Atlas 747-400F Limits 02 Nov 15 Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
Max altitude for takeoff and landing
A
10,000 ft PA
2
Q
Max op altitude
A
45,100ft PA
3
Q
Max field elevation
A
9,500’ MSL
4
Q
Max runway slope
A
±2%
5
Q
Turbulent air penetration speed
A
290 to 310 KIAS / .82 to .85M whichever is slower
6
Q
Max tire speed
A
235mph (204 kts)
7
Q
Max tailwind for takeoff and landing
A
15 kts
8
Q
Ground wind limits for all doors
A
40 kts while opening or closing
65 kts while open
9
Q
When is rolling takeoff advised?
A
When crosswind exceeds 20 kts or tailwind exceeds 5 kts
10
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Good and Dry?
A
Takeoff 40kts
Landing 36kts
11
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Good on Wet
A
Takeoff 25kts
Landing 32kts
12
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance Reported Medium (Dry Snow)
A
Takeoff 15kts
Landing 25kts
13
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Medium to Poor (standing water/slush)
A
Takeoff 15kts
Landing 20kts
14
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance Reported Poor (ice-not melting)
A
Takeoff 15kts
Landing 15kts
15
Q
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Nil
A
Operations prohibited
16
Q
At what bank angle might the engine nacelle contact the ground? How many knots crosswind is that?
A
Bank to exceed 5°. Approx 20kts.
17
Q
400F MTW (ramp and taxi)
A
397,800 Kg
18
Q
400F MTOW
A
396,893 Kg
19
Q
400F MZFW
A
276,691 to 288,031 kg
20
Q
Max cabin press Δ
A
9.4 psi
21
Q
Max cabin press Δ for takeoff and landing
A
.11 psi
22
Q
APU may be used to run which pack on takeoff?
A
Pack #2
23
Q
What is the highest altitude allowable for APU bleed air use?
A
15,000 ft PA
24
Q
What is the highest altitude for APU running?
A
20,000’ PA
25
#Use of which trim is prohibited with the autopilot engaged?
Aileron trims
26
#Lowest altitude engage the AP?
250' after takeoff
27
#When, and under what conditions must the AP be disengaged?
AP must not be engaged below 100' RA unless LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated
28
Do not use FLCH on XXXX below 1,000' of XXXX
Final approach, airport field elevation
29
What is the distance between the wing gear struts in meters and feet?
11m(36'1")
30
List emergency equipment on the "main cargo deck"
```
Crash axe
2 escape ropes (L1 and L5)
Large halon fire extinguisher
Water fire extinguisher
Fire extinguisher wand
PBE
```
31
List emergency equipment in the "upper deck"
```
2 Winslow 9 man life rafts
Emergency escape slide
Halon & Water fire extinguisher
2 PBEs
FAK
4 life vests under seats
Frigid Area survival kit
3 walk-around O2 bottles
ELT
6 escape harness (1 extra in the demo kit)
```
32
If autoland is used, what must be done to the advisory landing distance in the Performance Inflight (PI) or the TLR distance?
Add 1,000'
33
#Automatic landing flap limitations
Flaps 25 or 30 only
34
Autoland Max and Min GS
3.25°≧GS≧2.5°
35
#How many operating hydraulic systems are required for autoland?
4
36
#Max headwind for autoland
25kts
37
#Max tailwind for autoland
15kts
38
#Max crosswind for autoland
25kts
39
#Max crosswind autoland CAT II/III
15kts
40
Minimum TCH
44'
41
Which radio on what freq range is not to be used for comm?
Center VHF, 120.000 to 120.005 MHZ range
42
What is the limitation on the use of HF radio
Do not operate HF radio during refueling
43
Flight crew must use O2 when?
Cabin Alt above 10,000'
44
The upper deck escape slide must be in what, under what conditions?
Forward locked position, for taxi, takeoff and landing whenever upper deck cabin occupied
45
How many supernumeraries are allowed access to main cargo deck in-flight?
3
46
Target O2 psi for crew?
Land 950 psi
| Ocean 1,200 psi
47
Engines on the -400F are?
GE CF6-80C2
B1F 56,500 lbs
B5F 62,100 lbs
48
List engine rpm limit for N1 and N2
N1 - 117.5%
| N2 - 112.5%
49
Engine ignitions must be on when? When do they come on automatically?
Must be on for
1. Mod to Hvy rain
2. Mod to Severe turb
3. Icing conditions
4. Hail or sleet
5. Volcanic Ashe
6. Standing water/slush on rwy
50
#Reverse Thrust when is it prohibited, what maneuver is prohibited?
In-flight use, as well as backing up on the ground is prohibited
51
#What must be avoided with the flight controls and for what reasons?
Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, might cause structural failure
52
#Max flap ops alt
20,000'
53
Speed brake use not recommended when?
Flaps past 20°
54
Max speed in RVSM airspace
0.9 M
55
Max allowable discrepancy between captain's and FO's altimeters in RVSM airspace?
200'
56
#What limitations apply WRT use of VNAV and QNE/QNH transition?
If within 2,000' of transition (QNE to QNH, vice versa) do not level off using VNAV, IF QNH is less than 29.70" (1006 hPa)
57
What flap limitations apply to fuel jettison operations?
Do not extend or retract flaps between position 1 and 5
58
What's is the minimum and maximum allowable fuel temperature?
Minimum: No less than 3° above the fuel freezing temp
Maximum: +54°c
59
Two jet fuel types prohibited
Jet B and JP4 fuel are prohibited
60
Main tanks 1 and 4 capacity each
13.3 x 1,000 kg
61
Main tanks 2 and 3 capacity
38.1 x 1,000kg
62
Center tank capacity
52.1 x 1,000 kg
63
Reserve tank capacity (rsv 2 and 3 individually)
4.0 x 1,000 kg
64
How many fuel tanks are located in the wing?
9 (1-4, center, two rsv and two surge tanks)
65
Total fuel capacity?
163.0 x 1000 kg
66
At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the fuel transfers occur from CWT?
27.2 in 2, 3
67
At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the transfer occurs from reserve tanks?
Xfr occurs at 18.2 in 2 and 3
68
At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the "Main 1-4 xfr" valve open? Why?
Gravity feed at 9.1 (9,072), in the fuel jettison process
69
Before start, climb, and cruise, fuel quantity that will cause "FUEL LOW CTR L, R"
7.7 Befor start
3.2 Climb
1.3 Cruise
If the CWT Override/Jettison pumps on
70
Standpipe levels on all mains?
3.2
71
"FUEL IMBAL" between tanks 2-3
Diff of 2,720
72
"FUEL IMBAL" 1 and 4
Diff of 1,360
73
VLO
Extend
Retract
Extend/Retract 270 KIAS (.82M)
74
At what speed does the IAS/Mach window change from IAS to Mach?
.84
75
At what speed does the IAS/Mach window change to IAS?
310 KIAS
76
At what altitude are ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?
1,500' RA
77
At what altitude on ILS does the AP start runway alignment?
500' RA
78
At about what altitude does the FLARE engage? How can you tell?
50' RA, FMA flare mode indicates
79
What does the AP control in the ROLLOUT mode?
Rudder and nose wheel
80
How can you terminate approach mode?
Disengage AP and both FD or
Hit TOGA mode
81
When is TOGA armed? What is the indication?
Armed when
1. GS captured or
2. Flaps out of up
No indication is given on FMA
82
On TOGA, the auto throttle provides enough thrust (up to max thrust) for how much performance?
2,000 fpm climb
83
Hitting TOGA with AP and AT will…
AT…advances thrust levers
AP pitch…maintains selected speed
AP roll…maintains ground track
84
When does Auto Throttle "Hold" mode activate?
1. Airspeed above 65 KIAS or
2. Thrust levers are manually repositioned in FLCH
3. Thrust levers reach Idle in FLCH or VNAV
85
At what PSI does the duct pressure turn amber?
11 psi or less
86
"Flight deck" emergency equipments
```
Crash axe
Halon extinguisher
4 life vests (one at each crew sta)
4 O2 mask with goggles (one at each crew sta)
Fire fighting gloves
PBE
8 escape reels
Escape hatch
```
87
VLE
320 KIAS (.82M)
88
When does each individual engine get igniter on?
1. Related Start switch is out
2. NAI On for that engine
3. A Flame out is detected
89
When does EEC use approach idle?
1. NAI on
2. Flaps in landing position (for faster spool up, and maintained till 5 sec after TD)
3. Thrust reverser operation
4. Cont ign switch on
90
List items on Main Hot Batt Bus
1. Fire switches unlock
2. Engine fire extinguishers
3. Spar fuel valves
4. APU fire extinguishers
5. APU fuel valve
6. Lower Cargo fire extinguishers
91
List items on APU Hot Batt Bus
1. IRU's (L, C, R, power 30 min except C for 5)
2. Outflow valves L, R
- --
3. APU door
4. APU controller primary
92
List items Main Batt Bus
1. APU controller (alternate)
- --
2. Engine fuel valves (all engine)
3. Fuel XFeed valves
4. IDG disconnect
- --
5. Man. Press control
6. Trail edge flap control
7. Cp's interphone
8. L VHF radio and tuning panel
9. Dome, storm and selected lights
93
List items on APU Batt bus
1. APU DC fuel pump
2. Engine start air control
- --
3. APU fire warning and horn
4. APU/Eng Fire/OVHT det A, B
- --
5. Cargo, FO & svc interphone
6. PA system
94
Items on Main Standby Bus
1. Primary EICAS
2. L EIU
3. L EFIS control panel
4. L CDU
- --
5. L ADC
6. L XPDR
- --
7. L ILS, VOR
8. STDBY instrument lights
- --
9. STDBY IGN (all engines)
95
List items on APU STANDBY BUS
1. L PFD, L ND
| 2. L FMC
96
List items found on the Ground "SERVICE" Bus (AC)
1. Chargers Main & APU Bats
2. Aft fuel boost pump from tanks 2 & 3
3. Flight deck flood, nav and svc lights
4. Misc svc outlets and equipment
97
List items on the Ground "Handling" Bus (AC)
1. Fueling sys
2. Aux hydraulic pump 4
3. Lower cargo equipment power
4. Flight deck access lights
98
List items on center bleed system
1. Pack 2
2. Trim Air (master switch)
3. Lower aft cargo heat
4. Lower cargo (fore and aft) AC trim air
5. Potable water pressurization
6. Cargo smoke detection
99
List items on L or R bleed air system
1. A pack
2. LE flaps
3. WAI
4. Demand pumps
5. Hyd reservoir head pressure
100
What's on the captain's transfer bus?
1. Center EIU
2. L HF
3. APU standby bus
101
What's on the FO's transfer bus?
1. Secondary EICAS
2. A/T servo
- ----
3. R PFD
4. R ND
5. R EIU
6. R ADC
7. R EFIS control
8. R HF
9. R CDU
10. R FMC
102
Sequence of event from descent to landing, continuous ignition, approach idle, hydraulic demand pumps
Draw it out on a piece of paper
103
At what cabin altitude does the Cabin Altitude Limiter close the outflow valves?
11,000 ft cabin altitude
104
At what cabin altitude does the supernumerary oxygen masks deploy?
14,000 ft cabin altitude
105
What's the length, nose to tail?
70.7 meters
106
Minimum width pavement for a 180° turn (Body gear steering AVAILABLE)?
46.6 meters
107
According to DDG 32-53-01, what is the minimum width pavement for a 180° turn (Body gear steering INOP)?
51.2 meters (170 feet )
108
Time to conflict RA
20-30 sec
109
Time to conflict TA
25-45 sec
110
Time to impact (unless corrected) CAUTION TERRAIN
40-60 sec
111
Time to impact (unless corrected) TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP
20-30 sec
112
When do the inhibits for Warning and Caution end and why is there a time difference?
Both ends at 400' AGL. Time from V1 to 400' would be longer (25sec, Warn) than Rotation to 400' (20 sec,Caution) (@2,000 fpm 400' AGL would be reached at 12 sec or there about)
113
Wingspan
64.9m
