AUBF MOCK PRELIM LAB EXAM Flashcards
(50 cards)
The hazard posed by exposure to pathogens
a. Chemical Hazard
b. Fire Hazard
c. Biological Hazard
d. Health Hazard
C
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
a. Fire hazards
b. Biohazards
c. Reactivity
d. Health hazard
B
Hazy should be reported as
a. Cannot be seen
b. Easily seen
c. Blurred
d. Cloudy
B
Which is/ are true about Ketones EXCEPT:
a. Principle: double indicator system
b. 45s reaction time
c. Sensitive for light
d. All of the above
D
Container for SHARPS hazard
a. Yellow container with triad symbol
b. Green Puncture proof container
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
D
What the purpose and the analyte confirmed by the SSA precipitation test?
a. Degree of turbidity – blood
b. Copper reduction – glucose
c. Degree of turbidity – proteins
d. Oxidation of detergents – ketones
C
Refractometers are calibrated using:
a. Distilled water and protein
b. Distilled water and blood
c. Distilled water and sodium chloride
d. Distilled water and urea
C
Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
A. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates
B. Uroerythrin
C. WBCs
D. Yeast
A
The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is:
a. Highly pigmented urine
b. Specimen contamination
c. Specimen exposure to light
d. Excess conjugated bilirubin
C
Bile mediations may cause the urine to have __
a. Silver or milky
b. Hazy
c. Colorless
d. Yellow foam
D
In transparency, “TURBID“ should be reported as
a. print cannot be seen
b. Easily seen
c. Blurred
d. Cloudy
A
Which is NOT TRUE about specimen collection EXCEPT?
a. at least 40ml
b. Wide mouthed; screw cap
c. Labeled at the body of the container
d. all of the above
B
Specific gravity is important for
a. Small urea molecules
b. Ability of kidney reabsorption
c. Abnormalities pf ADH
d. 2 of the above
D
What is the principle of Urinometer in determining specific gravity?
a. Optimal light scatter
b. Reflective photometry
c. Absorbance and intensity
d. Density
D
In physical exam of urine, which is NOT part of the reporting EXCEPT:
a. Sediments
b. Contamination of hair
c. Turbidity
d. None of the above
D
Which conditions may give a positive reaction for Benedict’s test?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Diabetes Miletus
c. Oliguria
d. 2 of the above
D
Grounds for specimen acceptance EXCEPT?
a. Specimens contaminated with feces or toilet paper
b. Specimens in containers that are unlabeled or improperly labeled
c. At least 50 ml
d. 2 of the above
D
Which are NOT known as purpose for Urinalysis EXCEPT?
a. Drug Testing
b. Determination of metabolic functions
c. Monitoring of the effectiveness of therapy
d. All of the above
D
Specimen for urinalysis has the specimen integrity of?
a. 90 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 150 mins
d. 120 mins
D
Which part of physical examination of urine gives the least amount of significance?
a. Color
b. Transparency
c. Specific gravity
d. Odor
D
Specimen of Diabetes Miletus patient may have
a. Concentrated, clear urine
b. Pale yellow color, hazy urine
c. Ammoniacal odor, orange color
d. Fruity odor, pale yellow color
D
What is the purpose of the automated reagent strip reader?
a. Time efficiency
b. Comparison of color reaction in manually may be subjective
c. Follows the principle of reflective photometry
d. 2 of the above
D
Brown black color of urine indicates
a. Hematuria
b. Methhemoglobin
c. Proteinuria
d. Myoglobin
B
Principle for Benedicts test
a. Oxidation of protein
b. Correlation to ketones
c. Reduction of sucrose
d. Confirmatory test for glucose
D