Asthma+COPD drugs Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Doses for montelukast

A

6 months - 5 years: 4mg OD evening
6-14: 5mg OD evening
15-17, adults: 10mg OD evening

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2
Q

Indications for montelukast

A
  • asthma prophylaxis
  • symptomatic relief of seasonal allergic rhinitis in pt with asthma
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3
Q

Safety info: montelukast

A
  • risk of neuropsychiatric reactions
  • e.g. speech impairment, obsessive compulsive symptoms
  • read list of neuropsychiatric reactions in PIL and seek immediate medical attention if they occur
  • evaluate benefits and risks of continuing treatment if they occur
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4
Q

Common SE montelukast

A
  • diarrhoea, GI discomfort
  • n/v
  • headache, fever
  • upper RTI
  • skin reactions
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5
Q

Churg-Strauss syndrome - montelukast

A
  • rare
  • inflammation within small blood vessels which results in blood flow restriction which can cause organ damage throughout body if untreated
  • in many of the reported cases, reaction followed reduction or withdrawal of oral CCs
  • alert: vasculitis rash, worsening pulmonary symptoms, cardiac complications, peripheral neuropathy
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6
Q

Montelukast in pregnancy and BF

A
  • avoid unless essential
  • however can be taken as normal in pregnant women who have shown a significant improvement in asthma not achievable with other drugs before becoming pregnant
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7
Q

Montelukast - how to administer granules

A
  • swallowed or mixed with cold, soft food (NOT LIQUID) and taken immediately
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8
Q

Common side effects of SABAs - salbutamol, terbatuline

A

arrhythmias
headache
palpitations
tremor
HYPOkalaemia (high doses, if taking other meds that also cause this e.g. CCs and theophylline)

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9
Q

True or false - patients with diabetes who use SABAs and LABAs (b2 adrenoceptor agonists) should have their BG levels monitored because there is a risk of HYPERglycaemia and ketoacidosis, esp when they are given IV

A

True
Use is cautioned in pt with DM because of this

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10
Q

True or false - susceptibility to QT interval prolongation is a caution for all b2 adrenoceptor agonists

A

True
Can cause hypokalaemia with high doses and if on other drugs that cause this e.g. CCs and theophylline

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11
Q

Signs of theophylline overdose

A
  • vomiting (can be severe and intractable)
  • agitation
  • restlessness
  • dilated pupils
  • sinus tachycardia
  • hyperglycaemia
  • more serious effects: haematemesis, convulsions, SV and V arrhythmias
  • severe hypokalaemia can develop rapidly
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12
Q

Theophylline and smoking -how does smoking affect levels and when are dose adjustments needed

A
  • smoking INCREASES clearance of theophylline so HIGHER doses needed
  • adjustments needed if smoking has started or stopped during treatment
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13
Q

A patient on theophylline has mentioned they have started smoking. What does this mean

A

Smoking INCREASES clearance so INCREASED dose is required

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14
Q

A patient on theophylline mentions that they have finally stopped smoking. What does this mean

A

Smoking INCREASES clearance so higher dose is needed. If smoking has STOPPED, this means the patient will need a DECREASED dose.

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15
Q

Where is theophylline metabolised?

A

Liver

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16
Q

plasma theophylline conc is increased in the following (4)

A

viral infection
HI
HF
elderly

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17
Q

plasma theophylline concentration is decreased in the following 2 scenarios

A

smokers
alcohol consumtpion

18
Q

theopheylline dose is every … hours

A

every 12 hours

19
Q

When to measure plasma-theophylline concentration after starting oral treatment & after dose adjustments

A

5 days after starting oral treatment
3 days after dose adjustment

20
Q

True or false: plasma-theophylline conc needs to be measured 5 days after starting oral treatment and after any dose increase

A

FALSE
5 days after starting oral treatment
3 days after dose adjustment

21
Q

What is the plasma-theophylline concentration required for satisfactory bronchodilation?

A

10-20mg/L (in most patients)
although lower conc of 5-15 mg/L may be effective in some

22
Q

True or false: adverse effects can occur within the rangr 10-20mg/L (even though this is the concentration required in most pt for effective bronchodilation) and both the freq and severity of adverse effects increases above 20mg/L

23
Q

How many HOURS after an oral dose of MR prep theophylline should blood sample be taken? (measure conc 5 days after starting oral treatment and at least 3 days after any dose adjustment)

A

take blood sample 4-6 hours after oral dose

remember: THEO = 4

24
Q

true or false - dispense theophylline by brand

A

true
the rate of absorption from MR Preps can vary between brands

25
true or false - plasma potassium conc should be monitored in severe asthma
true this is bc potenitally serious hypokalaemia can result from B2 agonist therapy particular caution required in severe asthma - effect can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophylline and its derivatives, CCs, diuretics and by hypoxia
26
signs of theophylline overdose
vomiting (may be severe and intractable) agitation restlessness dilated pupils sinus tachycardia hyperglycaemia more serious effects include haematemsis, convulsions, SV and venticular arrhtyhmias
27
theophylline poisoning - how to eliminate theophylline
repeated doses of activated charcoal can be used even if >1h after ingestion especially good if MR prep taken
28
theophylline poisoning - which anti emetic may be effective for severe vomiting that is resistant to other antiemetics?
ondansetron
29
theophylline poisoning - how would you correct hypokalaemia
IV infusion of potassium chloride may be so severe as to require 60mmol/h high doses need ECG monitoring
30
theophylline poisoning - how to control convulsions
IV lorazepam or diazepam
31
theophylline poisoning - how to manage agitation
sedation with diazepam may be necessary
32
true or false - if someone has theophylline poisoning and they DO NOT suffer from asthma, a SHORT ACTING BETA BLOCKER can be given IV to reverse severe tachycardia, hypokhalaemia and hyperglycaemia
true
33
true or false - theophylline can cause hyperglycaemia
true
34
Theophylline is predicted to cause HYPOkalaemia, potenitally increasing risk of TDP, when given with the following drugs
amiodarone, dronedarone antipsychotics promethazine apomorphine, methadone, citalopram, escitalopram erythromycin fluconazole, voriconazole quinine ondansetron hydroxyzine CCs Loop and thiazides SABAs and LABAs
35
the following drugs are predicted to INCREASE risk of bronchospasm when given with theophylline so avoid
beta blockers
36
true or false - COC can INCREASE exposure to theophylline. monitor and adjust dose
true
37
the folllowing drugs increase the exposure to theophylline. monitor and adjust dose VA CAC COC
clarithromycin azithromycin ciprofloxacin COC valaciclovir aciclovir
38
name the 4 LAMA
Tiotropium Aclidinium, glycopyrronium and umeclidinium (black triangle)
39
Name the SAMA
ipratropium
40
use inhaled antimuscarinics with caution in the following (4) ...
bladder outflow obstruction paradoxical bronchospasm prostatic hyperplasia susceptibility to CAG
41
name 7 common SE of inhaled antimuscarinics
- arrhtyhmias - constipation - cough - dizziness - dry mouth - nausea - headache