-Medical Cause of back pain
-Neurological cause of back pain

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The sciatica stretch test- the sciatic nerve is tensed and stretched when the leg is raised passed _________ while the opposite leg remains flat on the floor

35°

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What percentage of Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs in patients without an existing cancer diagnosis?

20%

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What is MSCC

Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression

Metastatic tumours in the spine apply pressure to the spinal cord

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What are the names of the Carpal bones

Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrium
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate

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How many carpal bones are their in each hand?

Eight (8)

(Sixteen (16) in total)

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What is the mnemonic that can be used to remember the carpal bones of the wrist

Some - scaphoid
Lovers - Lunate
Try -Triquerium
Positions - Pisiform
That- Trapezium
They - Trapezoid
Cant -Capitate
Handle - Hamate

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Which bones make up the Knee joint

Femur
Tibia
Fibula
Patella

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What are the special tests used to test for injury to the knee joint?

-Varus test
-Valgus test
-Anterior Draw test
-Lateral Collateral stress test

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According to the Ottowa Knee criteria, how many steps should a Patient be able to mobilise to score negatively for ?#

Four (4)

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True or False

The Knee is the largest joint in the Human body

True

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The medial collateral ligament attaches the Femur to the __________

Tibia

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The Medial Collateral ligament connects the Tibia to the __________

Femur

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Where should you assess sensation to ensure a knee is neurovasculary intact?

Foot

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What type of joint is the knee?

a) Ball and socket

b) synovial hinge

c) Pivot

d) Saddle

B) Synovial Hinge

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What does “Equinas Gait” indicate in a knee exam?

Walking on the ball of the foot only to avoid pain

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True or False?

The use of the McMurrays test is when assessing an acute knee injury

False

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The McMurrays test is assessing for injury to the ___________.

Meniscus

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Which Ligament prevents the tibia sliding too far forwards relative to the femur?

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

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Which of the areas of the knee are associated with the Ottawa knee rules ?

a) Fibula Head

b) Distal Femur

c) Tibia

d) Ulna

e) Patella

f) Coccyx

A) Fibula Head and E) Patella (isolated patella tenderness)

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The lateral collateral ligament connects the femur to the __________

Fibula

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Which of these bones are NOT carpal bones? a) Hamate b) Scaphoid c) Hammer d) Capitate e) Triquetrum f) zygoma g) Trapezoid

c) Hammer (inner ear) f) Zygoma (facial cheek bones)

Which carpal bone has a crescent moon shape?

Lunate

Which long bone primarily forms the wrist joint by articulating with the carpal bones?

Radius

Which metacarpal joint is the most mobile in the hand?

The Thumb

On which aspect of the hand are the tendons more superficial? a) Dorsal b) Palmer

a) Dorsal

The capal bones are ________ to the phalanges?

Proximal

How many nerves suppy the hand and wrist? What are the called?

Three (3) nerves. Called the Radial nerve, Median nerve and Ulnar nerve.

How many bones are there in the wrist?

Eight (8) Carpal bones Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate

Which two bones articulate with the distal head of the radius to form the wrist joint?

Scaphoid and Lunate

What are the main bones of the ankle joint?

Tibia, Fibula and Talus

Which of the following are special tests for the foot? a) Valgus test b) Anterior Drawer Test c) Lateral Drawer Test d) Lateral Collateral Stress Test e) Talar Tilt Test f) football test g) Simmonds Thompson Test h) Sydesmosis test (squeeze test)

b) Anterior Drawer Test e) Talar Tilt Test (ankle ligament rupture) g) Simmonds Thompson Test (achilles tendon rupture) h) Sydesmosis Test (Sqeeze test) (Tibiofibular ligament rupture)

Patients must be able to mobilise in _____ steps in the ED according to the Ottawa ankle rule.

Four (4) steps on both feet (Pts unable to mobilise this distance are positive, other patients require further assessment of the 4 Ottawa sites for boney tenderness- tip of medial malleolus + 6cm superior, Navicular, proximal end of 5th metatarsal, tip of lateral malleolus + 6cm superior )

Excluding sesamoid bones m, how many bones are there in just the foot?

Twenty- Six (26) Calcaneus Talus Navicular 1st Cuneiform 2nd Cuneiform 3rd cuneiform Cuboid 1st-5th metatarsal 1st -5th proximal phalanges 2nd-5th medial phalanges 1-5th Distal phalanges

Which of the following are Ottawa related boney areas of the foot? a) Cuboid b) Navicular c) Phalanges d) base of 5th Metatarsal e) Talus f) Tibia

b) Navicular d) Base of 5th Metatarsal

Where must you asses a pulse to ensure a foot is neurovascularly intact?

Dorsal Pedalis and Posterior Tibial pulses

What is the purpose of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?

To connect the Tibia and Fibular bones providing strength and stability.

Which ligament complex stabalises the medial side of the ankle?

The deltoid ligaments

How many bones make up just the ankle?

Three (3)

What type of joint is the ankle joint?

Hinge type Synovial joint

Why does the medial side of the ankle have greater stability than the lateral side of the ankle?

Because the medial side is supported by the deltoid ligament structure.

Which of the following is a movement that the ankle joint is able to perform? a) Supination b) Circumflexion c) Medial Rotation d) Inversion e) Eversion f) Pronation g) Extension

c) Medial Rotation d) Inversion e) Eversion g) Extension

The use of the Simmonds Thompson test is to check the patency of which tendon?

Achilles

What are the Ottata related boney areas of the Ankle?

Distal tip of Medial malleolus + 6cm superior Distal tip of Lateral malleolus + 6cm superior

How is the Pisiform described?

Pea-shaped sesamoid bone

Which nerves run through the shoulder, passing beneath the clavicle?

Raial, Medial, Ulnar and Axillary

What are the special tests for injuries of the shoulder?

Scarf Test Empty Can Test Painful Arc Test Gerbers lift off Test

Which bones make up the shoulder Joint?

Humerus Scapula Acromium process Clavicle Glenoid

Where should you assess pulses to ensure the shoulder has remained vascularly intact?

Bracial, Radial and Ulnar pulses.

What are the names of the boney areas of the Elbow?

Lateral epicondyle Medial epicondyle Olecranon Proximal Radial head

Where should nuro assessment take place to assess for damage to nerves that may have been caused by an injury of the shoulder?

Regimental Badge sign Assess the hand for - Radial -Ulnar -Medial Finger tips

What is considered the main joint of the shoulder?

The Glenohumeral joint

What are the movements of the shoulder?

-Flexion -Internal Rotation -Adduction -Extention -Rotation

Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis elbow) afftects the _________tendon? (Thumbs towards the body. Olecranon= Lateral aspect)

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

What are the two types of common conditions effecting the elbow?

Golfers (Medial Epicondylitis) Tennis (Lateral Epicondylitis)

Medial Epicondylitis (golfers elbow) effects the ___________ tendon (Thumbs towards body, ACF= Medial aspect)

Common Flexor Tendon

What muscle does a positive Gerbers test indicates injury to?

Sub Scapularis

Where would you suspect an injury if a patient presents with a positive Scarf test?

Acromioclavicular Joint (ACJ)

What injury would you suspect in a patient who presents with a positive painful arc test?

ACJ impingement

What muscle does a positive empty can test indicate injury to?

Supraspinatus

What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff?

Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Sub scapularis Teres minor

If pain is greater during passive movement the injury is most likely to be to the?

Bones

If pain is greater during active movement the injury is most likely affecting the?

Soft tissues

Positive Anterior Drawer test indicates injury to the

Posterior Cruciate ligament

What is the name of the groove in which the head of fever articulates?

The Acetabulum

How would a Pubic Rami fracture be managed?

Pain relief.

What type of joint is the Hip?

A ball and socket synovial joint

How many muscles control the movement of the eye?

Six (6) Superior Rectus Lateral Rectus Medial Rectus Superior Oblique Inferior Oblique Levator Palebrae Superious

What are the names of the 6 muscles involved in the movement of the eyeball?

Superior rectus Medial rectus Lateral rectus Superior oblique Inferior oblique Levator palpabrae superious

What is the name of the thick fibrous membrane that covers the outside if the eyeball (The white of the eye)

Sclera

What are the names of the three small bones of the inner ear?

Malleous, Incus, Stapes

What is the name of the clear dome shaped structure at the front of the eye that bends light?

Cornea

What is the primary function of the vitreous humour in the eye?

Retain the shape of the eyeball

What is the primary cause of red eye in photography?

Light reflecting off the retina

What is the main symptom of Blepharitis?

Itchy and irritated eyelids with dandruff like scales.

What is the primary cause of Keratitis?

Bacterial, viral or fungal infections

What symptoms are characteristic of iritis?

Ciliary flush and irregular pupil shape

What action should be taken for someone experiencing floaters?

Assume retinal detachment until proven otherwise

Temporal arteritis is more likely to affect which demographic?

Older women

What is the reccomended management for a tympanic membrane perforation caused by trauma?

Avoid water exposure and refer to ENT

What is the appropriate management for auricular hematoma?

Immediate ENT referral for drainage

What is the best initial step for management of an insect in the ear canal?

Olive oil application

How many Cuneiform bones are there in each foot?

Three (3) (Six (6) in total)

What bones articulate with the Cuboid bone?

The Calcaneus posteriorly, The lateral Cuneiform bone medially and the fourth (4th) and Fifth (5th) metatarsals anteriorly.

Where is the cuboid bone found?

In the foot.

Where are the Cuneiform bones found?

In the foot.

What muscle is the Gerbers lift off test used to assess for injury?

The subscapularis muscle, one of the rotator cuff muscles

Assessment & Management of Minor Conditions Flashcards

(93 cards)