Atlas Air Interview Flashcards

1
Q

What is TCH (looking at Jepp chart)?

A

Threshold Crossing Height

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2
Q

What are the minimums if the Glideslope goes out?

A

Localizer Minimums LOC / GS OUT —— MDA

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3
Q

3:1 descent planning; You’re at 30,000’ how far out will you start your descent?

A

100 miles, (90 for altitude and 10 and deceleration (10%))

Determine altitude to lose (30,000) x=30000x3/1000 x=90 so 90 miles out with the information provided,

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4
Q

Decode a messy METAR, low vis and precip

A

Plenty of references to practice reading metars

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5
Q

When do you need an alternate?

A
  • 1-2-3 Rule
    • 1) 1 hour BEFORE & 1 hour AFTER Estimated Time of Arrival;
    • 2) CEILING less than 2000 ft above airport elevation;
    • 3) VISIBILITY less than 3 miles.

any alternate airport selected must be listed as an alternate airport in the company’s Operation Specifications.

PART 91 To filing as an alternate we need 600 feet and 2 miles for precision approach and 800 feet and 2 miles for a Non-precision approach
PART 121 and 135 to filing as an alternate we have to ADD with one navigation facility 400 feet and 1 SM, with 2 navigation facilities ADD to the higher 200 ft and 1/2 miles

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6
Q

When do you need second alternate?

A

It’s required when both the destination and FIRST alternate airports’ weather are forecast to be “marginal” , when the alternate is very close to minimums and we can use the exception 3585 only for dispatch when destination or alternate weather on TAF or METAR have a remarks of BECMG, PROB, or TEMPO any alternate airport selected must be listed as an alternate airport in the company’s Operation Specifications.

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7
Q

When do you need a take off alternate?

A
  • When the wx at departure airport is below landing minimums.
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8
Q

How do you determine take off minimums?

A
  • Airport diagram Charts
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9
Q

What are Part 91 and Part 121 VFR mins for take off minimums or STANDARD TO weather minimums,?

A

Part 91 operators (with a few exceptions) have NO standard takeoff minimums. They can take off in “zero-zero” conditions.
Commercial Part 121/135 operators have the following standard takeoff minimums:
One and two engines: 1 mile visibility / RVR 5000
more than two engines 1/2 mile visibility / RVR 2400

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10
Q

IFR Lower-Than-Standard Takeoff Minima

A

TDZ RVR 1600 or visibility or RVV ¼ sm visibility — Must have at least ONE of the following:

a. High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL);
b. Centerline Lights (CL);
c. Runway Centerline Marking (RCLM); or
d. Adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface. (Runway markings or runway lighting that provides the pilot with adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control throughout the takeoff run)

TDZ RVR 1000, Mid RVR 1000, Rollout RVR 1000 — Must have at least ONE of the following:

a. CL lights; or
b. HIRL and RCLM.

TDZ RVR 600, Mid RVR 600, and Rollout RVR 600, (or 500/500/500) provided
ALL of the following visual aids and RVR equipment are available:
a. CL Lights;
b. RCLM.

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11
Q

If you TAKEOFF with weather BELOW landing minimums

A

for all practical purposes — you cannot return to land if you lose an engine after takeoff. Therefore, you must FILE (or list in the dispatch or flight release) a “TAKEOFF ALTERNATE” (aka “departure alternate”) that is within ONE hour’s flying time at normal cruise speed, in still air or… at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative or… TWO hour’s flying time for an aircraft with 3 or more engines. The “TAKEOFF ALTERNATE” airport must have Weather at or above IFR landing minimums.

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12
Q

What are our company minimums for lower than standard take off mins?

A
  • For atlas if I’m not mistake RVR 500 (150 mts)/ 500 / 500

* takeoff 200 Mts (700ft) and 3 RVR touchdown middle and roll, 7,7,7 If cat 2 training

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13
Q

What are the crew rest requirements?

A
  • Standard
    • 8, 9, 10, 11 rule from part 135.265 for all certificate holder and SCHEDULED Operations. 9 hr flight - 11 hrs rest can be reduce to 9 hrs rest HOWEVER!!!!
      -8-9-8- comp 10
      8/9-10-8-comp 11
      9-11-9-comp 12
    • Atlas does scheduled, unscheduled, supplemental, part 121 pax and cargo operations. Address this, and point out that sometimes Part 117, which covers crew rest requirements for 121 pax ops, applies. Part 117 has a three tables (A, B, and C) addressing flight time limits in relation to acclimated start of day time (local departure time of day), crew augmentation level, and class of rest facilities available in the aircraft. It’s significant. Do not try and memorize it, but let them know you are aware that it does at times apply to you as an Atlas crew member.
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14
Q

What does this symbol mean? (Star with circle in it on diagram)

A

Flyover and Fly-by

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15
Q

What does ARP mean? (on airport diagram)

A
  • Airport Reference point , a point on the airport designated as the official airport location
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16
Q

What is LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations is an air traffic control procedure for aircraft landing and holding short of an intersecting runway or point on a runway, to balance airport capacity and system efficiency with safety

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17
Q

Whats the landing distance for LAHSO?

A

Check the airport diagram and check the distance of LAHSO distant
Calculate landing distance base in the Estimate LW during pre-flight
Airlines decide the max distance or maximum landing weight for LAHSO

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18
Q

Can you conduct LAHSO ?

A

I never have the training for LAHSO

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19
Q

What is needed to conduct a LAHSO ?

A
OPS SPECS should allowed it 
PIC has the final authority to accept o decline 
Should be familiar with all available LAHSO operations at their destination 
•Available Landing Distance (ALD)
•Calculated aircraft landing distance
based on Runway Conditions, Slope
Once Accepted LAHSO must be
carried out o Unless a GA is required
Day: Electronic or Visual glide slope
NIGHT: Must HAVE Visual glide slope
With PAPI or VASI o 1,000' and 3sm
Without PAPI or VASI o 1,500' and 5sm
ALD is dry 
Tailwind less than 3 knots 
N/A if windshear is reported 
Runway hold short markings , lights and signs are on
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20
Q

Why would you need to not do a LAHSO other than landing distance?(not sure what he was looking for on this one)

A

f your company OPS SPECS will not allow it. It is pilot’s discretion to accept them in all instances.
Also, need 1000’/3mi, dry runway, no tailwind.
Air carriers are required to have crews trained in LASHO to participate/ Ops. Specs must outline and
allow LAHSO.
Particular airports may not qualify.

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21
Q

What is the Difference between green and blue light on the runway?

A
  • Green lights indicate taxiway centerline lighting;

* Blue lights indicate normal edge taxiway lighting.

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22
Q

What does the maltese cross mean?

A
  • Final Approach fix for a non-precision approach
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23
Q

DME fixes, how do we identify them?

A
  • On the approach charge. Vertical dashes lines
    • The Fix is shown a line arrow below the fix or the course with enlarged D and mile distance inside the D ,Positive ID must be by verifying the source is active and broadcasting the proper morse ID.
    • “D” indicates DME/TACAN fix. Segment mileage is DME/TACAN distance from Navaid. Arrow without a “D” designates a reporting point from facility.
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24
Q
  1. When can you descend below your DA?
A
  • All three conditions must be met:
    • 1-AC configured and continuous position to land on intended runway.
    • 2-Flight visibility is not less than the minimum requirement published.
    • 3-At least one of the following visual references must be identified:
        • Approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone only if Red Terminating Bars are also visible.
      • -The Threshold -The Threshold markings
      • -The Threshold lights
      • -Runway end Identifier lights
      • -The VASI / PAPIS
      • -The Touchdown Zone or it’s markings
      • -Touchdown Zone Lights
      • -The Runway or runway markings
      • -The Runway lights.
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25
Q

Does a 100 foot ceiling make this a problem for shooting the approach?

A
  • No , flying approaches need visibility only

* In most cases no. Unless it says CEILING requires

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26
Q

Your chief pilot and captain are talking and you’re not getting all the checklist done and the tower clears you for take off… what do you do?

A
  • Very respectful and polite I will say , captain wee need to finish our checklist before takeoff and we should Tell the tower that you need some time on the runway before you can take-off in order to complete your check-list.
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27
Q

They ask you to Brief a Departure

A
  • Technical: *Release/NOTAMS *Maintenance considerations/MEL/CDL/NEF *Fuel/Min/Ramp/Taxi *Technical Threats and mitigation plans
    • Environmental: *Departure/En-route /Arrival Weather *Weather affecting aircraft configuration *Environmental threats and mitigation plans Navigation: *Clearance *Route verification *Terrain considerations *RNAV procedures/max departure speeds and altitudes/lost com *Navigation threats and Mitigation plans
    • Operational Considerations: *Taxi route/departure runway *Airport factors/hot spots/applicable 10-7 guidance *Low visibility considerations/SMGCS charts *Operational threats and mitigation plans
    • Runway: *Abort considerations *Engine failure path *Runway environment threats and mitigation plans Like this Answer Flag Incorrect Answer
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28
Q

From what point (and distance) is this MSA valid?

A
  • Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on approach charts.
    • MSAs provide 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage.
    • Normal coverage is a 25 NM radius from the forming facility/fix. If the protected coverage is other than 25 NM, that radius is depicted below the forming facility/fix.
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29
Q

METAR:

A

METeorological reports— Aviation Routine Weather Reports.

  1. Terminal weather OBSERVATIONS.
  2. Normally this will be an hourly surface weather observation issued 5 minutes before each hour. (NOTE: Wind reference TRUE north.)
  3. SPECI—is a special (METAR) report issued because of quickly changing conditions
    (e. g., WIND direction changes by 45º or more in less than 15 minutes and the wind speed is 10 knots or more; VISIBILITY decreases to less than, or if below, increases to equal or exceeds: 3, 2, or 1 mile; RVR changes to above or below 2,400 feet, etc.
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30
Q

Are METAR winds magnetic or true?

A
  • True
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31
Q

TAF:

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts.

Valid for 24-hour ,
is weather FORECAST

Issued four times a day ((00Z, 06Z, 12Z, and 18Z) of PREDICTED weather conditions expected to occur within a 5 SM radius of an airport. May include expected weather within 5 to 10 SM of the airport (preceded by “VC” in the ViCinity).

large airports in the U.S. (as well as many overseas) now have 30-hour forecasts.

To issue a forecast there must be available at least two consecutive weather observations (METARS).

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32
Q

What is the difference between TEMPO and BECMG on a TAF?

A
  • BECMG: gradual change in conditions expected over a period of time not to exceed 2 hours
    • TEMPO: temporary fluctuations that are expected to last for generally less than an hour at a time, and expected to occur during less than half the time period.
    • FROM is an abrupt change
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33
Q

What is the forecast area for a TAF?

A
  • PREDICTED weather conditions expected to occur within a 5SM radius of an airport. May include expected weather within 5 to 10 SM of the airport (preceded by “VC” in the ViCinity)
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34
Q

What is the valid time of a TAF?

A
  • Issued 4 times a day (00:00Z, 06:00Z, 12:00Z, 18:00Z) Valid for 24Hrs
    • Some airports TAF could be Forecast 24/30hr
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35
Q

How would you brief a taxi?

A
  • Current position Departure runway assigned using the airport chart show the intended taxi route Mention Ramp considerations, construction, freq. change-overs, Hot-spots, runway / taxiway crossings
    • Current position - State departure RWY assigned - Outline expected taxi route, emphasizing hotspots and runway crossings - Mention Ramp spots, Frequency change over spots etc…
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36
Q

What is NAT

A

North Atlantic Tracks, officially titled the North Atlantic Organised Track System (NAT-OTS), is a structured set of transatlantic flight routes

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37
Q

What is the distance between NAT routes ?

A
  • 60 NM
    • reduced lateral separation minima (RLAT) reduces the standard distance between NAT tracks from 60 nm to 30 nm, or from one whole degree of latitude to a half degree
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38
Q

FIR UFIR UTA?

A

– Flight Information Region
- Upper Flight Information Region
- Upper control area

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39
Q

What are Part 121 international and domestic fuel requirements?

A
  • IFR Fuel Supply (DOMESTIC):
      1. Fly to the destination—shoot an approach—(most distant) alternate and fly 45 minutes at normal cruise .
    • Trip fue + most distant Alt + 45min
    • FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL Jet Operations Outside the U.S:
      1. Fly to and land at the airport to which it is released;
      1. After that. 10% of the total time
      1. After that, most distant alternate
      1. After that, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate airport ) under standard temperature conditions.
    • Trip fuel + 10% TT+ most distant Alt + 30 min (1500 ft)
    • FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL Operation
    • when No Alternate is Specified
    • wind and other weather conditions
    • Trip fuel + 2 hours fuel ( consider wind and weather )
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40
Q

What temperature does fuel freeze at?

A
  • -47 degrees C (-53F)
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41
Q

What is V1?

A

is the maximum speed where a rejected takeoff can be initiated in the event of an emergency and be able to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance.

V1 also means the MINIMUM speed in the takeoff, after an engine fail at VEF, where the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff accelerate go distance

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42
Q

What is VR?

A

The rotation speed ensures that, in the case of an engine failure, lift-off is possible and V2 is reached at 35 feet at the latest.

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43
Q

What is V2?

A

V2 Takeoff safety speed which must be attained at the 35-foot height at the end of the required runway distance.
This is essentially the best single-engine angle of climb speed for the aircraft and should be held until clearing obstacles after takeoff, or until at least 400 feet above the ground.

V2 is the minimum speed that needs to be maintained up to acceleration altitude, in the event of an engine failure after V1. Flight at V2 ensures that the minimum required climb gradient is achieved, and that the aircraft is controllable. V2 speed is always greater than VMCA, and facilitates control of the aircraft in flight.

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44
Q

What is Vmcg?

A

Minimum speed necessary to maintain directional Control of the airplane after engine failure on the ground ((lateral excursion lower than 30 feet)

VMCG mainly depends on:

  • − Engine(s) thrust
  • − Pressure altitude.

VMCG must be equal to, or less than, V1

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45
Q

What is Vmca?

A

VMCA
Minimum speed to maintain directional Control after engine failure, There is a minimum speed at which full rudder will be necessary, in order to fly a constant heading with level wings, windmilling and 5º bank towards operative engine;

take-off power on operative engine; gear up; flaps up; and most rearward C.G. In this configuration, The lower the speed, the greater the necessary bank angle

if airspeed is allowed below VMC, even full rudder cannot prevent a yaw toward the dead engine. At slower speeds, the slower moving wing—the one with the failed engine—will stall first. VMCA is NOT a constant, it can be reduced by — feathering the prop, moving C.G. forward, and reducing power.

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46
Q

What is a STOPWAY

A

An area beyond the end of the runway, at least as wide as the runway and centered along the extended center line of the runway, able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff without causing structural damage to the airplane, and use for decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.

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47
Q

What is a CLEARWAY

A

clearway is an area beyond the runway, not less than 500 ft wide, extending from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25% (12½ ft UP per 1,000 ft FORWARD), above which no object or any terrain

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48
Q

SCREEN HEIGHT?

A

The height of an imaginary screen which the airplane would just clear at the end of the runway, or runway and clearway, in an unbanked attitude with
the landing gear extended 35 feet DRY or 15 feet WET.

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49
Q

RNAV 1?

A

Uses traditional navigational service volumes, must be accurate within 1nm for 95% of total flight time

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50
Q

RNAV 2?

A

Q routes are gps only above FL180 and T routes are gps only and below FL180. Must be accurate within 2nm for 95% of total flight time

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51
Q

CRM

A

Crew Resource Management (working with the crew, dispatch, ATC…). Threat Error Management (elimination of threats)
CRM Crew Resource Management is using all available resources to optimize your decision making process, that is using the combined skills and knowledge of everyone who is involved to make a successful and safe flight.

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52
Q

What is TEM?

A
  • Threat Error Management (elimination of threats)
    • There are two types of threats
    • – External Threats – Those outside of your control (e.g., weather, lack of equipment, hard to understand documentation, system errors, inadequate lighting)
    • – Internal (Human) Threats – Those within our control (e.g., fatigue, loss of situation awareness, stress, disregard for following procedures)
    • Errors in the operational context tend to reduce safety margins quickly and increase the probability of an undesirable event.
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53
Q

What would you take into consideration if there is wind-shear advisories?

A
  • Windshear recovery procedure: Disengage the autopilot, Set TOGA, Pitch up 17.5 degrees or SRS Flight Director Escape Guidance if you get a EGPWS announcement, Do not change aircraft configuration until the windshear condition is ended and terrain clearance is assured.
    • No Flex or Reduced Power Takeoffs, use runway full length, engine ignition on,
    • Fly Vref 10 (or top of bucket) and be ready to recover from a decreasing performance wind-shear alert.
    • windshear escape maneuver memory items. If on ground during preflight, consider the takeoff configuration flaps setting that will best suited in case of a windshear encounter.
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54
Q

Which one of these is a Hold Short line for a runway?

A
  • The combined broken and solid black lines on a yellow sign board.
    • Broken line is closest to the runway for vacating traffic and solid line closest to taxi way for holding aircraft.
    • The lines are yellow paint on black tar taxiways.
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55
Q

Captain goes below mins, what do you do?

A
  • Assertively callout NO RUNWAY GO AROUND. You must be your own advocate in this situation,
    • There is literally no time to hesitate.
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56
Q

Transition level, transition altitude, where do you find that on an approach plate?

A
  • On the notes area below the briefing strip at the top of the Approach , SID or STAR charts , important to check if a note for QNH will change the T-ALT T-LEVEL
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57
Q

What does the pink circle mean?

A
  • Pink (filled in) circle is a low vis taxi checkpoint….red circle is hotspot.
    • PINK Circle Geographic Position Markings: Located at points along low visibility taxi routes designated in the airport’s Surface Movement Guidance Control System (SMGCS) plan Identifies the location of taxiing aircraft when Runway Visual Range (RVR) is below 1200’ (360m) Positioned to the left of the centerline in the direction of taxi Comprise of a black circle contiguous to a white ring with a pink circle in the middle The white and black ring are reversed when painted on blacktop to make it easy to read Designated with a number or a number and letter to correspond to the consecutive position of the marking on the route
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58
Q

What’s required for take off alternate for 3-4 engine aircraft?

A

No person may takeoff where the weather conditions are below IFR landing minimums unless there is a takeoff alternate airport within 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

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59
Q

Tell me about performance calculations for your jet?

A
  • we have our performance charts, we check the airport runway the final weight , configuration of flaps and wind or temperature conditions of the airport and it give us the takeoff speed and we can do corrections for QNH , wet condition on the runway and for FWR CG ,or request via ACARS
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60
Q

Do you use charts or a program like APG?

A

We use charts , my previous company we use a system fly smart from Airbus than calculate the performance of the aircraft, limiting factors, contaminated runway numbers etc.

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61
Q

What would your radio call sound like after handed off from tower to departure?

A
  • atlas 123 out of 1,500 to 4500 ANCHORAGE 9” , with VIA we don’t say the top altitude
    • ANCHORAGE Departure, [aircraft callsign], [current altitude] climbing via [name of SID or top altitude if not on a SID]
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62
Q

Explain what you would do as the flying pilot captain with an engine failure on a two engine aircraft.

A
  • Takeoff
    • If anyone failure after V1 we continue the takeoff ,
    • We don’t do anything until 400 feet except positive climb gear up
    • At 400 feet with the aircraft under control we activate the autopilot, command to declare emergency and either request runway heading or we continue with the SID,
    • I have control and communication do the ECAM actions ,
    • when we reach 1500 feet Engine out acceleration alt if the engine is secure , we stop ecam ,
    • push V/S to level off and we accelerate the airplane , we clean the airplane
    • until flaps zero, once we have flaps zero and green dot we activate open climb, put MCT and we continue with the ecam ,
    • while we doing the ecam by PNF , PF we request return to the airport and get vectors to return , call company, FA , advise PAX and inform ATC , request any assistant
    • FORDEC
    • Get information to do the next approach , prepared the MCDU and brief in conjunction with the QRH and or FCOM for the approach and do the normal checklist while doing the approach
    • In-flight
    • Announce - I have controls you have Communication Fly, Navigate , Comunicate (Aviate) PAN PAN or MAYDAY MAYDAY
    • Thrust lever MCT, Auto thrust off
    • Strategy obstacle so we can buy time , available other strategy standard , fix speed
    • Speed pull and set to green dot (engine-out operating speed in clean configuration)
    • HDG to keep clear of the airway, toward the alternate
    • Alt to Driftdown ceiling
    • Ecam Action
    • Notify ATC ,Crew, Pax
    • Squack 7700
    • FORDEC
    • Land and the suitable airport
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63
Q

Shown a map: Where is the prime meridian?

A
  • Actually asked me where 30° West longitude was first we find the prime meridian and to the left to find 30 degrees west
    • The prime meridian is the line of 0 longitude, the starting point for measuring distance both east and west around the Earth. The prime meridian is arbitrary, meaning it could be chosen to be anywhere. Any line of longitude (a meridian) can serve as the 0 longitude line. However, there is an international agreement that the meridian that runs through Greenwich, England, is considered the official prime meridian.
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64
Q

Define icing conditions.

A
  • On the ground an OAT of 10* c or colder with visible moisture or a visibility of 1 mile or less.
    • In flight a TAT of 10c or colder and visible moisture until an SAT of -40c or colder is reached.
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65
Q

What does a wet/contaminated runway do to your V1 and Vr speeds?

A

When you do the correction for wet or contaminated runway I’m sure it will be a penalty and they will get smaller however from dry to wet the ASD will be increase and the stop margin will decrease

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66
Q

What are some circumstances that would cause you, the Captain, to abort a take off prior to V1?…and what is the procedure?

A
  • for a RTO from 0 to 100 knots for any master warning, master caution or anything that will affect the takeoff, (Predicted windshear)
    • From 100knots to V1 we will do a RTO for any master warning or master caution like :
    • flight controls Sidestick fault
    • Engine failure
    • Engine fire
    • Reverse fail
    • Reverse Unlock
    • Thrust lever Fault
    • severe damage
    • Windshear will be inhibited from 100 knots to 50 feet but we can check the speed trend and decided

If RTO CALL OUT STOP
Maintain directional control,Monitor reverse on engine parameters , and the auto brake is working , when stop , stow the reverse , put parking brake on , notify ATC and I will advice via PA, attention crew station
We do the ecam action if ecam require EVACUATION , we pull evacuation QRH evacuation checklist, we read it and if evacuation es necessary I will say via PA evacuate evacuate evacuate , if not necessary I will say via PA everything is under control remain seat it , if we can go out of the runway we go out of the runaway if not we stay on the runway and we request assistant from the tower

After V1 We continue the takeoff until we reach VR and looking at airbus to keep V2 +10 (remember TOGA is available )

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67
Q

What is the difference for a flag carrier fuel?

A
  • Trip fuel + 10% TT time +Distant alternate + 30 min hold at 1500 feet(at alternate )
    • Flag without alternate :
    • Trip fuel + 2 hrs at normal cruising consumptions
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68
Q

Define a stabilized Approach.

* Stablized Approach

A
  • The aircraft is on the correct flight path
  • Only small changes in heading/pitch are necessary to maintain the correct flight path
  • The airspeed is not more than VREF + 20kts indicated speed and not less than VREF
  • The aircraft is in the correct landing configuration
  • Sink rate is no greater than 1000 feet/minute; if an approach requires a sink rate greater than 1000 feet/minute a special briefing should be conducted
  • Power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration and is not below the minimum power for the approach as defined by the operating manual
  • All briefings and checklists have been conducted
  • Specific types of approach are stabilized if they also fulfil the following:
    • ILS approaches must be flown within one dot of the glide-slope and localizer
    • a Category II or III approach must be flown within the expanded localizer band
    • during a circling approach wings should be level on final when the aircraft reaches 300 feet above airport elevation; and,
  • Unique approach conditions or abnormal conditions requiring a deviation from the above elements of a stabilized approach require a special briefing.
  • An approach that becomes unstabilized below 1000 feet above airport elevation in IMC or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC requires an immediate go-around.”
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69
Q

Describe Windshear Escape Procedures.

A
  • If the crew detect WINDSHEAR on line up delay takeoff
  • At takeoff
    • If before V1 if significant variation in airspeed and in airspeed trend below indicated V1 Reject takeoff ( caution if wind shear you will get V1 later make sure you have enough runway to stop the airplane if you decide to reject takeoff)
    • If after V1, Call out Windshear TOGA, Trust levers to TOGA, reaching VR Rotate, SRS order follow FD, if FD is not available pitch for 17.5 degrees
  • Airborne, initial climb or landing
    • Call out Windshear TOGA, Trust levers to TOGA, AP if engage keep on, SRS order follow FD, if FD is not available pitch for 17.5 degrees
    • DO NOT CHANGE CONFIGURATION (SLATS/FLAPS, GEAR) UNTIL OUT OF THE WINDSHEAR
    • CLOSE MONITOR THE FLIGHT PATH
    • RECOVERY SMOOTHLY TO NORMAL CLIMB OUT OF WINDSHEAR
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70
Q

What is the critical engine on the 747?

A
  • Outboard engine on the upwind side
    • Critical engine on 747 ? The one that has just failed!
    • Either outboard engine
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71
Q

What would you do if you lost an engine at 500 feet on the visual approach?

A
  • I will do a single engine go around, declare emergency , and request vectors to secure the engine and later to comeback to do another approach, do abnormal and normal checklist , to return and guarantee pass 1000 with stabilized approach
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72
Q

What is the asterisk next to the tower frequency on the approach plate?

A
  • Part time control tower
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73
Q

When you have a decompression when do you descend?

A
  • After the callout Emergency descent, Notify the cabin via PA and ATC, putting on the oxygen mask , intercommunication check with other pilot is positive , declaring emergency , and after that I can start descending via the memory item
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74
Q

What do you do for a compressor stall?

A
  • on the ground Reduce power to idle call for QRH and Eng Master Off
    • In flight set thrust lever to idle call for QRH and check ENG parameters
      • If abnormal al ENG parameters engine shutdown
      • If Normal ENG parameters engine anti ice on , move TL slowly forward if still occur back the trust levers
      • if stall not occur continue normal engine operation
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75
Q

if your MDH is 200’ what will you see?

A

Approach lights

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76
Q

IF your MDH is 100’ what will you see?

A

Red side bars, Red terminating bars, threshold

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77
Q

If your MDA is 50 feet what won’t you see?

A

The threshold or any approach lighting prior to that.

Your head is on top of the runway threshold at 50’

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78
Q

Which speed Vmcg/V1/Vr/V2 is constant assuming weight/temp/pressure/alt are the same?

A

VR

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79
Q

What is the jet stream and how do you tell its velocity on a weather chart?

A
  • Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. Winds of more than 80knots are represented as a jet stream
    • The direction and speed of the jet is depicted by the ‘wind fleche’ (also known as feather and pennant) symbols. Half feathers correspond to 5 KT Feathers correspond to 10 KT Pennants correspond to 50 KT
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80
Q

What are NAT’s?

A

North Atlantic Tracks. Ensure aircraft separation over the North Atlantic, due to minimal radar coverage. Routes are from North Eastern North America to Western Europe.

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81
Q

What is SLOP?

A

Strategic lateral offset procedures (SLOP) are approved procedures in oceanic and remote continental airspace that allow aircraft to fly on a parallel track to the right of the centre line relative to the direction of flight.

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82
Q

For an oceanic flight besides an ATC clearance are any other clearances required?

A
  • Oceanic clearance,

* Foreign national diplomatic clearance.

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83
Q

If the WX drops below approach minimums outside the FAF can you continue on the approach?

A

NO

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84
Q

When can you turn on a missed approach procedure while executing a missed?

A

after the MAP

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85
Q

What would you do if you were holding short and realized you didn’t have enough fuel to complete the mission?

A
  • Return to the gate and load more fuel , because going with minimum fuel and inflight could happened many scenarios that will make us burn more fuel that planned, and why take the risk when you can do a safe flight eliminating the threats that are under you control
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86
Q

Can we accept a RNAV STAR? How do we load it into the database?

A
  • Check o-specs
    • Yes if approved and we meet minimum equipment for RNP / NVAV
    • It must be loaded from the database to be flown.
    • It should be on the Dep/Arr page of the MCDU interface.
    • You must check all points and altitude restrictions as well as speed restrictions
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87
Q

What vertical mode to use to descend to MDA?

A
  • Full manage Lnav-Vnav (manage-manage), lateral manage vertical selected Lnav-V/S (Nav-FPA), selected selected HDG-TRK/ V/S ( TRK-FPA)
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88
Q

What altitude to set in the box on LNAV approach?

A
  • Pilots must not descend below the MDA when executing a missed approach from a CDFA. Operators should instruct their pilots to initiate the go-around at an altitude above the MDA (sometimes referred to as a DDA) to ensure the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA
    • Derived Decision Altitude (DDA). Pilots must not descend below the MDA when executing a missed approach from a CDFA.
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89
Q

When would we descend to the runway on an LNAV approach?

A
  • Airplane is in state where no aggressive maneuver is required to maintain vertical or lateral path
    • AT VDP continue to land if 1 of the following visual references
    • • Approach lights, not below 100’ unless the red terminating or red side bars are visible Threshold, markings, lights
    • • Runway end identifier lights
    • • Visual glide slope indicator
    • • Touchdown zone, markings, lights Runway, markings, lights
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90
Q

Where can you find lost com procedure on the arrival plate?

A

On the box section where it says lost com

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91
Q

What does a hot spot look like on a Jepp taxi chart?

A

Magenta colors ovals, and with the Letters HS

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92
Q

What does a displaced threshold look like on Jepp chart?

A

A narrow rectangular box across the runway, preceded by some imbedded approach lighting (in case that runway supports IAPs)

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93
Q

Taking off runway 36C at CVG, tower changes your runway to 36L what V speeds change?

A

V1 The new runway is smaller so we have to recalculate, but the V1 will lower

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94
Q

On the MIA Flipper 3 what are lost comm and holding speeds? How long are the hold legs?

A
  • ust read the LOST COM procedure listed on the chart.

* Leg distance is shown on the chart ( 10 miles for some holdings and 6 for others )

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95
Q

What is the North Atlantic loss of pressurization contingency plane?

A
  • Attempt to obtain revised ATC clearance.
    • Attempt to maintain FL.
    • Turn lights on.
    • Talk on 121.5,
    • 5 fingers, 7700, datalink etc
    • Turn at least 30* right/left in order to obtain 5NM offset parallel track.
    • Climb/descend 500’ (1000’ if above FL410) OR descend below FL290
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96
Q

Can you take off from KCVG with 2 out of 3 RVR inop?

A

NO

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97
Q

What is the star over the frequency on plate mean?

A
  • Part time operation
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98
Q

What is MSA block? What protection is included?

A
  • Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on approach charts. MSAs provide 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage.
    • Normal coverage is a 25 NM radius from the forming facility/fix. If the protected coverage is other than 25 NM, that radius is depicted below the forming facility/fix.
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99
Q

Look at an oceanic winds aloft depiction chart, how strong are the winds? what is the long curvy line?

A
  • Barbs indicate 50 knot winds, double lines through a wind line indicate a change in windspeed. Hash Marks (each pair indicates successive 20kt wind speed changes referenced to Jet Max or 3000 ft change
    • Curvy line is the jet stream strong winds concentrated in a narrow stream in the atmosphere
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100
Q

What is the MSA, what does it guarantee and what is the center point?

A
  • Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on approach charts.
    • MSAs provide 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage.
    • Normal coverage is a 25 NM radius from the forming facility/fix. If the protected coverage is other than 25 NM, that radius is depicted below the forming facility/fix.
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101
Q

What landing configuration is preferable when landing on a icy runway?

A
  • Flaps Full
    • Auto barke Medium
    • Speed brakes
    • Full Reverse
    • Slowest possible Vref and no asymmetrical forces upon landing
102
Q

If you lose all electric power would you still have brakes an spoilers?

A
  • Yes batteries will connect Hot bus, and by STAT INV Connect the AC ESS, DC ESS, that will energize the SEC’s ( spoiler and elevator computers )
103
Q

How should you avoid a thunderstorm?

A

Proceed upwind and use active radar to avoid heavy precipitation. Never fly directly over cb’s , hail, microburst, lightning, or any kind of thunderstorm.

104
Q

Balanced Field Takeoff, if you have an engine failure on takeoff, how high must you cross over the end of the runway? What if the runway is wet?

A
  • we should cross over the end of the runway screen height of 35’ for a dry runway and 15’ for a wet runway.
105
Q

Runway / Distance / Speed / Go-around:

A

Accelerate Stop Distance Available — (ASDA) — Runway plus stopway.

¨ TakeOff Run Available — (TORA) — The usable length of runway available for takeoff. TORA will never be further than the halfway point between the end of the ground roll and the point at which the aircraft achieves 35 ft when a clearway is used.

¨ TakeOff Run Required — (TORR) — All engine takeoff roll required for acceleration to liftoff speed plus one-third of the airborne distance between liftoff and “screen height” plus a 15% safety margin.

¨ TakeOff Distance Available — (TODA) — TODA includes the clearway and will always be equal to or greater than TORA. All engine takeoff distance available (runway + clearway) within which the aircraft can achieve “screen height” (35 ft) at not less than V2.

¨ TakeOff Distance Required — (TODR) — All engine takeoff distance required to accelerate to liftoff speed, climb to 35 ft at no less than V2, plus a total distance safety factor of 15%.

¨ Landing Distance Available (LDA) — The runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane.

¨ V3 Speed — All engine takeoff climb speed achieved at screen height (35 ft).

¨ V4 Speed — All engine takeoff climb speed achieved at 400 ft AGL.

¨ TakeOff Go-Around button/switch — TO/GA button/switch — Sets the flight director command bars to climb/go-around mode; and on some aircraft will also activate the go-around mode of the autothrottles, set takeoff thrust, initiate maximum climb, automatically fly the missed approach procedure and serve you a hot cup of coffee once the airplane is established in the hold.

106
Q

What does the symbols mean on high altitude charts?

A

Refer to aviationwx.gov

107
Q

What is ETP?

A

Equal Time Point during an oceanic crossing where the amount of flying time is even from the ETP to the last suitable airport prior to coast-out OR the first suitable airport after coast-in. Simply stated, it is the decision point between turning around or proceeding with the crossing in the event of unexpected operations (depressurization, system failures, weather deviations, etc). The ETP will typically be down-wind of the physical mid-point between last and first suitable airports.

108
Q

What are the associated weather systems with low and high pressure systems?

A

High is good weather. Low is bad weather

109
Q

What is a hotspot?

A

a location on an airport movement area that demands heightened attention by pilots and vehicle operators due to the history of potential collision or runway incursion

A point on the airport that is prone to traffic errors, typically associated with multiple intersecting runways or taxiways. Operating near or through a hotspot should be a focus item during a taxi route briefing. Hot spots are depicted on airport diagrams with a pink circle and associate number. Some have specific text to address on the diagram, such as LAX’s diagram with multiple hot spots.

110
Q

How would a wet runway affect V1 speed?

A

Decrease it due to slower deceleration caused by lower friction between the tires and runway.

111
Q

What is accelerate stop/go distance?

A

Accelerate-stop distance is the runway length required to accelerate to a specified speed, experience an engine failure, and bring the airplane to a complete stop on the runway or stopway

Dry runway standards do not allow the use of reverse thrust when defining accelerate-stop distance. A lower V1 is used to establish wet runway accelerate-stop distance.
Wet runway standards do allow the use of reverse thrust when computing accelerate-stop distance

Accelerate-Go Distance is the runway required to accelerate to Vr and, assuming an engine failure at that instant, continue on the remaining engine and climb to a height of 35feet at the end of dry runway . And 15feet at the end of wet runway

DRY-Runway Accelerate-GO — Distance traveled to a point 35 ft above the runway or clearway.
WET-Runway Accelerate-GO — Distance traveled to a point 15 ft above the runway or clearway.

TODA :TakeOff Distance Available includes the clearway and will always be equal to or greater than TORA. All engine takeoff distance available (runway + clearway) within which the aircraft can achieve “screen height” (35 ft) at not less than V2

ASDA: Accelerate Stop Distance Available — (ASDA) — Runway plus stopway.

TORA: TakeOff Run Available The usable length of runway available for takeoff. TORA will never be further than the halfway point between the end of the ground roll and the point at which the aircraft achieves 35 ft when a clearway is used.

112
Q

How do you calculate your top of descent to meet a crossing restriction on a star?

A

Change in altitude (1000s of feet)3 is about the right distance to start descent on a 3 degree idle descent. Additional distance needed for deceleration 10%, if necessary And the rate of descent GS5

113
Q

What are holding airspeed restrictions ?

A
  • FAA Reduce to holding speed when within 3 minutes of the holding fix. Maximum permitted speed is:
  • (when below 6,000 feet), 200 KIAS
  • (when 6,001 - 14,000 feet), 230 KIAS
  • (when 14,001 feet and above). 265 KIAS

The initial inbound leg should be flown for 1 minute (at or below 14,000 feet MSL) or 1-1/2 minutes (above 14,000 feet MSL)

ICAO
When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction

  • Holding altitude 14000’ or below - 230 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 14000’ to 20000’ - 240 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 20000’ to 34000’ - 265 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 34000’ - Mach .83

The initial inbound leg should be flown for 1 minute (at or below 14,000 feet MSL) or 1-1/2 minutes (above 14,000 feet MSL)

When assigned a hold while still many miles from the holding fix, you might consider asking for a speed reduction immediately which will save fuel, reduce your time in the hold, or possibly eliminate the need for the hold altogether

Sydney to HK again and being informed by ATC that we are to expect a hold in HK in an hour’s time with no EFC and what my thought process would be (slowing down to eat up time to avoid getting into the hold, reducing fuel burn etc…).

114
Q

HOLDING Standard and Non- Standard holding patterns.

A

Standard holding patterns are RIGHT turns. Nonstandard are LEFT turns.
When ATC does not provide a turn direction, standard RIGHT turns are implied and expected.

115
Q

What are lost comm procedures?

A

After we tried all possibilities to communicate with ATC and tried all COM’s and Satellite Phones , ACARS
If you experience a radio failure, put the code 7600 on your transponder.
If you can still hear ATC (but not transmit), keep listening for instructions. (A standard procedure for ATC is to ask if you can hear them and have you IDENT in reply. Other questions can also be answered with an IDENT.)
If radio reception is also a problem, listen over nearby VOR and NDB channels, which ATC will also try.

I. VFR: If communications failure happens in VMC, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure and you can stay in VMC, you should continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

II. IFR: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, then you should continue your flight, and ATC will also assume that you are continuing, and clear airspace accordingly. The three elements of the navigation are

  • Route
  • Altitude
  • Leaving the clearance limit in order to shoot the approach
ROUTE
Think of "Avenue F": AVE F. This is the order of priority to your routing:
* as Assigned
* as Vectored
* as Expected
* as Filed.
ALTITUDE
Fly the highest of these three, for the segment of flight you're on:
* Assigned Altitude
* Expected Altitude
* MEA

In flying the highest of these three, your altitude may change repeatedly, because the altitude assigned may be lower than the MEA for certain segments. In this case, you should climb to the higher MEA, and then descend again when the MEA is lower than your assigned or expected altitude.

Address specific departure plates or arrivals for unique lost comms, such as LAX departures that have specific lost comm procedures in them.

116
Q

What are you looking for on your walk around?

A
  • Ensuring general condition is acceptable on all surfaces. Ensuring all hatches are closed and no leaks.
117
Q

When you are only operating on battery power what is being powered and why?

A
  • It will be connected the HOT BUS 1+2 that include the Engine 1 and 2 extinguisher App extinguishers, Flt C, Fuel, HDY,LG, Nav, door, comms
    • It will connect the static inverter to energize the AC ESS and DC ESS
118
Q

What is the difference between the centerline markings and the distance between runway edge lights?

A
  • Runway Edge Lights - are uniformly spread at intervals of approx. 200 feet.
    • CENTERLINE MARKINGS are white; 120 ft long, with 80 ft gaps, Width is 36”for precision runways, 18” for nonprecision runways, and 12” for visual runways.
    • Centreline Lights - are located along the centreline at 50-foot intervals. Start from 75ft from beginning g of the runway
119
Q

Can we fly the FLIPR7 STAR into MIA if the FMS is not operational?

A

NO

120
Q

What are category 1 and category 2 airspace?

A
  • Category 1 is airspace that falls within 750nm of ground based navigational sources. Navigation with service volumes VOR, NDB
    • Category 2 is everything else. Outside of service Volumes
121
Q

Have you ever had to circle to land?

A
  • When I was flying in Alaska always we circled to land an Mexico too, however in china we got the training but never got approve to do it
122
Q

How does engine anti-ice/wing anti-ice work?

A
  • Bleed Air , wing and engine anti-ice, on the Airbus from the pneumatic system heats slats 3,4,5 heated leading edge , and An independent air bleed from the high pressure compressor protects each engine nacelle from ice.
123
Q

How do you start an engine when an INOP APU?

A
  • we need electrical power GPU and a pneumatic Power car
    • we start engine #2 with a Pneumatic and Cross bleed start engine #1
    • Engine #2 is started first because the eng #2 pressurizes yellow hydraulic system which the parking brake and the alternate braking is fed.
124
Q

How many degrees of runway difference constitutes a circling procedure?

A

> 30 degrees

125
Q

How do you calculate “actual landing distance” (ALD).

A
  • We calculate via QRH Landing distant Charts or ACARS and have the info sent by company
    • Airplane must be able to stop within 60% of the dry runway,
    • If runway is wet landing distance increase 115%
    • Dry runwayX 1.67 runway available
    • Wet runway X 1.97 runway available
    • Most favorable runway , wind, landing and terrain
126
Q

How are “factored landings” calculated?

A
  • The factored landing distance is the certified landing distance multiplied by 1.67, which can then be compared directly to the available landing distance. When the runway is wet, the certified distance is multiplied by 1.97 to account for the 15 percent additional runway requirement. AC-91-79A
127
Q

If the FO and CA airspeed indicators were off by 20 kts (one high and one low), how could we decide which to follow?

A
  • WE can call for unreliable speed Establish a known pitch and power setting (in QRH) if one is accurate use it, if not use standby.
    • verify the standby a/s indicator if it matches one of the other two, then crosscheck with GPS based ground speed (relation to TAS and headwind/tailwind component)
128
Q

Is VV a ceiling?

A

YES

129
Q

What wx will you expect after the TEMPO ends in a TAF?

A

The weather forecast for that time period.

130
Q

Prog Chart/Sig Chart symbols

A

Refer to legend on aviationwx.gov

131
Q

SLOP/NAT-When do you have to be back on course? Do we have to ask permission?

A

No clearance to perform SLOP. 0 1nm or 2nm to the RIGHT only. Can start SLOP after oceanic entry and prior to oceanic exit point.

132
Q

Difference between fly over vs fly by waypoints and symbols on the SID?

A
  • Has to do with where the airplane starts the turn. Either before the way point or after the way point. Refer to Jepp legend.
    • Fly by waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. This is know as a turn anticipation.
    • Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over the point prior to starting a turn.
133
Q

Take off briefing ?

A

Crew Qualified
• A/C Status
• NOTAMS -Wx (×-wind/vis: TO Alt/Dest/ALT)
• Fuel (On Board vs. Req.)
• T/O Analysis, Derate/Flex/Flaps/ECS
• Emergency brief
• In the Event of a malfunction tion before V1
• If the Call is to Continue, no action below 400’ agl……
• Engine out procedure
• Taxi Out (RWY, Intersection T/O)

134
Q

Brief the ILS? (normal procedures again)

A
  • Brief an ILS off of the Jepp chart as you normally would.
    • Crew Qualified
    • A/C status
    • Notams
    • WX (x-wind Dest / Alt)
    • Fuel / Hold Times
    • QRH Landing calculation
    • Jeppesen Approach
    • Task Sharing (plan AP On/Off)
    • GP Mode / MCDU set up
    • Landindig Config (Vref, N1 , V/S, Flaps, Brakes )
    • Taxi / Low Vis
    • Make sure to ask if they have any questions or comments about the approach.
135
Q

When do you have to have the autopilot off?

A
  • Takeoff at 500 feet or the altitude specified in the AFM airbus is 100 AGL
    • Enroute at 500 feet or the altitude specified in the AFM Airbus 500 AGL
    • Approach no lower that 50 feet of the DA, MDA, normal is at minimums for cat 1,2,3 unless you are doing an auto land
    • Circling approach 500 AGL
    • Go-around no lower than Takeoff 100 AGL
    • Landing altitude for autopilot use do not apply when use AutoLand system.
136
Q

If you started your descent on the GS and the vis drops below required can you continue?

A
  • if you are inside of the FAF yes you continue if you are outside of the FAF you can not continue
137
Q

What would you do if you FO calls “runway in sight” but you look up and don’t see it?

A

Go Around

138
Q

Calculate landing distance in an airplane you have flown?

A

QRH landing distance charts, but I used fly smart from Airbus on the IPAD, or we can use ACARS

139
Q

What are the segments of climb?

A
  • Four stages of climb (single-engine):
    • 1st Segment: VR cross 35 feet , accelerating to V2, gear UP
    • 2nd Segment: Gear up to 400 feet maintaining V2 2.4% (300fpm 24ftx1000ft fwd) (4 ENG 3.0%)
    • 3rd Segment: Acceleration altitude at 400 feet. Accelerate to retract flaps. 1.2% (4 ENG 1.7%)
    • 4th segment: 400 feet with clean configuration to 1500 ft at VFTO level out and run applicable checklists
140
Q

Define RVSM

A
  • Reduced vertical separation minima
    • FL290-410 to fly 1,000 feet apart between, airplane have to be certify for rvsm,
    • difference supposed to be between 2 altimeters for RVSM on the ground and the air? ( Ground within 75ft of field elevation -Air altimeters should agree within 200ft )
    • 2 ADR + 2 DMC
    • 2 PFD
    • 1 AP
    • 1 FCU channel
    • 1 FWC
    • 1 transponder
141
Q

Can you describe a system on your current aircraft?

A

I was asked about the hydraulic system on my current aircraft. I described the different hydraulic systems, how they were cooled, what they power, what happens if there is a leak, etc… , or check for electric

142
Q

When do you use each of your lights from engine start to takeoff?

A
  • Prior to engine start, you must have your nav lights on, and can optionally have wing and logo lights on.
    • Once you’re about to start engines, you must have the beacon lights on.
    • For taxi, you should have taxi lights or turnoff lights on.
    • When taking the runway, the landing lights should be on.
143
Q

What is your CFIT escape procedure?

A
  • Aural caution associated with terrain:
    • -During night or IMC, the flight crew should immediately
    • perform maneuver flying of terrain avoidance by referring to the
    • handling regulation of GPWS/ EGPWS warning.
    • -During daylight VMC conditions, the flight crew can adjust the
    • flight path if terrain and obstacles are clearly in sight.
    • “TERRAIN TERRAIN” - “TOO LOW TERRAIN” - “TERRAIN AHEAD” - “OBSTACLE
    • AHEAD”
    • During night or IMC: CALL OUT PULL UP TOGA
    • Simultaneously:
    • AP……….PULL UP
    • Pull to full backstick and maintain in that position.
    • THRUST LEVERS……………….. TOGA
    • SPEED BRAKES lever…………….CHECK RETRACTED
    • BANK………………. WINGS LEVEL or ADJUST
    • Aircraft obtain the best climb performance when the wings are as level as possible. The flight crew can adjust bank while climbing, provided that turning is the safest action.
    • Note: For some airports, the operator may define a specific procedure.
    • DO NOT CHANGE CONFIGURATION (SLATS/FLAPS, GEAR) UNTIL CLEAR OF
    • OBSTACLE.
    • During daylight and VMC, with terrain and obstacles clearly in sight:
    • FLIGHT PATH……………….ADJUST
144
Q

What is the 1st through 4th segment climb definitions and gradients required?

A
  • 1- Pos rate ;
    • 2 - 2.4% ;
    • 3,4 - 1.2% ( 2 ENG)
    • 1- Pos rate ;
    • 2- 3.0% ;
    • 3,4- 1.7 %( 4 ENG)
145
Q

Can VMC and V2 be lower than V1?

A

NO

146
Q

Who is responsible for safety of flight of the aircraft?

A
  • PIC ( Pilot in Command)
147
Q

What is the T01610061 on a METAR?

A
  • T code is temp. 016.1 degrees Celsius and 006.1 dew point.
148
Q

What is 50001 on a METAR?

A

50001: “5” is pressure tendency for last three hours. I think there is a digit missing in this and that next digit would indicate if the pressure is rising, steady or falling. The last 3 digits would be the tenths of mb’s that it has changed e.g., 0.1mb.

149
Q

What is an occlusion front and what are the three types of occlusion fronts?

A

Occlusion Front is which is the boundary that separates the new cold air mass (to the west) from the older cool air mass already in place north of the warm front. Three types: Warm front Cold Front Stationary Front Occlusion Front

150
Q

CVG Taxi Diagram: Parked at DHL Ramp.. does this diagram give you enough information for low visibility taxi?

A

NO

151
Q

How far apart runway centerline lights?

A

50FT

152
Q

What are the three types of entries for holding?

A
  • Direct, Parallel, Tear Drop
153
Q

What are the three types of holding exits?

A
    1. cleared to ‘clearance limit’ via direct ‘fix’ and then as previously filed.
      * 2. Cleared to ‘clearance limit’ via radar vectors. Fly heading ‘heading’.
      * 3.Maintain ‘altitude’ until ‘holding fix’, cleared ‘approach name’.
154
Q

DME Arc– if you fly this 15 miles DME arc for 60 degrees, how many miles would you have traveled?

A
  • 15.7 miles.
    • Distance (in miles) = (3.1416)(“miles DME)(2)(“Degrees”)/360
    • Distance traveled along an arc = Radials * DME / 60
155
Q

Coming in on approach in the 747, below 200’, clear weather, nothing on the runway, fully configured and towers says “GIANT 234, go around”…. what do you do?

A
  • Go around.Unless you have a fuel related issue, then you should already have declared emergency fuel.
156
Q

If you experience an engine failure at 1500ft with good weather conditions, would you continue or go around?

A

I will go around and return for another approach and have the engine secure, finish my abnormal and normal checklist, so I can guarantee to pass 1000ft on an stabilized approach

157
Q

What is a balanced airfield?

A

A balanced field takeoff is a condition where the accelerate-stop distance required (ASDR) is equal to the takeoff distance required (TODR) for the aircraft weight, engine thrust, aircraft configuration and runway condition. … At V1 the pilot must continue the takeoff even if an emergency is recognized.

158
Q

What is the distance between runway centerline lights?

A

50FT

159
Q

What is the distance between touchdown zone lighting?

A

100FT

160
Q

If RVR measurement is not available at the approach end, can you still take off?

A
  • Yes, for operations below RVR 1600 minimum of two RVR system are required, all RVR are controlling. Except a far end RVR report (advisory only)
161
Q

Can you use the standard airport diagram for low visibility taxiing?

A
  • No. You must use the low vis taxi diagram specific for the runway in use.
162
Q

What is screen height with engine failure at V1?

A
  • 35’ dry

* 15’ wet

163
Q

What is the Prime Meridian?

A

The line of zero longitude. Separates the eastern and western hemispheres.

164
Q

What anti/de icing systems on your current aircraft?

A
  • ANTI-ICING
    Either hot air or electrical heating protects critical areas of the aircraft as follows.
    HOT AIR (pneumatic system)
  • three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing. 3,4,5
  • engine air intakes.
    ELECTRICAL HEATING
  • Cockpit windows.
  • sensors, pitot probes, static ports, TAT probes and angle-of-attack probes.
  • waste-water drain mast.
165
Q

What is RVSM airspace and equipment required?

A
  • Reduced vertical separation minima
    • FL290-410 to fly 1,000 feet apart between, airplane have to be certify for rvsm,
    • difference supposed to be between 2 altimeters for RVSM on the ground and the air? ( Ground within 75ft of field elevation -Air altimeters should agree within 200ft )
    • 2 ADR + 2 DMC
    • 2 PFD
    • 1 AP
    • 1 FCU channel
    • 1 FWC
    • 1 transponder
166
Q

What are the V-speeds?

A

V1 is the maximum speed at which a rejected takeoff can be initiated in the event of an emergency and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance.

V1 also means the MINIMUM speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff acelérate go distance

Vr Rotation speed. Recommended speed to start applying back-pressure on the yoke, rotating the nose so that ideally the
aircraft lifts off the ground at VLOF.

V2 The takeoff safety speed which must be obtained at the 35-foot height at the end of the required runway distance. This is essentially the best one-engine operative angle of climb speed for the aircraft and should be held until clearing obstacles after takeoff, or until at least 400 feet above the ground.

167
Q

VMCG / VMCA

A

VMCG Minimum speed necessary to maintain directional Control following an engine failure during the takeoff roll while still on the
Ground — Determined using purely aerodynamic controls with no reliance on nosewheel steering — Jets, turboprops or
transport category aircraft. V1 must be higher than or equal but not less than VMCG

VMCA More commonly known as VMC ,Minimum Control speed with critical engine (usually the left)
* inoperative out of ground effect in the Air — “RED line” — Most critical engine inop & windmilling; 5º bank towards operative engine; take-off power on operative engine; gear up; flaps up; and most rearward C.G. In this configuration, if airspeed is allowed below VMC, even full rudder cannot prevent a yaw toward the dead engine. At slower speeds, the slower moving wing—the one with the failed engine—will stall first. VMC is NOT a constant, it can be reduced by — feathering the prop, moving C.G. forward, and reducing power.

168
Q

What does TEMPO mean on a TAF?

A
  • Temporarily. Used for any conditions in wind, visibility, weather, or sky condition which are expected to last for generally less than an hour at a time (occasional), and are expected to occur during less than half the time period.
    • Tempo conditions expire at the end of the TEMPO block.
169
Q

What indications on your instruments if you happen to fly through volcanic ash?

A

Increase in EGT surge stall compressor

170
Q

How would you manage an emergency as it relates to CRM?

A
  • Use all available resources, which are not limited to just the other pilot. Flight attendants, maintenance, ATC, dispatch, and jumpseaters can all be great resources to gather information from. Make sure to communicate clearly with each crewmember and get input from them.
171
Q

What threats would be discussed before taking off from a high altitude airport?

A

Takeoff performance, special engine-out procedures, climb gradients, high terrain in the area, weather

172
Q

What are the speeds associated with thrust reverser usage in your aircraft?

A

Up to 70kts on the A320 however if need it we can use full reverse until the airplane stop, the only thing we have to put it in the airplane maintenance logbook, and maintenance personnel have to do an inspection

173
Q

What does ATIS stand for?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

174
Q

What are the types of precipitation that have no holdover time?

A
There are no holdover times for 	
			Heavy snow, 
			ice pellets, 
			moderate and heavy freezing rain, 
			small hail and hail
175
Q

Can you explain V1 and V2 and their relationship to VMCA and VMCG?

A
  • V1 - decision Speed
    • V2 - Takeoff Safety Speed
    • Vmcg lower or equal than V1 never more than V1
    • V2 higher than Vmca ( 1.2 times)
    • Almost: V2 shall be at least 1.1 VMCA
176
Q

What does VCSH mean in the TAF and what is the radius of the TAF?

A

Rain Shower in the Vicinity. 5 -10 statute mile radius around an airport

177
Q

What is the speed limit under Class B airspace?

A
  • 200kts
    The maximum airspeed below the Class B airspace area is 200 knots and the max speed inside the Class B airspace is 250 knots even though the maximum speed below 2,500 feet above the surface and within 4 nautical miles of a Class C or D airport is 200 knots
178
Q

What altitude do you switch from airspeed to mach?

A

Mach transition: The most common usage is the changeover from flying airspeed by knots, to airspeed by mach,
calculated by MCDU and Air data computer when target speed match the mach speed , many factors are Total pressure and Static Pressure (Airspeed and Altitude). The computer makes its calculations based on them.

179
Q

If I was 30 miles from a holding fix, when would I slow down?

A
  • The right answer is 3 minutes, but the answer they want to hear to see you say is right away so you can avoid the holding.
    • 300 knots is about 5 miles per min so about 5*3= 15 miles
    • 250 knots is about 4 miles per min so about 4*3= 12 miles
    • 200 knots is about 3 miles per min so about 3*3= 9 miles
180
Q

What do hot spots look like on taxi route, and what are they?

A
  • They are red shaded circles , they depict a warning area were there is risk of runway incursions
181
Q

What do lines of latitude measure?

A
  • Latitude is the measurement of distance north or south of the Equator. It is measured with 180 imaginary lines that form circles around the Earth east-west, parallel to the Equator. … Each parallel measures one degree north or south of the Equator, with 90 degrees north of the Equator and 90 degrees south of the Equator.
182
Q

Can V1 be higher than VMCA?

A

NO

183
Q

How would you handle an emergency descent over the rockies?

A
  • Know your MSA, Mora grid
    • get your mask on,
    • establish comm with the other pilot,
    • cabin oxygen,
    • rapid decent to the 10000ft or MSA.
    • Squawk 7700, lights on,
    • turn off course (if on an airway),
    • call MAYDAY.
184
Q

Does density altitude change V1?

A
  • Yes , Lower density means less thrust, therefore accelerating will be slower and uses more distance
185
Q

What are the pink dots on the taxi chart?

A

Geographic Position Marking (pink spot) Indicates a specific location on the airport surface.

186
Q

Which parts of the engine are protected by the anti-ice?

A
  • air intake opening of the engine nacelle
187
Q

On a WX prog chart, what are the symbols for volcano and tropopause height?

A
  • Square with three ticks on top

* The box with a triangular pointing up

188
Q

What is a standard hold?

A
  • Right turns
189
Q

What would you do if you were low fuel and the PM called for a go around?

A
  • A good brief will help prevent hesitation during this situation.
    • If you know you are in a low fuel situation or emergency fuel, take it into consideration during the approach briefing.
    • If the PM calls for a go around there must be a reason. So I would execute a go-around as per SOP.
190
Q

When do you use thrust reversers?

A
  • during landing, thrust reversers are used to help decelerate the aircraft by reverse airflow (trust) from the engines.
    • It provides less wear on brakes and shorter landing distances.
    • Thrust Reversers are most effective when deployed ASAP after touchdown.
    • TRs have the greatest effect on deceleration at high speed. They can be used until the aircraft comes to a complete stop however most SOPs recommend stowing the reversers at around 70kts.
191
Q

What would you do if you had a depressurization between CVG-MIA?

A
  • I would don mask declare emergency, run through memory items, advise crew members to ensure everyone is seated, descend, contact dispatch, plan for alternates
192
Q

Walk me through what happens after you turn the battery switch on

A

????

193
Q

What would you do if you got a cabin door unlocked fault over the Rockies, without any effect on the pressurization system?

A

Check the pressurization system, specially the rate of clim or descent of the cabin pressure , Check the door, ask the cabin crew to keep an eye on it for any sounds.

194
Q

What are you considerations when operating out of high altitude airports?

A
  • Primarily performance
    • Density altitude.
    • Terrain
    • Engine out
195
Q

What do you do if your holdover time ends?

A
  • Go back and get another spray if the precip is still occurring.
    • If precipitation stop You can do a pre-takeoff contamination check or go back to the terminal for another de/anti-ice
196
Q

What would you do if at 1500 ft someone calls go around, but everything seems to be okay?

A
  • Go around
    • I would quickly ask for clarification just to get an idea why. HOWEVER, if it’s getting close to 1000’ AGL you execute the go-around. There are no penalties for go arounds and better be safe then sorry
197
Q

What do hotspots look like on a taxi chart?

A
  • Circles around complicated taxiways usually intersecting a runway. Labeled on the side bar.
    • Pink circles on 10-9
198
Q

What would you do if you’re flying over the Rockies and all of a sudden your plane pitches up violently?

A

You should consider clear air turbulence and not a flight control malfunction.

199
Q

How should a pilot describe braking action?

A

Nil, poor, fair, or good

200
Q

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?

A

3/4 SM

201
Q

The FAA’s Flight Information Services Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products:

A

METARs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, and AIRMETs

202
Q

Which type jet stream can be expected to cause the greatest wake turbulence?

A

a curving jet stream associated with a deep low pressure trough

203
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of ASOS over AWOS?

A

ASOS has superior precipitation discriminator capabilities

204
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of ASOS over ATIS?

A

ASOS is automated and requires no human input

205
Q

The AWOS is reporting altimeter 29.80 inches and local airport elevation is 350 ft. What is the pressure altitude?

A

470 feet (10 feet for every .01 inches)

206
Q

experience two-way communication squawk?

A

7600 for emergency 7700

207
Q

outside air temp has dropped to -50 C. Prolonged flight at this temp may cause fuel freezing. What is the best course of action?

A

increase Mach number, which increases the TAT, which will have a warming effect on the outer surface of the wings

208
Q

What is the ISA standard adiabatic temperature lapse rate?

A

2 degrees Celsius per 1000 feet

209
Q

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to ___?

A

notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible

210
Q

You are approaching the holding fix with a ground speed of 240 knots. At what DME will you be 3 minutes from the holding fix?

A

12 DME

211
Q

You are approaching the holding fix with a ground speed of 180 knots. At what DME will you be 3 minutes from the holding fix?

A

9 DME

212
Q

METAR:

A
  1. METeorological reports— Aviation Routine Weather Reports.
  2. Terminal weather OBSERVATIONS.
  3. Normally this will be an hourly surface weather observation issued 5 minutes before each hour. (NOTE: Wind reference TRUE north.)
213
Q

SPECI

A

SPECI—is a special (METAR) report issued because of quickly changing conditions (e.g., WIND direction changes by 45º or more in less than 15 minutes and the wind speed is 10 knots or more; VISIBILITY decreases , increases to equal or exceeds: 3, 2, or 1 mile; RVR changes to above or below 2,400 feet, etc.

214
Q

TAF:

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts.

Is Valid for 24-hour
Is a weather FORECAST

Issued four times a day ((00Z, 06Z, 12Z, and 18Z) of PREDICTED weather conditions expected to occur within a 5 SM radius of an airport. May include expected weather within 5 to 10 SM of the airport (preceded by “VC” in the ViCinity).

large airports in the U.S. (as well as many overseas) now have 30-hour forecasts.

To issue a forecast there must be available at least two consecutive weather observations (METARS).

TAF always begins with “where” & “when” — then moves on to forecast of winds, visibility, weather and sky condition.

215
Q

ATIS / D-ATIS /TDLS

A

(ATIS)Automatic Terminal Information Service Digital-Automatic Terminal Information Service (D-ATIS) is provided by TDLS

Terminal Data Link System (TDLS)
A system that provides Digital-Automatic Terminal Information Service (D-ATIS) both on a specified radio frequency and also, for subscribers, in a text message via data link to the cockpit or to a gate printer. TDLS also provides Pre-departure Clearances (PDC), at selected airports, to subscribers, in text to the cockpit or to a gate printer. In addition, TDLS will emulate the Flight Data Input/Output (FDIO) information within the control tower.

216
Q

What anti/de icing systems on your current aircraft?

A
  • ANTI-ICING
    Either hot air or electrical heating protects critical areas of the aircraft as follows.
    HOT AIR (pneumatic system)
  • three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing. 3,4,5
  • engine air intakes.
    ELECTRICAL HEATING
  • Cockpit windows.
  • sensors, pitot probes, static ports, TAT probes and angle-of-attack probes.
  • waste-water drain mast.
217
Q

Wet Runway

A
  • runway is wet when is not dry, nor contaminated. however a runway can be considered wet when more than 25 percent of the runway surface area is covered by any visible dampness or water that is 1⁄8 inch (3 mm) or less in depth. 
Note: A damp runway that meets this definition is considered wet, regardless of whether or not the surface appears reflective.

A Lower V1 is use when establish Accelerate go distance and ASDA must be increase and screen high is about 15 ft at the end of the runway
LAHSO operations are Not Authorized when wet runway

Additional landing distant required add at least 15% for runway wet

218
Q

CONTAMINATED RUNWAYS

A

a runway is considered contaminated when more than 25 percent of the runway surface area is covered by frost, ice, and any depth of snow, slush, or water.

  1. Takeoffs should not be attempted when standing water, slush, or wet snow greater than ½ inch in depth covers an appreciable part of the runway. Such conditions require corrections for takeoff calculations because of two factors:

a. A reduction in runway friction may increase stopping distance in the case of a rejected takeoff.
b. The drag of water or slush on the landing gear or flaps could cause a retarding force and deceleration force during takeoff.

  1. Any runway that is not dry is considered to be wet. Standing water, puddles, or continuous rain are not necessary for a runway to be considered wet.

Runway braking friction can change even when there is a light drizzle. In many cases, even dew or frost that changes the color of a runway will result in a significant change in runway friction.
Runway surface conditions such as — grooved, not grooved, heavy rubber deposits or new pavement — can have a large effect on braking action. Many newly surfaced asphalt runway surfaces can be extremely slippery when only slightly wet.

  1. A dry runway has no visible moisture on the runway surface, to include standing water, ice, snow, slush, or frost in any form.
  2. Land and Hold Short Operations are not authorized on wet runway surfaces
219
Q

SLOP

A

Strategic lateral offset procedures
SLOP are approved procedures that allow aircraft to fly on a parallel track to the right of the centre line relative to the direction of flight to mitigate the lateral overlap probability due to increased navigation accuracy and wake turbulence encounters. Unless specified in the separation standard, an aircraft’s use of these procedures does not affect the application of prescribed separation standards.

220
Q

Stablized Approach

A
  • The aircraft is on the correct flight path
  • Only small changes in heading/pitch are necessary to maintain the correct flight path
  • The airspeed is not more than VREF + 20kts indicated speed and not less than VREF
  • The aircraft is in the correct landing configuration flaps and gear
  • Sink rate is no greater than 1000 feet/minute; if an approach requires a sink rate greater than 1000 feet/minute a special briefing should be conducted
  • Power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration and is not below the minimum power for the approach as defined by the operating manual
  • All briefings and checklists have been conducted
  • Specific types of approach are stabilized if they also fulfil the following:
    • ILS approaches must be flown within one dot of the glide-slope and localizer
    • a Category II or III approach must be flown within the expanded localizer band
    • during a circling approach wings should be level on final when the aircraft reaches 300 feet above airport elevation; and,
  • Unique approach conditions or abnormal conditions requiring a deviation from the above elements of a stabilized approach require a special briefing.
    An approach that becomes unstabilised below 1000 feet above airport elevation in IMC or 500 feet above airport elevation in VMC requires an immediate go-around.”
221
Q

MINIMUM FUEL ADVISORY”

A

After stating your call sign, the term “Minimum Fuel” should be used. “Atlas 123—Minimum Fuel.”
This is NOT an emergency—but an ADVISORY that an emergency is possible should any undue delay occur.
This term does not imply the need for traffic “priority.”
Really getting nervous? Tell them you need “PRIORITY”—or declare an “EMERGENCY”(means the same).
NEVER use this as a ploy to cut in front of other traffic when you really don’t have a problem

222
Q

Minimum fuel

A

Minimum fuel quantity refers that when the aircraft can only fly for 30 minutes with a holding speed at an altitude of 1500 ft (450m) over airport elevation after the aircraft arrives over the landing airport

223
Q

Emergency fuel

A

When it is estimated that remaining fuel on board at the landing at the nearest and suitable airport is below the planned final reserve fuel, PIC must announce “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL” to declare fuel emergency condition.

The fuel which is required for the airplane driven by turbo engine to fly at 450 M (1500 FT) above the airport at holding speed for 30 minutes in standard ISA condition;

224
Q

What are lost comm procedures?

A

After tried all COM’s possibles
If you experience a radio failure, put the code 7600 on your transponder.
If you can still hear ATC (but not transmit), keep listening for instructions. (A standard procedure for ATC is to ask if you can hear them and have you IDENT in reply. Other questions can also be answered with an IDENT.)
If radio reception is also a problem, listen over nearby VOR and NDB channels, which ATC will also try.

I. VFR: If communications failure happens in VMC, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure and you can stay in VMC, you should continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

II. IFR: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, then you should continue your flight, and ATC will also assume that you are continuing, and clear airspace accordingly. The three elements of the navigation are

  • Route
  • Altitude
  • Leaving the clearance limit in order to shoot the approach
ROUTE
Think of "Avenue F": AVE F. This is the order of priority to your routing:
* as Assigned
* as Vectored
* as Expected
* as Filed.
ALTITUDE
Fly the highest of these three, for the segment of flight you're on:
* Assigned Altitude
* Expected Altitude
* MEA

In flying the highest of these three, your altitude may change repeatedly, because the altitude assigned may be lower than the MEA for certain segments. In this case, you should climb to the higher MEA, and then descend again when the MEA is lower than your assigned or expected altitude.

Address specific departure plates for unique lost comms, such as LAX departures that have specific lost comm procedures in them. Like this Answer Flag Incorrect Answer

225
Q

ATC Light Signals

A

Steady GREEN :Cleared for takeoff- Cleared to land
Flashing GREEN :Cleared to taxi-Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at
proper time)
Steady RED :STOP -Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Flashing RED :Taxi clear of runway in use -Airport unsafe do NOT land
Flashing WHITE : Return to starting point on airport -Not applicable
RED & GREEN Alternating : Exercise extreme caution -Exercise extreme caution

226
Q

What is LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations is an air traffic control procedure for aircraft landing and holding short of an intersecting runway or point on a runway, to balance airport capacity and system efficiency with safety

227
Q

Whats the landing distance for LAHSO?

A

Check the airport diagram and check the distance of LAHSO distant
Calculate landing distance base in the Estimate LW during pre-flight
Airlines decide the max distance or maximum landing weight for LAHSO

228
Q

What is needed to conduct a LAHSO ?

A

OPS SPECS should allowed it
PIC has the final authority to accept o decline
Should be familiar with all available LAHSO operations at their destination
•Available Landing Distance (ALD)
•Calculated aircraft landing distance based on Runway Conditions, Slope
Once Accepted LAHSO must be carried out o Unless a GA is required

Day: Electronic or Visual glide slope
NIGHT: Must HAVE Visual glide slope
With PAPI or VASI o 1,000' and 3sm
Without PAPI or VASI o 1,500' and 5sm
ALD is dry 
N/A for wet runway
Tailwind less than 3 knots 
N/A is windshear is reported 
Runway hold short markings , lights and signs are on 
Air carries have to train their pilots for LAHSO
229
Q

CRM/TEM

A

CRM
Crew Resource Management (working with the crew, dispatch, ATC…). Threat Error Management (elimination of threats)
CRM Crew Resource Management is using all available resources to optimize your decision making process, that is using the combined skills and knowledge of everyone who is involved to make a successful and safe flight.

TEM Threat Error Management (elimination of threats)
There are two types of threats

– External Threats – Those outside of your control (e.g., weather, lack of equipment, hard to understand documentation, system errors, inadequate lighting)

– Internal (Human) Threats – Those within our control (e.g., fatigue, loss of situation awareness, stress, disregard for following procedures)

230
Q

Transition level / Transition Altitude •

A

QNH (Nautical Height) hectopascal/milibares /—-/ In hg
QNE (Nautical Elevation) pressure altitude aka ISA standard 29.92” or 1013.2 mb/hPa
QFE (Field Elevation) QFE is the actual surface pressure at the airport. The altimeter will read ZERO feet when the aircraft is on the
ground

Transition altitude/levels vary from country to country and can vary from airport to airport within a country. They can be found in the “Altimeter Setting Data Box” on en-route charts, STARs, approach charts, Departure Procedures, and/or broadcast on ATIS or assigned by ATC. Transition altitude/levels may be designated anywhere from 2,000 feet MSL up to 20,000 feet MSL depending on the country or the individual airport. These altitudes can also be different when climbing away from or descending down to the same airport and can change daily in some countries.

231
Q

What are Part 121 international and domestic fuel requirements?

A
  • FR Fuel Supply (DOMESTIC):
      1. Fly to the destination—shoot an approach—(most distant) alternate and fly 45 minutes at normal cruise .
    • Trip fuel + most distant Alt + 45min
    • FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL Jet Operations Outside the U.S:
      1. Fly to and land at the airport to which it is released;
      1. After that. 10% of the total time
      1. After that, most distant alternate
      1. After that, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate airport ) under standard temperature conditions.
    • Trip fuel + 10% TT+ most distant Alt + 30 min (1500 ft)
    • FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL Operation
    • when No Alternate is Specified
    • wind and other weather conditions
    • Trip fuel + 2 hours fuel ( consider wind and weather )
232
Q

How do you determine take off minimums?

A

Airport diagram Charts

233
Q

Approach weather required

A

1 an airport MUST have WEATHER REPORTING from an “approved source” in order to conduct an instrument approach and the current ceiling, visibility, and altimeter setting must be available.

  1. a pilot CANNOT BEGIN the APPROACH unless the weather is at or above approach minimums. VISIBILITY is CONTROLLING. Ceiling must be “considered” for Part 135 operations because 135.225 refers to “weather conditions” not just visibility (FAA legal opinion). Ceiling must be “considered” but it does not necessarily prevent a 135 pilot from shooting an approach. Part 121 would not have to consider ceiling unless “CEILING REQUIRED” is noted on the approach chart
  2. “A pilot may begin an instrument approach procedure, or continue an approach, at an airport when the visibility is reported to be less than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure if the pilot uses an operable EFVS (Enhanced Flight Vision Systems) in accordance with §91.176 and the certificate holder’s operations specifications for EFVS operations.”
  3. If you have begun the approach and later weather goes below minimums you can continue the approach and land if you find — upon reaching MDA or DH — that the actual weather conditions — i.e. FLIGHT VISIBILITY (what YOU see), is at least equal to landing minimums. In other words, once you have started the approach you are still beholden to 91.175 (Takeoff and Landing Under IFR) and 91.13 (Careless or Reckless Operations). The more conservative method is to discontinue the approach if weather goes below minimums… ‘cause… if you crash you’re definitely screwed!
  4. Lowest authorized straight-in Category I landing minimums — for ANY airport — are 1800 RVR (TDZ) or ½ mile tower visibility.
  5. Tower visibility values below ½ mile are NOT authorized. That means if the RVR equipment is inoperative or non-existent, you cannot land if the tower visibility goes below ½ mile [unless approved for Enhanced Flight Vision System (EFVS) operations].
  6. RVR value (if available) TAKES PRECEDENCE OVER TOWER VISIBILITY.
234
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude —
It guarantee navigational coverage & 1,000 ft obstacle clearance over flat terrain or 2,000 ft obstacle clearance over mountainous terrain within 4NM either side

  • navigation reception except for the Gap zones
  • two-way communication with ATC
  • safe clearance or margin from obstacles
  • adherence to ATC or local procedures
235
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
— The lowest published altitude in between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that guarantee obstacle clearance 1000ft above ground or landmarks with navigational coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.
The MOCA may put an aircraft below ATC radar coverage (MRVA) and/or below the minimum reception altitude (MRA).

236
Q

MSA block

A

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) are published for emergency use on approach charts. MSAs provide 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage.

NOTE: Normal coverage is a 25 NM radius from the forming facility/fix. If the protected coverage is other than 25 NM, that radius is depicted below the forming facility/fix.

237
Q

HOLDING Standard and Non- Standard holding patterns.

A

Standard holding patterns are RIGHT turns. Nonstandard are LEFT turns.
When ATC does not provide a turn direction, standard RIGHT turns are implied and expected.

238
Q

Weather symbols, Jet Stream and Wind Speeds.

A

et streams are Narrow bands of strong wind that generally blow from west to east all across the globe.

Jet streams with a maximum speed of more than 80 knots are identified by bold lines.
Jet stream lines lie along the core of maximum winds. Arrowheads on the lines indicate the orientation of each jet stream. Double hatched lines positioned along the jet core identify changes of wind speed about more less 20 knots. These speed indicators are drawn at 20-knot intervals and begin with 100 knots. Wind speed maximums along the jet core are characterized by wind symbols and altitudes. A standard wind symbol (shaft, pennants, and barbs) is placed at each pertinent position to identify velocity. The altitude in hundreds of feet prefaced with “FL” is placed adjacent to each wind symbol.

Half feathers :5 knots
Feathers : 10 knots
Barbs: 50 knots

239
Q

NOTAMS:

A

NOTAM information is classified into 6 categories:

  • Domestic, or NOTAM (D), airport information
    all navigation facilities, Information includes such data as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, and airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, such as VASI.-FICON NOTAM — Field Condition NOTAMs:
    Field Condition NOTAMs:
    1. NOTAMs that communicate runway and taxiway
    conditions during snow or ice events.
    2. May also contain information concerning plowed widths
    and snowbanks.

-FDC (Flight Data Center) NOTAMs: aeronautical chart information
1. Regulatory in nature.
2. Contain such things as amendments to published IAPs and other current aeronautical charts.
3. Also used to advertise temporary flight restrictions (TFRs) caused by such things as natural disasters or large-scale
public events that may generate a congestion of air traffic over a site.

Pointer NOTAMs: Highlight or point out another NOTAM
1. Highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D) NOTAM

SAA Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs
1. Issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule
times and when required by the published schedule

Military NOTAMs:
Pertaining to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational
aids/airports that are part of the NAS.

240
Q

RUNWAYS LIGHTS

A

Runway Edge Lights:
White lights, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone.

Runway lights are uniformly spaced at intervals of approximately 200 feet not more than 10 feet from the edge of the full strength pavement. Lights marking the end of the runway emit red light toward the runway.

Centerline Lights:
The lights are located along the runway centerline at 50-foot intervals. The line of lights is offset a maximum of 2 feet to either the right or left side of the runway [centerline] marking and should be to the opposite side of the centerline marking from the major taxiway turnoffs.

When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with white/red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.

Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL):
Start 100 feet beyond the landing threshold and extend to 3,000 ft beyond the threshold

Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL):
Two synchronized, unidirectional flashing lights positioned on each corner of the runway landing threshold

241
Q

Approach Lights

A

ALSF-I -App Lighting Sys with sequenced Flashing lights
ALSF-II—App Lighting Sys with sequenced Flashing lights and red side rows last 1000
MALS—Medium intensity App Light Sys
MALSF—Medium intensity App Light Sys with Sequenced Flashers
MALSR—Medium intensity App Light Sys with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
ODALS—OmniDirectional App Lighting Sys
SALS—Short App Lighting Sys
SALSF—Short App Lighting Sys with Sequenced Flashing lights
SSALF—Simplified Short App Lighting Sys with sequenced Flashers
SSALR—Simplified Short App Lighting Sys
with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
SSALS— Simplified Short App Lighting Sys

Approach Light Systems (ALS) are a configuration of signal lights starting at the landing threshold and extending into the approach area a distance of 2400 - 3000 feet for PRECISION instrument runways and 1400 - 1500 feet for NONPRECISION instrument runways. Some systems include sequenced flashing lights which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at high speed (twice a second) — aka — “the rabbit”

When the lights are non- standard without a note is unknown, if it has a note like CL (50W, 20R&W,20R) 5000 white , 2000 Red and White , 2000 Red,

HST high speed taxiway , Green and yellow 50 feet a part

242
Q

What are the Category 1 and category 2 Airspace

A
  • Category 1 is airspace that falls within 750nm of ground based navigational sources. Navigation with service volumes VOR, NDB
    • Category 2 is everything else. Outside of service Volumes
243
Q

Class I and II Navigation

A

Class I Navigation:
Class I navigation is any en route flight operation conducted in controlled or uncontrolled airspace that is entirely within the Operational Service Volumes standard navigational aids (NAVAIDs) VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, etc.).

Class I navigation also includes en route flight operations over routes designated with a “MEA GAP” (or ICAO equivalent). En route flight operations conducted within these areas are defined as “Class I navigation” operations irrespective of the navigation means used. Class I navigation includes operations within these areas using pilotageor any other means of navigation which does not rely on the use of VOR, VOR/DME, or NDB.

Class II Navigation:
Class II navigation is any en route operation that is not categorized as Class I navigation and includes any operation or portion of an operation that takes place outside the Operational Service Volumes of ICAO standard NAVAIDs. For example, aircraft equipped only with VORs conducts Class II navigation when the flight operates in an area outside the operational service volumes of federal VORs.

Class II navigation does not automatically require the use of long-range, specialized navigational systems if special navigational techniques are used to supplement conventional NAVAIDs. Class II navigation includes transoceanic operations and operations in desolate and remote land areas, such as the Arctic.

The primary types of specialized navigational systems approved for Class II operations include Inertial Navigation System (INS), Doppler, and Global Positioning System (GPS).

244
Q

TWIP: Terminal Weather Information for Pilots (TWIP)

A

Description of microburst alerts, wind shear alerts, significant. precipitation, convective activity within 30 NM surrounding the terminal area, and expected weather that will impact airport operations.

245
Q

Go Around Requirements

A

The approach is unstable in speed, altitude, or flight path in such a way that stability is not obtained by 1 000 ft IMC or 500 ft VMC or is not maintained until landing

  • Any GPWS, Windshear or ROW (Runway Overrun Warning) (if ROPS (Runway Overrun Prevention System)is installed) alert occurs
  • Adequate visual cues are not obtained reaching the minima or lost below minima
  • and other possibilities .. GO AROUND…………..
246
Q

Go around with minimum fuel 30 minutes

A

if VMC could be a chance to immediate return to land , if IMC radar vectors to return to land , we already in emergency if not help (traffic, vectors )we committed the landing AUTOLAND no fuel ………….

247
Q

Four Segments (all assuming an engine failure at V1 )

A
  • Four stages of climb (single-engine):
    • 1st Segment: VR cross 35 feet , accelerating to V2, gear UP
    • 2nd Segment: Gear up to 400 feet maintaining V2 2.4% (300fpm 24ftx1000ft fwd) (4 ENG 3.0%)
    • 3rd Segment: Acceleration altitude at 400 feet. Accelerate to retract flaps. 1.2% (4 ENG 1.7%)
    • 4th segment: 400 feet with clean configuration to 1500 ft at VFTO level out and run applicable checklists
248
Q

TCAS I / TCAS II

A

Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System — “TCAS”
TCAS I — Utilizes interrogations of, and replies from, Mode C and Mode S
transponders and provides traffic advisories to the pilot

TCAS II — Provides traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution advisories (RAs).
Resolution advisories provide recommended maneuvers in a vertical direction (climb or descend only) to avoid conflicting traffic.

249
Q

ADS-B

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast aka NextGen:
1. Automatic—The aircraft automatically reports. Dependent—Depends on WAAS GPS on board and an ADS-B transmitter. Surveillance—Allows ATC to watch airplanes. Broadcast—You broadcast your position.

250
Q

ASAP REPORTS

A

The Aerospace Safety Advisory Panel (ASAP) is an independent group of experts that advises NASA

251
Q

PRIA

A

requires that a hiring air carrier under 14 CFR parts 121 and 135, or a hiring air operator under 14 CFR part 125, request, receive, and evaluate certain information concerning a pilot/applicant’s training, experience, qualification, and safety background, before allowing that individual to begin service as a pilot with their company.