AT Basics Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to
A
Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility
2
Q
Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?
A
broadcast
3
Q
Advising the En Route radar and radar associate positions of sector actions required to accomplish the safe and efficient operation of the sector is a responsibility of the En Route ________ position
A
radar coordinator/handoff
4
Q
When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to ___
A
Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts
5
Q
An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ________.
A
22R, 22C, 22L
6
Q
Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of
A
in runway lights
7
Q
The minimum vertical separation between an RVSM-equipped IFR aircraft up to and including FL410 is ________ feet.
A
1,000 feet
8
Q
To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all
A
holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
9
Q
Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, a 3 NM separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, a ________ separation is required.
A
5 nautical miles
10
Q
Airmen’s information can be disseminated via aeronautical charts and _______.
A
flight information publications
11
Q
Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
A
Circular polarization
12
Q
Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
A
Secondary radar
13
Q
Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities?
A
7210.3
14
Q
The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a(n) ________.
A
Change
15
Q
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the words “may” and “need not” mean that the procedure is
A
optional
16
Q
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “must” means that the procedure is
A
Mandatory
17
Q
In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is
A
Shall or must
18
Q
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “should” means that the procedure is
A
recommended
19
Q
When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “will” means
A
Futurity, not a requirement of a procedure
20
Q
The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is
A
FL600
21
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A
Identified by the letter “M” plus a number
22
Q
Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace must not be more than ________ knots.
A
200 knots
23
Q
Which of the following statements is not true regarding SVFR clearance to fixed wing aircraft?
A
A SVFR flight plan must be filed
24
Q
What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?
A
Each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
25
What is used to determine the angle of attack?
Flight path and wing chord
26
Which action causes a nose-down pitch of an airplane?
Pushing the control yoke
27
The definition of "wake turbulence" includes a number of phenomena affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition?
Mach buffet
28
A ________ wing increases the total wing area and decreases the wing loading.
Dirty configuration
29
Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true?
They drift outward and sink
30
Helicopters fall into which aircraft category?
CAT I
31
What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?
V-tail
32
A name for the C172 is __________.
skyhawk
33
Positions on the earth’s surface are described in terms of _
Latitude and longitude
34
One minute of latitude is equal to ___________ any place on the Earth's surface.
60 miles
35
The local standard time in Greenwich, England is 2 P. M. What is the Zulu (UTC) time in Oklahoma City?
1900
36
An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots. The aircraft’s ground speed is ________ knots.
100 knots
37
The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the ________.
Glide slope
38
Information NOT found on sectional aeronautical charts are ________.
MEA’s and MOCA’s
39
The World Aeronautical Chart and the Sectional Aeronautical Chart are alike because they both ________.
Use similar symbols in the chart legends
40
Airports are listed in the A/FD in which order?
State, city, airport
41
Solid triangles indicate ________.
Compulsory reporting points
42
En Route High Altitude Charts provide aeronautical information for En Route navigation during __.
Instrument flying over 18,000
43
To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the ________ for that STAR.
Approved charts
44
Of the types of instrument approaches listed, which one is a precision approach?
ils
45
The four segments of an IAP, in the order flown, are: Initial, Intermediate, _____________.
Initial, intermittent, final and missed
46
The lowest altitude to which a pilot may descend during the final approach segment of a localizer approach is the_________.
Decision height
47
Because of precession, the heading indicator is periodically set by the pilot to agree with the ________.
Magnetic compass
48
The purpose of TCAS is to ________.
Prevent mid air collisions
49
Hyperventilation is a condition which ________.=
- breathes faster and/deeper than normal
| - eliminates more carbon dioxide than is being produced
50
Who has the final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency?
aircraft color
51
How many minutes after an aircraft on a VFR flight plan fails to arrive, is it considered overdue?
30
52
Standard atmosphere is not used for?
weather observations
53
The temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure and water vapor content for saturation to occur is
dew point
54
Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE?
Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds
55
What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds?
A warm air mass moving over a cold surface
56
Precipitation that freezes on contact with the ground or exposed objects is known as
freezing rain FZRS.
57
What is the greatest single cause of fatal aviation accidents?
Visual flight into IFR weather.
58
Convective currents are most active on ______ when winds are ____.
warm summer afternoon, light
59
What intensity of turbulence causes occupants to be forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps, unsecured objects to be tossed about, and makes food service and walking impossible?
severe
60
In the date/time field of a METAR, ________.
1st two digits are the date, 2nd two digits hour, last 2 digits minutes in UTC
61
Based on the following METAR, the visibility is ________.
| KOKC 181456Z 01010KT 10SM FEW055 BKN100 04/M02 A2992 RMK AO2 SLP 070
10 statue miles
62
What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
CWA
63
A computer-generated forecast of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at selected times, altitudes, and locations is a(n) ______ forecast
wind and temperature aloft
64
Controllers are required to solicit PIREPs when _____ reported.
moderate turbulence
65
A Mach speed of .8 is spoken as
Mach point eight” .
66
Who is responsible for initiating coordination and obtaining approval for an aircraft to cross an active runway?
ground controller
67
When used on a strip, “VA” indicates which of the following?
Visual Approach
68
Unless otherwise authorized by a facility directive, use flight progress strips for all of the following except
Recording time of position relief briefings.
69
An authorization by air traffic control for aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace is called an
Air traffic clearance
70
Where an operational ATCT is located, an area of an airport not under the control of ATC is
AOA Non Movement areas
71
Regarding helicopter aerodynamics, which of the following is not true?
Ailerons control the roll of a helicopter.
72
An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of 50,000 pounds that is operating on a return flight with little extra fuel and no passengers weighs 38,000 pounds. On this flight, this aircraft is in the ____weight class.
large
73
"A line or narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change of wind direction" defines a
sudden wind shift.
74
A “statement of expected weather conditions significant to aviation within 5 SM of an airport” defines a
TAF
75
Which of the following is not TRUE regarding ELTs?
Older ELTs operate on 125.1 MHz and 250.2 MHz
76
What is the correct phraseology for stating a heading of 40°?
fly heading zero four zero
77
During which step of the position relief briefing does the specialist being relieved release the position?
verbal briefing
78
A nautical mile equals
1.15 SM
79
A forecast of visibility less than one mile would be found in what NWS product?
AIRMET SIERRA
80
A pilot has determined the true heading (TH) from New York City to Washington, D.C. is 225°. The magnetic variation (VAR) is 13° W. What magnetic heading should be flown?
238
81
On an En Route strip, which block contains the previous fix?
Block 6
82
On a Terminal departure strip, which block contains the proposed departure time
Block 6
83
Which FAR specifies medical requirements for ATC specialists?
Part 67
84
Document issued by an organization other than the originator of the directive, providing local guidance and/or instruction.
supplements
85
Controllers in Potomac TRACON work aircraft up to FL190 before handing off to Washington Center. The agreement to work aircraft at these altitudes is found in a(n)
letter of agreement
86
JFK Tower has decided, regarding the flight strips, Block 11 will be used to mark the current ATIS and Block 13 will be used to mark the runway. This arrangement is explained in detail in the
SOP
87
A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury and stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet references a(n)
Flight Level
88
The primary source of lift around an airfoil is ____differential.
pressure
89
The actual _____determines the direction of the relative wind.
Angle of Attack
90
The ______is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge
Chord Line
91
A property of the atmosphere that affects air density and aircraft performance is
temperature
92
What causes a stall?
Loss of lift due to high angle of attack
93
The usual hazard of roll is when the induced roll exceeds the level of_____ of the aircraft.
roll control
94
Downwash vortices will spread out to the distance approximately __ times the diameter of the rotor.
3
95
Helicopters generally operate within which speed range?
100-160
96
Define a characteristic of a task function.
A specific task delegated to one particular member to advance he group as a whole
97
Which of the following is an example of a distress condition?
A condition of being threatened by a serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance. (aircraft on fire, smoke in cockpit, critically ill passenger, passenger, emergency fuel status, bird strike, VFR pilot in IFR conditions)
98
The Local controller identifies himself/herself by stating the facility followed by what?
tower
99
All of the following must use a prefix when transferring information except:
Special military operations/presidential aircraft (ex Air Force One)
100
According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “A-P-P-L-E” should be pronounced ________.
Alpha-Poppa-Poppa-Lima-Echo
101
What weather offices, located in every ARTCC, provide meteorological consultation, forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact?
Center Weather Service Unit
102
_____ separation is the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by requiring operation on different routes or in different geographical locations?
Lateral
103
Longitudinal separation is the spacing of aircraft from the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of ______ or miles.
Time (minutes)
104
In this type of separation, there are no time or distance minima per se, but separation is accomplished by aircraft avoiding each other.
Visual separation
105
How soon after the date of test failure may a person reapply to take the CTO written, oral, or practical test?
30 days
106
Which of the following controls the tilt of the rotor blade, which controls the direction of flight?
The auxiliary rotor
107
Jet blast is normally experienced during ground operations and during initial __________.
Ground operations and during initial takeoff roll prior to lift
108
Use the word__________ only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
Immediately
109
On the surface weather chart a maximum atmospheric pressure, also known as an anti-cyclone, is a________.
high
110
Which of the following is a disadvantage of radio navigation?
Requires complex and heavy equipment in the aircraft and a complex array of ground and or space based equipment and infrastructure
111
What will a headwind do to ground speed?
Reduce it
112
For a constant true airspeed, the indicated airspeed _________with _________ in altitude and temperature.
Must be corrected with an increase
113
SIGMETs are issued on a(n)__________ basis.
A SIGMET may be issued when specified conditions are affecting or, in the judgment of the forecaster, are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles
114
A convective SIGMET is issued if a line of thunderstorms is at least 60 miles long and thunderstorms are affecting ____of its length.
40%
115
The MIS provides a unique, plain-language description of weather expected to occur over an extended period ranging from several hours up to about____
2 days
116
P6SM indicates
greater than six statue miles.
117
Odd airways are generally oriented
north/south
118
Which of the following is used in conjunction with the VOR system to show the pilot the exact distance from the VOR?
DME
119
Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are
Notam D, FDC Notam, POINTER Notam
120
When changes to the NAS occur and time does not permit issuance in an appropriate publication they are ______.
Notams
121
At airports where no takeoff minimums are prescribed, an air carrier aircraft with four engines requires ________ visibility.
1/2 statue mile visibility
122
A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least five miles visibility below 10,000 MSL in all or part of class ________ ________ airspace.
B,E,G
123
75) UA/OV KMRB-KPIT/TM 1600/FL100/TP BE55/SK BKN024 TOP032/BKN-OVC043-TOPUNKN/TA M12/IC LGT-MOD RIME055-080 Based on the PIREP above, the base of the second cloud layer is ________
3,200 feet
