Asthma Flashcards
(33 cards)
Features?
when is cough worse?
when is peak flow worst?
Characterized by recurrent episodes of dyspnoea, cough, and wheeze caused by reversible airways obstruction.
Intermittent dyspnoea Wheeze Cough (worse at night) Chest tightness Diurnal variation – peak flow worse in morning.
Risk Factors
FHx of Atopy - what is it?
- what Ig are these mediated by?
triad of asthma, eczema (atopic dermatitis) and hay fever (allergic rhinitis).
Patients with asthma usually suffer from these other IgE mediated atopic conditions.
: if peak flow is normal on weekends – may be ?
occupational asthma (occurs in 10-15% of adult asthma).
Precipitants
what drugs are contraindicated in asthma ?
Cold air, Exercise
Emotion
Allergens (house dust mite, pollen, fur)
NSAIDs, B-blockers (especially B blocker)
what measurements determine a patients estimated PEFR and estimated FEV1?
how do you measure PEFR?
how do you measure FEV1?
age + sex + height
PEFR = peak flow FEV1 = spirometry
ASTHMA DIAGNOSIS
- all patients aged >17?
- patients aged <5?
All patients aged >17 yrs of age:
should have spirometry* with a bronchodilator reversibility test (BDR) and a FeNO test.
*Do peak expiratory flow if spirometry is unavailable
Patients <5yrs:
Spirometry + BDR test. A FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry
FeNO test
Nitric oxide levels typically correspond to inflammation levels
therefore what is a positive result in children and adults?
- In adults: >40ppb is considered +ve.
- In children: >35 ppb is considered +ve.
BDR Testing: (uses spirometry and bronchodilator)
+ve test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of?
and an increase in volume of?
+ve test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 15% or more and increase in volume of 200ml or more.
Typical spirometry results include the following - what is the result in asthmatics?
FEV1
FVC
FEV1% (FEV1/FVC)
- FEV1 significantly reduced
- FVC normal
- FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) <70% = obstructive.
what type of resp failure seen in acute severe asthma
Type 1 resp failure (hypoxaemic - low O2, PO2 <60mmHg )
A patient is admitted with breathlessness - do you do ABG or VBG?
ABG
tells you if Type 1 or Type 2 resp failure
otherwise VBG is fine for anyone that isn’t a resp or cardiac patient
Mx of Acute Attack
O S H I T M E
- Oxygen
- Salbutamol 5mg nebulized with O2
- Hydrocortisone 100mg IV (steroid – reduces inflam).
- Ipratropium – if PEF still <75%, repeat salbutamol every 15 mins with ipratropium.
- T (not used)
- Magnesium sulfate 1.2-2g IV single dose.
- Escalate (ICU) – if not improving
Patients with PEF of what within one hour of initial treatment may be discharged?
otherwise rest must be stable on discharge medication for how long ?
PEF >75%
24 hours
Should know severity of asthma:
- moderate: PEFR ?
- acute severe: RR? and inability to?
- life-threatening: chest action?
Should know severity
moderate:
- >50-75% PEFR
acute severe:
- inability to complete full sentences,
- RR >25
- PEFR 33-50%
life-threatening:
- silent chest or
- cyanosis or
- exhaustion
- PEFR <33%
what drug is contraindicated in asthmatics?
b -blockers
Mx of Asthma
Step 1 : what do you use? if using more than once daily - what do you move to?
Step 2: add what? increase dose from what to what as required?
Step 3: add what to help with nocturnal symptoms and morning dips?
Step 4: Add regular oral prednisolone and refer to specialist
Step 1: SABA (salbutamol) for symptom relief - if used more than once daily move to Step 2
Step 2: add inhaled steroid - reduce mucosal inflammation (beclometasone or fluticasone)
increase dose from 200-800mcg /day
Step 3: LABA - salmeterol whilst increasing steroid dose to 1000mcg/day
Step 4: o Add regular oral prednisolone and refer to specialist
may be used in selected patients with persistent allergic asthma. ?
Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody: Omalizumab
A 7-year-old boy is brought in to the GP surgery with an exacerbation of asthma. On examination he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze but there are no signs of respiratory distress. His respiratory rate is 24 / min and PEF around 60% of normal. What is the most appropriate action with regards to steroid therapy?
oral prednisolone for 3 days
admit for IV steroids
don’t give steroids
double his beclometasone dose
oral prednisolone for 3 days
Treatment for up to three days is usually sufficient, but the length of course should be tailored to the number of days necessary to bring about recovery.
Tapering of beclometasone dose is unnecessary unless the course of steroids exceeds 14 days.
A 22-year-old man diagnosed with asthma one year ago has since been using a salbutamol inhaler when required. He is otherwise well with no significant past medical history. He lives alone in a student accommodation. He does not smoke and drinks 2-3 cans of beer every week. His symptoms were well controlled but he has recently been using his inhaler more frequently, about five times per week. He also reported having night cough which disrupts his sleep. The GP decides to modify his treatment regimen to better manage the patient’s symptoms and improve his quality of life. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
add LABA
add daily steroid tablet
add low dose ICS
add leukotriene receptor antagonist
add low dose ICS
A 24-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial treatment there is no improvement. What is the next step in management?
IV aminophylline
IV magnesium sulphate
IV salbutamol
IV adrenaline
IV magnesium sulphate
A 28-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and feeling of wheeziness after exercising. Which one of the following would make a diagnosis of asthma more likely?
only gets symptoms after viral URTI
peripheral pins and needles during an episode
symptoms worsen after taking aspirin
cough productive of clear sputum
symptoms worsen after taking aspirin
A 23-year-old woman comes for review. Despite using beclometasone 200mcg bd she is regularly having to use her salbutamol inhaler. Her inhaler technique is good.
C. Increase inhaled steroid to 2000 mcg/day
D. Course of prednisolone for 5 days
E. Double inhaled steroids until symptoms resolve
F. Add inhaled long-acting B2 agonist
G. Trial of leukotriene receptor antagonist
Trial of leukotriene receptor antagonist
The 2017 NICE guidelines now advocate using a leukotriene receptor antagonist before trying a long-acting beta agonist.
SABA + ICS + LRTA
then
SABA + ICS + LABA
(carry on LRTA if patient is responding to it, if not - then take it out )
You review a 4-year-old boy in clinic. He has been diagnosed with asthma after having multiple wheezy episodes over the past 3 years. Around 4 months ago he was admitted with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed as having a viral exacerbation of asthma by the paediatric team. Prior to his discharge he was given a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd in addition to salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer.
His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly having to use his salbutamol inhaler. Clinical examination of his chest today is normal.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Add LABA
Add SAMA
Add LAMA
Add leukotriene receptor antagonist
Add leukotriene receptor antagonist
NEW 2017 GUIDELINES:
1
Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)
2
Not controlled on previous step
OR
Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking SABA + paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
3
SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
4
SABA + paediatric low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
In contrast to the adult guidance, NICE recommend stopping the LTRA at this point if it hasn’t helped
A 22-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department following an exacerbation of asthma. She currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler 2 puffs prn. Her symptoms settle quickly with a salbutamol nebuliser. You give the patient standard advice on inhaler technique and what to do if her symptoms return. What is the most appropriate further action to ensure that this current exacerbation settles?
Prescribe 7 day course of amoxicillin
Prescribe salmeterol inhaler
Prescribe beclometasone inhaler
prescribe prednisolone 40mg OD for 5 days + beclometasone inhaler 200mcg
prescribe prednisolone 40mg OD for 5 days + beclometasone inhaler 200mcg
The most appropriate initial treatment is a short course of oral prednisolone (the BNF/BTS recommend 40-50mg od) to settle her exacerbation.
it would also be appropriate to start an inhaled corticosteroid, particularly as she has presented with an exacerbation.