ATP written Flashcards

1
Q

Figure 46 and 47 V1 and Vr speeds

A

If Vr = 117, Vr = 130, Vr = 133.7, or one Vr = 143

If not, choose highest Vr

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2
Q

Weight and balance low mid high

A

WS - 2
WS - 4
AC- 10

“At landing weight”

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3
Q

Operating conditions low

A

XZ

Except X-5 is 2h55 Z-2 is 1h46

W-2 Distance

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4
Q

Operating conditions Mid

A

D V R

W-2 weight

W-4 weight

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5
Q

What is the required flight visibility and distance form cloud if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500’ with a VFR on top clearance during daylight hours

A

3sm, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontally

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6
Q

What is min flight vis and cloud clearance for a flight under VFR in Class E airspace above 10,000’

A

5miles, 1, 1, 1sm

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7
Q

The flight instruction of other pilots in ATO service by and ATP is restricted to

A

36hrs/7 days

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8
Q

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet powered airplane at the dest airport if the runway is forecast to be wet/slippery at ETA

A

115% of the runway length required for a dry runway

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9
Q

If no quick donning o2 mask, max flight level allowed without one pilot wearing one?

A

Fl250

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10
Q

Max hours in 7 days as PIC?

A

32 hours

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11
Q

If a supplemental air carrier has a diversion, who is responsible?

A

PIC and director of operations

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12
Q

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non precipitation conditions is to

A

Decrease the freezing point

Adding water decreases the freezing point

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13
Q

Freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water, however

A

Ice is slow to absorb it, and slow to melt when in contact with it.

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14
Q

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

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15
Q

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A

6,000 ft/min

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16
Q

What is the definition of ‘severe wind-shear’

A

Airspeed changes greater than 15 knots

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17
Q

Which areas of the Northern hemisphere experience a generally E to W movement of weather systems

A

Arctic and subtropical

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18
Q

How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the convective outlook chart.

A

SLGT within any area

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19
Q

For international oceanic flights, a U.S high level sig wx (SIGWX) chart is prepared for use

A

Between FL250 and FL630

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20
Q

What information is provided by a convective outlook (AC)

A

It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours

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21
Q

The hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of

A

SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), And Center Weather Advisories (CWA)

AWW, CWA are the two that you need to differentiate

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22
Q

On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using

A

A square

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23
Q

The tropopause varies from

A

20,000’ or below at the poles

65,000 at the equator

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24
Q

SIGMETs (other than convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not more than

A

4 hours for continuing phenomena

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25
Q

A SIGMET is issued when weather affects

A

3,000 square miles or more

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26
Q

Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued

A

Hourly

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27
Q

Flight duty periods are limited to _______ hours in any 168 consecutive hours

A

60

28
Q

How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight were increased 10%

A

10%

29
Q

At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical mach number

A

5-10% higher

30
Q

Flight duty periods is limited to _____ in 168 consecutive hours

A

60

31
Q

How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight were increased by 10%

A

10%

32
Q

Hight thrust to weight ratio 10% incr in gross weight increases takeoff distance by

A

21%

33
Q

1000’ increase in density altitude for high thrust to weight ratio, increases takeoff distance by

A

7%

34
Q

Friction braking becomes effective at

A

70-80% touchdown speed

35
Q

The Specific fuel range of a turbojet at 40,000’ is approx ____% greater than at sea level

A

150%

36
Q

A rule of thumb states for a 1000’ increase in density altitude for a low thrust ti weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of

A

10%

37
Q

10% increase in Takeoff weight for low thrust to weight ratio increases distance by

A

25-30%

38
Q

Supercooled water droplets have been observed at temps as low as

A

-40C

39
Q

For turbulence areas you would do well to avoid areas

A

40kts wind-shear over 150 miles

40
Q

Max hours in a calendar month

A

100

41
Q

The authority to exercise operational control lies with the

A

Air carrier

42
Q

Convective sigmet is issued when winds usts greater than or equal to

A

50 knots

43
Q

A dry line indicates

A

An area where the easterly boundary of high humidity increases the probability of TS activity

44
Q

Severe turbulence not associated with a TS will result in the issuance of a

A

SIGMET

45
Q

If no takeoff mins are prescribed, minima is

A

1 SM

46
Q

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night

A

Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white

47
Q

LAHSO lights consist of

A

Pulsating white lights

48
Q

IFR minima

Precision
Non precision

A

600-2

800-2

49
Q

For flight planning, a designated ETOPS up to 180 mins Need;

ICAO fire fighting Cat level __ unless it can be augmented within __ mins

A

4

30 mins

50
Q

If your environmental system fails and the cockpit is much cooler than anticipated

A

You will have reduced blood flow in the ETREMITIES

51
Q

Cause of degradation to anti ice fluid

A

High wind velocity

52
Q

Human error contributes to ___ % of air crashes

A

60-80%

53
Q

The lowest ILS Cat II minima is

A

DH 100 RVR 1,200

54
Q

Predisposition is

A

To respond in a given manner

55
Q

What are FDC NOTAMS and what are D NOTAMS

A
FDC = IAPs and charts 
D = Taxiways etc
56
Q

Dew point fronts result from

A

Air density difference due to HUMIDITY LEVELS

57
Q

What conditions are required to be cleared a visual approach

A

1,000’ 3 miles

58
Q

With the runway centre line lights INOP and no FD or HUD, minima on CATI is

A

200’ 2400 RVR

59
Q

Max flight time sign on before 0400 is

A

8 hours

60
Q

Standard Takeoff minima

A

800-2
900 1 1/2
1000 1

61
Q

Attitude is a motivational predisposition to

A

____In a given manner

62
Q

Without schedules rest opportunities, no flight crew member may accept an assignment for how many consecutive night shifts

A

3 that infringe on window of circadian low

63
Q

You just touched down faster than planned, what illusion?

A

Atmospheric distance illusion

64
Q

If the VGSI and vertical descent angle do not coincide

A

The VGSI will be below the descent angle

65
Q

If you have to taxi back in, how long do you have before you void your clearance

A

30 mins

66
Q

One typical takeoff error is

A

Excess rotation decreases takeoff acceleration