ATPL Systems and Aerodynamics Questions

Question 1

1. What area in the engine does not normally need anti-ice proctection?

Answer 1

1. First stage of the compressor.

Anti-icing is typically not needed for the compressor blades since the h

Question 2

1. Which part of the engine produces the most dominant noise?

Answer 2

1. fan and Turbine

Anti-icing is typically not needed for the compressor blades since the h

Question 3

1. What is the best fuel to air ratio?

Answer 3

1. 1:15

Question 4

1. In a free turbine type engine (turbo prop) the free power turbine?

Answer 4

1. Not connected to any other turbine shaft.

The Free turbine has its own shaft / spool connected to a reduction gear

Question 5

1. In flight engine bleed air for anti-icing to the wing leading edges in known icing conditions is?

Answer 5

1. Used continuously.

Question 6

1. An aircraft with a TAS of 300 kts has a fuel burn of 3000kg/hr. The specific AIR RANGE as a ratio of distance travelled per tonne of fuel would be most correctly expressed as a ratio of?

Answer 6

1. 100nm/Tonne

SAR = TAS / FF = 300 / 3000 = 0.1nm/kg x 1000kg/1 ton = 100nm/1000kg

Question 7

1. Reverse thrust is most useful on large transport turnbine aircraft and at?

Answer 7

1. At high forward speed in the landing roll.

Reverse thrust is always deployed at the beginning of the landing roll w

Question 8

1. Regarding the specific gravity of jet fuel..?

Answer 8

1. Calorific value does not effect SG.

SG varies with temperature for AVTUR (Jet Fuel) but not with Calorific (

Question 9

1. An advantage of an axial compressor in a gas turbine engine is?

Answer 9

1. Axial Thrust.

Axial compressors provide a bigger pressure ruse and consumes more air.

Question 10

1. Reverse Thrust during the landing roll on a transport jet is most effective at:

Answer 10

1. High Speed, High RPM.

If thrust reverse is used at low speed, hot or turbulent air can enter t

Question 11

1. In order to avoid aeration of the fuel lines in a jet transport aircraft, the fuel system incorporates what?

Answer 11

1. Boost Pumps.

Boost Pumps prevent bubble accumulation by providing positive pressure d

Question 12

1. The RPM of a GAS turbine APU in a large jet transport aircraft is controlled by?

Answer 12

1. Fuel (Governor) FCU.

The fuel generator provides constant speed for the APU.

Question 13

1. The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on?

Answer 13

1. TAS, RPM and Compressor outles pressure.

Question 14

1. The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to?

Answer 14

1. Motor the engine with the fuel supply cut OFF.

Motoring the engine allows the engine to continuously rotate the turbine

Question 15

1. The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft is greatest?

Answer 15

1. On the brakes on the runway at full thrust.

As forward speed increases, thrust decreases until the RAM RECOVERY poin

Question 16

1. In a large transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks can cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling maneuvres. This is prevented by?

Answer 16

1. Baffles in the fuel tanks.

Baffles are dividing partitions that limit the movement of fuel in the t

Question 17

1. The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is?

Answer 17

1. To raise gas velocity.

Thrust can only be increased by either increases the ,ass of the air or

Question 18

1. Regarding the function of the reverse thrust system on a high bypass turbo fan engine?

Answer 18

1. Blocker doors are used to divert the cold stream.

On turbofan engines, the reverse thrust is on the cold by-pass air only. Cold stream reversers often use blocker doors in the by-pass ducts to redirect air out through cascade vanes in the engine cowling.

Hot stream thrust reversers often use the clamshell design or bucket targets in which two doors swing into position to deflect the hot exhaust stream in a forwards direction.

Question 19

1. The purpose of air shroud on an atomizer type (duplex) fuel spray nozzle in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is?

Answer 19

1. To reduce carbon deposits around the nozzle tip and the nozzle.

Shrouds are just openings around the nozzle.

Question 20

The function of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is?

Answer 20

1. To prevent compressor blade stall when the engine is operating at low RPM.

These are located after the rotating compressor blades and adjusts the airflow to the correct angle of attack,

Question 21

1. EPR (engine presure ratio) is the ratio of?

Answer 21

1. Engine Compressor inlet pressure to jet pipe pressure.

EPR is the ratio of the air entering and leaving the engine. Simply the ratio of the inlet and exhaust jet pipe.

Question 22

1. In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine?

Answer 22

1. Gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temprature decreases

Bernoulli’s principle: In the turbine section we can treat it as a converging duct that causes pressure and temperature to decrease and velocity to increase.

Question 23

1. The failure of the bleed vlave to close in a gas turbine engine after start will result in?

Answer 23

1. An EGT rise.

Bleed valves are opened during start to prevent too much air entering the engine which causes stalling or surge. If after start the bleed air is still open, there will be less bypass air being exhausted and only the air from the engine core, which is last, is exhausted

Question 24

1. The “Ram Ratio” in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of?

Answer 24

1. Total pressure to static pressure at the air intake.

Question 25

1. On a turbojet powered aircraft, the front engine EPR probes are blocked. As the pilot advances the thrust lever to take-off EPR, the EPR gauge will?

Answer 25

1. Over read and the thrust will be less. ## Footnote Based on EPR reading gauge will think you have a lot of exhaust pressure therefore will over read and indicate more thrust than the actual thrust that is set. Are they static???

Question 26

1. If an aircraft generator CSD is disconnected in flight, the correct method for re-connection is?

Answer 26

1. Mechanically on the ground. ## Footnote CSD completely detaches itself, therefore can only be connected again manually,

Question 27

1. The by-pass ratio of a gas turbine engine is?

Answer 27

1. The ratio of By-pass air to core air. ## Footnote High by-pass means more air passing through the by-pass duct compared to the engine core (turbofan) Low by-pass means less air is passing through the by-pass duct than the core (turbojet)

Question 28

1. Regarding RAM effects influence on thrust output?

Answer 28

1. It results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases. ## Footnote Initially thrust decreases as forward speed increases until the ram effect recovers all the thrust again.

Question 29

1. For a constant RPM in a gas turbine engine, a decrease in air density will?

Answer 29

1. Decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust. ## Footnote Air that is less dense means power available for the engine. As air density decreases there is less resistance to the compressor rotating meaning less force required to turn it.

Question 30

1. The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert?

Answer 30

1. Kinetic energy to pressure energy ## Footnote Air moving towards the engine (Kinetic) is gradually compressed by the compressor and increases its pressure and velocity.

Question 31

1. The two most critical factors in determining the in-flight re-light or restart of a turbojet engine are?

Answer 31

1. Altitude and Airspeed ## Footnote In order to restart a turbo jet engine the air must be compressed, meaning more pressure, Air speed provides an increase in pressure through ram air. Altitude is inversely proportional to pressure, the higher the altitude, the lower the pressure.

Question 32

1. Factors affecting VMCA, An A/C without negative torque sensing, propeller should be?

Answer 32

1. Feathered ## Footnote By feathering the propeller you reduce drag and prevents the propeller from rotating faster than the gear box (negative torque)

Question 33

1. Regarding the diffuser in the engine and its affect on air??

Answer 33

1. Divergent duct, converts kinetic to pressure. ## Footnote Diffusers are located after that last the compressor and serves as a divergent duct, increasing pressure.

Question 34

1. What makes the Propeller Feathered when the engine fails?

Answer 34

1. TSS (Thrust Sensitive Signal) or auto feather system ## Footnote This is a safety feature that automatically feathers the propeller during engine failure on take-off.

Question 35

1. What is a hung start characterized by?

Answer 35

1. Low RPM and High EGT ## Footnote Hung start occurs when during engine start, RPM fails to teach the normal or self-sustaining RPM. This might lead to an EGT Rise as well as causing a Hot Start. (revise starting issues)

Question 36

1. Factors affecting thrust

Answer 36

1. Temperature ## Footnote Aircraft thrust and performance are affected by RPM, Density, Altitude and Temperature.

Question 37

1. Where is the highest pressure found in a turbojet engine?

Answer 37

1. Impeller to diffuser ## Footnote The highest pressure is found at the final stages of the compressor right before the combustion chamber.

Question 38

1. What is the advantage of annular combustion chamber

Answer 38

1. Better and efficient pressure and flame Propagation. Compact but not structural.

Question 39

1. Where is the highest velocity found in a gas turbine engine?

Answer 39

1. exhaust area. nozzle ## Footnote Propeller nozzles are used in high speed aircraft to further increase the velocity of the air.

Question 40

1. What is the purpose of combustion?

Answer 40

1. Increase velocity and temperature ## Footnote Combustion in a Gas Turbine Engine occurs in constant pressure and increases temperature and velocity.

Question 41

1. What is the importance of constant fuel flow to the combustion chamber?

Answer 41

1. To prevent flame out

Question 41

1. Compared to turbojets, turbo fans have

Answer 41

1. Lower thrust for a given mass of air

Question 42

1. How does the starter motor disengage from the engine

Answer 42

1. The starter motor is automatically disengaged via the clutch once the engine reaches a self-sustaining speed.

Question 43

1. Which of the following occurs when you are already in a self-sustaining state?

Answer 43

1. When the engine could accelerate without the assistance of the starter motor ## Footnote Self-sustaining state is when 35-50% of the engine is accelerated without the assistance of the starter motor. At 55-60% idle RPM, engine is in stabilized idle. Stater motor turns the turbine

Question 44

1. You are taking off from a short runway at max take-off weight, the position of the bleed valves should be?

Answer 44

1. OFF, to increase mass air flow ## Footnote Operation of bleed valves reduces the performance of the engine as it uses some of the air that should have been part of the thrust produced.

Question 45

1. What is the effect of temperature rise on SG?

Answer 45

1. Decreases ## Footnote A higher temperature yields a lower SG.

Question 46

1. What happens to jet engine thrust when humidity increases?

Answer 46

1. Slightly decrease ## Footnote As humidity increases, there are less oxygen molecules to burn as it is less dense than dry air. A/C engines are built for cold and dry air.

Question 47

1. What is the most common ice protection used on modern turboprops? (props?)

Answer 47

1. Thermal Electric

Question 48

1. What leads airflow to the turbine?

Answer 48

1. Nozzle guide vanes ## Footnote They direct air coming from the combustion chamber, whilst at the same time converting pressure to kinetic energy and increasing the air’s velocity.

Question 49

1. In heavy rain during takeoff, the combustion in a gas turbine engine will be?

Answer 49

1. Low energy, high output

Question 50

1. What does NTS do?

Answer 50

1. Increase blade angle when there is a sign of plant negative torque ## Footnote Negative Torque Sensing System sends a signal to increase the blade angle whenever negative torque is going out of limit. A separate coupling serves as a back-up to the NTS when it disengages from the gear box from the engine, when negative torque exceeds a preset value.

Question 51

1. Which part of the APU is bled to start the engine?

Answer 51

1. Exhaust

Question 52

1. Why is AVTUR safer when there is a spillage?

Answer 52

1. High Flashpoint

Question 53

1. Which will give you less thrust on take-off?

Answer 53

1. High density altitude ## Footnote High density altitude implies a high ISA DEV which assumes from a higher OAT than standard ISA TEMP.

Question 54

1. Maximum L/D is X. If you want to climb at max angle of climb, what speed should you fly at?

Answer 54

X The minimum drag speed = Best L/D Ratio, Max glide range, minimum fuel flow per hour or best endurance, max excess thrust or max angle of climb.

Question 55

1. You are flying “straight and level” and you want to achieve maximum range. You should fly at the minimum

Answer 55

1. Drag/TAS ## Footnote At a constant altitude, max range is achieved by flying at an AOA that yields min fuel per mile or best TAS/Drag Ratio.

Question 56

1. A Yaw Damper prevents

Answer 56

1. Lateral static stability ## Footnote Static lateral stability is the tendency of the down going wing to return back to its level condition by rolling to the opposite direction. Dutch roll is characterized by strong lateral stability which is prevented with the use of a yaw damper.

Question 57

1. Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience

Answer 57

1. Constant density, increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity ## Footnote In subsonic flow of air through a divergent duct, density is constant, pressure increases and velocity decreases. In supersonic flow, density decreases, pressure decreases and velocity increases.

Question 58

1. If the angle of attack is increased on a swept wing compared to an un-swept wing of similar area and aspect ratio the swept wing will produce?

Answer 58

1. Less lift and more drag Due to induced drag from span wise flow (tip vortices) ## Footnote With the same amount of AOA, the lift is lesser for the swept wing. As AOA increases, drag increases (induced drag)

Question 59

1. In comparison to an un-swept wing, a swept wing will have?

Answer 59

1. Lower max CL at subsonic and transonic speeds

Question 60

1. In supersonic airflow, static pressure behind an expansion wave will

Answer 60

1. Decrease relative to the pressure ahead of the wave ## Footnote Air behind the expansion wave increases in velocity, therefore causing a decrease in the pressure behind the wave.

Question 61

1. In steady asymmetric flight in a twin-engine jet transport category aircraft, the crew elect to level the wings. The position of the balance ball in this situation will be?

Answer 61

1. centered ## Footnote Wings level method in asymmetric flight rudder only

Question 62

1. An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag to move

Answer 62

1. Up and right ## Footnote As weight increases, drag increases as more thrust is required. With this, speed increases as well. Thus drag moves up and to the right.

Question 63

1. The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move

Answer 63

1. up and left ## Footnote Spoilers are used to destroy lift causing more drag, which increases the weight therefore decreases the speed.

Question 64

1. The extension of the landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move

Answer 64

1. Up and left ## Footnote The landing gear is a large source of drag and thus there is a speed reduction required, decreasing the drag speed but increases the total drag.

Question 65

1. A B767 is in cruise with the stabilizer trim set correctly for a relatively forward CoG, the position of the elevator would be?

Answer 65

1. Faired ## Footnote The stabilizer trim moves, while the elevator moves opposite to it. Thus a Forward CoG moves the trim to an upward position to compensate for the nose down motion, while the elevator will move opposite. As it is set correctly, elevator is now here.

Question 66

1. Concerning the characteristics of the airflow behind a normal shockwave?

Answer 66

1. Pressure and temperature increase ## Footnote Airflow behind a shockwave becomes subsonic causing a decrease in velocity, therefore giving a rise in pressure and temperature. Just as in a converging duct.

Question 67

1. A variable incidence tail plane with stabilizer trim as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim

Answer 67

1. Can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim ## Footnote The stabilizer itself is a larger control surface than the elevator so flight maneuvers will produced great control force when out of trim.

Question 68

1. Regarding forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb

Answer 68

1. Lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

Question 69

1. When the right engine fails, what happens to the balance ball if 5 to live is applied?

Answer 69

1. Slightly left ## Footnote 5 to the live engine in asymmetric flight aims to bank the aircraft 5 degrees to the live engine with the ball about halfway to the left when the right engine fails

Question 70

1. The ZFW limitation is to limit:

Answer 70

1. Wing structure limits in the air??? 1. Wing structure limits on ground??? Which answer is it? ## Footnote ZFW limitations are imposed to prevent over stressing of the wings and the wing struts on the ground during refueling and loading of the passengers.

Question 71

1. Thrust on climb is:

Answer 71

1. Total Drag + Weight Component ## Footnote Thrust must be supplied to oppose both drag and the weight component

Question 72

1. Yaw damper aids or improves

Answer 72

1. Longitudinal instability

Question 73

1. Slats are effective at

Answer 73

1. High AOA.

Question 74

1. From stall speed, you increase power, induced drag will?

Answer 74

1. Decrease

Question 75

1. What is the effect of leading edge slats in the landing approach

Answer 75

1. Increase lift coefficient through chordwise flow ## Footnote Slats create a slat in the leading edge of the wing, energizing the boundary layer and increasing lift. Its movement is leading edge to trailing edge, thus chordwise flow.

Question 76

1. The left engine is the critical engine, the most adverse is?

Answer 76

1. Right engine, thrust arm ## Footnote If left engine is critical, the right engine produces the most adverse yaw as it has a longer arm of thrust line from the aircraft CoG.

Question 77

1. The Aircraft is slightly above the stall speed, if the speed increases, what will happen to induced drag

Answer 77

Decrease ## Footnote Induced drag decreases as speed increases.

Question 78

1. In an expansion wave, what happens to the static pressure?

Answer 78

Decrease ## Footnote In an expansion wave, air flow in front has a higher pressure because the velocity is lower. Behind the expansion wave, air velocity increases causing a decrease in static pressure.

Question 79

1. What happens to the coefficient of drag as airspeed increases from below Mach 1.0?

Answer 79

1. Increase then Decrease??????? ## Footnote As the Aircraft passes Mach 1.0, it eventually transitions from the transonic range to the supersonic range, Where there airflow is all supersonic and no shockwave interrupting the boundary layer. Therefore increasing lift and decreasing drag.

Question 80

1. What factors directly affect VMCG?

Answer 80

1. Landing Gear contact with the runway ## Footnote VMCG is affected by the landing gear contact with the runway as it helps resist the yawing movement of the aircraft towards the engine inop

Question 81

1. MCDR and MCRIT, what happens with sweepback?

Answer 81

1. Both increase

Question 82

1. You are in a steady climb of 1000fpm, you increase the angle to 8000fpm, what happens to the lift component?

Answer 82

1. Decrease ## Footnote As you increase the angle of attack, speed decreases and as speed decreases, the lift decreases as well.

Question 83

1. You are cruising at speed X, EAS for maximum range. What is the speed when you climb and target to fly maximum range?

Answer 83

1. Faster than X ## Footnote Flying at a constant EAS and trying to

Question 84

1. CL of a swept wing with a comparable area and aspect ratio

Answer 84

1. Less throughout subsonic and supersonic speeds ## Footnote CL for a swept wing is less than that of a straight wing.

Question 85

1. An aircraft is cruising higher than normal and at normal cruising speed and experiences buffeting, this buffeting could be?

Answer 85

1. Either low speed or high speed buffet and difficult to identify

Question 86

1. Left engine is the Critical engine, which statement is correct?

Answer 86

1. Left engine fails, greater arm ## Footnote The critical engine has a shorter arm of thrust line to the CoG than the other engine.

Question 87

1. Flying at speed X, which is the Max L/D. What speed will you fly for max endurance?

Answer 87

1. Same as X ## Footnote Max L/D = Minimum drag and minimum drag produces the least fuel flow required to stay longer in the air, resulting in max endurance. Thus you are already flying at max endurance.

Question 88

1. Where are vortex generators placed, if any at all to minimize high speed drag separation?

Answer 88

1. Above the wing ## Footnote Vortex generators are there to produce turbulent airflow that energizes the boundary layer of the air on top of the wing to delay the separation point.

Question 89

1. On a large jet transport aircraft, the leading edge devices cannot be deployed. The aircraft should approach at?

Answer 89

1. Higher than normal speed and Lower AOA. ## Footnote Leading edge devices such as slats causes an increase in lift, resulting in a higher AOA and also increase drag which lowers the speed. If the slats are inoperative, the aircraft must approach at a lower AOA and a higher than normal speed to maintain safe lift generation.

Question 90

1. If TCAS is inhibited when an RA Advisory Traffic is detected. The RA symbol is displayed as?

Answer 90

As TA ## Footnote When TCAS is deactivated temporarily, traffic appears as a TA and TA still appears as a TA but also has an aural warning.

Question 91

1. During autopilot operation of ALT HOLD you lose connection with the bus bar something. Where would the aircraft ger information from to maintain altitude?

Answer 91

1. Autopilot Aneroid

Question 92

1. During TCAS Operations in TA only mode, RA’s are?

Answer 92

Shown as TA’s ## Footnote When in TA only mode, RA’s are displays as this in order to avoid too much RA’s, specifically when intentionally flying close to another aircraft like in parallel approaches.

Question 93

1. When LNAV is used to program a route within Australia between two waypoints, the database track that the aircraft will follow is:

Answer 93

A great circle ## Footnote LNAV results in the shortest distance possible. A Great Circle track is the shortest distance between two points on the earth.

Question 94

1. A GPWS has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from pre mature or unintentional ground contact. The aural message provided under various circumstances can often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of the response required for corrective actions. An example of a soft warning and a hard warning respectively are?

Answer 94

“Terrain” and “whoop whoop, pull up” ## Footnote A soft warning is an initial alert of an abnormal situation. A hard warning implies immediate maneuver or action to be taken by the pilot.

Question 95

1. The autopilot depends on devices to measure the aircrafts attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight, Accelerometers assist in a?

Answer 95

Set rate of climb and descent. ?????????????

Question 96

1. An aircraft has 2 FMC, which the pilot accesses through 2 … CDUs should not be used by the pilots to?

Answer 96

1. Simultaneously enter data into the FMCs ## Footnote Because CDUs are most often connected in parallel, meaning what you are typing into the CDU will appear on the other CDU.

Question 97

1. In a conventional flight instrument system in an aircraft, the autopilots altitude hold information comes from

Answer 97

The ADC

Question 98

1. Methods for defining waypoints entered by the crew into the database of the FMC include:

Answer 98

1. Lat and long, place with bearing/dist, place with bearing and place with bearing ## Footnote Waypoints can be lat and long, distance and bearing from one way point A

Question 99

1. The autobrake selector on your aircraft has 8 Positions, Disarm, OFF, 1, 2, 3, 4, Max and RTO. Regarding the retardation rates of various settings:

Answer 99

1. RTO is greater than max

Question 100

1. To provide LNAV guidance, the FMC needs a minimum input from initializing navigation data from:

Answer 100

1. 1 IRS ## Footnote Initialization of FMS which manages the VNAV and LNAV operations requires only the information from 1 IRS. VOR/DME are used to update information during flight.

Question 101

The GPWS fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50ft and 240 ft ratio altitude. 1. Excessive descent rate 2. Excessive terrain closure rate 3. Altitude loss after TO or GA 4. Unsafe terrain clearance while in LDG config 5. Below GS deviation A Whoop Whoop Pull Up aural warning can be given by:

Answer 101

Modes 1 and 2 ## Footnote Mode 1 = sink rate, pull up Mode 2 = terrain, pull up Mode 3 – don’t sink Mode 4 = too low, gear/flap/terrain Mode 5 = glideslope Mode 6 = bank angle Mode 7 = wind shear

Question 102

1. In an aircraft equipped with an Autoland system incorporating 3 autopilots, the max number of autopilot failures which may be sustained without losing Autoland capability is:

Answer 102

1 ## Footnote In order to perform an Autoland, there must be at least more than 1 autopilot engaged for redundancy and checking.

Question 103

1. You set autobrakes at 3 whilst landing, what happens to the aircraft as you apply reverse thrust?

Answer 103

Autobrake provides constant deceleration by varying braking force ## Footnote Autobrakes 1 and 2 are normal, 3 is for wet runways and RTO is for a rejected take off. Max is rarely used as it causes PAX discomfort.

Question 104

1. While on an approach to land, the auto throttle should be at

Answer 104

Speed

Question 105

1. In TCAS, how does a TA look?

Answer 105

Circle ## Footnote RAs = red square TAs = Amber circle Proximity = White filled diamond Other = White outlined diamond

Question 106

1. On an EHSI, information in white is?

Answer 106

Armed ## Footnote Green = engaged White = armed Magenta = command Cyan = background Red = warning Amber = Caution

Question 107

1. When in the flight is the AFCS disengaged?

Answer 107

1. When disengaged by the pilots ## Footnote When disengaged by the pilots

Question 108

1. White edge diamond on a TCAS represents

Answer 108

Other Trafic

Question 109

1. Mode 1-7 on a GPWS listed, which modes give a “whoop whoop, pull up”

Answer 109

1. Mode 1-7 on a GPWS listed, which modes give a “whoop whoop, pull up”

Question 110

1. Solid Diamond on TCAS?

Answer 110

Proximate Traffic

Question 111

1. How are conditional waypoints entered?

Answer 111

1. How are conditional waypoints entered? ## Footnote Conditional waypoints are part of a SID or a STAR and is automatically loaded once the SID or STAR is attempted.

Question 112

1. Warnings and Cautions, what happens when you press the cancel button?

Answer 112

1. Caution out and advisory out ## Footnote A warning cannot be cancelled and remains displayed in the EICAS until the problem is fixed.

Question 113

1. Autoland in modern aircraft, the electrical supply includes:

Answer 113

1. 2 Independent AC and a DC supply ## Footnote Normally the left and center FCC or autopilot computers are powered by the Left AC Bus but during multi-autopilot operations, such as Autoland, isolation occurs as they are powered independently.

Question 114

1. Which one of these is not shown on EADI?

Answer 114

HDG

Question 115

1. Master warning system, warnings and cautions:

Answer 115

Can be cancelled by pressing the master/warning caution??????????????????????????

Question 116

1. No. of Autoland failures before the system becomes manually controlled.

Answer 116

2

Question 117

1. Boxes and Data in CDU represents

Answer 117

Box = data entry required Dashes = enter data if known ???????????????? ## Footnote Boxes = data entry requied for FMC operations Other = where other data can be entered i.e. wind and temp.

Question 118

1. When is AFCS disengaged on Autoland?

Answer 118

Remains on until dis engaged by pilots??????????????????

Question 119

1. 2 What controls the air for cabin pressurization Ram air valve Flow control valve Check valve Outflow valves

Answer 119

Outflow valves

Question 120

1. In a constant frequency AC generator, where does it drive its initial start RPM from?

Answer 120

Permanent magnet generator ## Footnote PMG or DC Pilot exciter provides the initial start RPM for the alternator.

Question 121

1. In a hydraulic system, failure of a nose wheel steering system:

Answer 121

Nose wheel is straightened up

Question 122

1. Three independent hydraulic systems are present in an aircraft. Regarding flight controls.

Answer 122

1. All 3 systems work simultaneously.

Question 123

1. What device is used to prevent further hydraulic fluid loss, if any?

Answer 123

Hydraulic fuse ## Footnote Hydraulic fuse restricts the hydraulic flow if exceeding a certain preset value.

Question 124

1. Regarding hydroplaning and Trye pressure?

Answer 124

1. Minimum hydroplaning speed is proportional to the square root of Tyre pressure ## Footnote Speed x Square Root of Tyre Pressure

Question 125

1. A benefit of split bus type aircraft electrical system is

Answer 125

There is reduced need for frequency matching/less demand… ## Footnote If several generators are connected together on a parallel system, the generators must be carefully matched to the others before the bus tie is closed to synchronize the frequency and voltage.

Question 126

1. In flight normal operation of an aircraft electrical system with a bus tie, the generators are operated

Answer 126

In parallel ## Footnote Bus tie = parallel No bus tie = split system Bus tie ensures multiple generators are connected in parallel. Equal distribution of loads etc.

Question 127

1. The coldest air of an air cycle machine of a jet aircraft air conditioning system is found in the

Answer 127

Expansion turbine

Question 128

1. The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft’s pneumatic system is to:

Answer 128

1. Prevent seals from bleeding

Question 129

1. An advantage of NICAD compares to Lead Acid is

Answer 129

1. A faster recharge cycle ## Footnote NICAd batteries have a faster recharge cycle

Question 130

1. In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000psi, the force entered by a piston actuator measuring 25cm x 25cm is?

Answer 130

300,000lbs ## Footnote Pressure = force times surface area Use some formula?? A

Question 131

1. The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the

Answer 131

Flap load relief system ## Footnote Flap load relief system is controlled by an actuator that when passes a certain threshold (i.e. speed and airloads) the flap is pushed down, and re-engages when loads drop below the threshold. The flap lever inside the cockpit does not move.

Question 132

1. Cockpit window heading systems on jet transport aircraft use laminated glass with a middle layer of:

Answer 132

Electrically conductive metal

Question 133

1. The purpose of a bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is

Answer 133

Reduce tyre pressure & lower ACN number

Question 134

1. Modern airline aircraft have tube less tyres fitted with fuseable alloy plugs to provide

Answer 134

Pressure relief during conditions of excessive Trye heat – Thermal Plugs

Question 135

1. Thermal plugs in modern aircraft tubeless tyres are designed

Answer 135

For pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat

Question 136

1. In an ACM of an air-conditioning system, the effect of the turbine on pressure, temperature and velocity of bleed air supplied from the gas turbine engine is to:

Answer 136

Decrease pressure, temp and velocity

Question 137

1. The ranges of typical pressurization system when operating in AUTO mode are:

Answer 137

1. Isobaric and differential ranges

Question 138

1. Some jet transport aircraft are equipped with a feature known as aileron lockout. If aileron lockout appeared as a caution message on the EICAS, you should expect to experience.

Answer 138

1. Degraded roll controllability at low speeds

Question 139

1. Two 12V, 36 Ampere batteries are connected together in parallel, the result will be an output of:

Answer 139

12V, 72 Amps

Question 140

1. Regarding the operation of a hot battery bus in a jet aircraft electrical systems

Answer 140

A hot battery bus is powered whenever a charged battery is installed in A/C

Question 141

1. An advantage of the use of AC in a large aircraft electrical system is high voltage transmission. This permits:

Answer 141

Low current levels

Question 142

1. An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement should be considered essential when

Answer 142

A bulge in the tyre

Question 143

1. On an aircraft with pull g powered controls, manual reversion is required

Answer 143

Unless triple redundancy is provided ## Footnote Manual reversion is the ability to control flight controls mechanically if hydraulics fail. Manual reversion is not needed if triple redundancy is incorporated.

Question 144

Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain. To ensure optimal performance of rain repellant fluid, it should be used

Answer 144

Periodically in heavy rain

Question 145

The purpose of having inboard and outboard ailerons is for

Answer 145

Preventing wing twist at high speeds ## Footnote Inboard ailerons used at high speeds.

Question 146

What causes thermal runaway in a NICAD battery?

Answer 146

Excessive charge rate

Question 147

What component should a 3 phase alternator have to excite at a constant frequency?

Answer 147

Voltage Regulator

Question 148

A restrictor valve in the downline of a landing gear is used to

Answer 148

Prevent cavitation

Question 149

What is the control design being overcome by the powered flight controls?

Answer 149

Control force variation on wide speed range

Question 150

What is the purpose of ram air valve in the air conditioning and pressurization system?

Answer 150

To provide cabin air in the case of loss of pressurization ## Footnote Answer or also to assist in ventilation and smoke removal in the cabin.

Question 151

The aircraft is significantly above flap extension speed and has a flap protection system with a hydraulic flap circuit.

Answer 151

When flap lever is moved down the flap will not move because it is hydraulically locked up in position

Question 152

What is the purpose of an outflow valve?

Answer 152

Maintain cabin altitude.

Question 153

Real power is measured in?

Answer 153

KW ## Footnote KVA = KW + KVAR

Question 154

How are lead acid batteries (multiple) normally connected?

Answer 154

Parallel to increase capacity

Question 155

Where is the Landing Gear Safety Switch located?

Answer 155

The safety switch is on the gear oleo strut.

Question 156

How does a generator connect a synchronizing bus?

Answer 156

Bus tie

Question 157

When does a negative pressure relief valve open?

Answer 157

Cabin pressure is greater than ambient pressure

Question 158

What is a requirement to be installed in a powered flight control?

Answer 158

Artificial Feel

Question 159

What should never be exceeded?

Answer 159

Cabin Pressure differential gauge

Question 160

Purpose of a fuel vent in modern aircraft?

Answer 160

Equalizes the pressure from he outside.

Question 161

Aileron reversal is reduced by?

Answer 161

Reduced by use of in board ailerons

Question 162

Restrictor (Independent or dependent) in pneumatic system

Answer 162

Speed control

Question 163

Sonomechanism?

Answer 163

Limiter?

Question 164

Max cabin differential is achieved already and then you’re required to climb higher. What happens?

Answer 164

The cabin differential pressure will remain the same, the cabin altitude however will increase.

Question 165

Voltage Regulator?

Answer 165

Main exciter current

Question 166

Outflow Valve Operation

Answer 166

Automatic cabin pressure controller

Question 167

Battery NICAS overheating can occur when

Answer 167

Overcharging

Question 168

The coldest air in an Air Conditioning System is in?

Answer 168

The Expansion Turbine.

Question 169

When AC generators are paralleld, what component ensures same frequency?

Answer 169

CSD(constant speed drive)

Question 170

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