AUD 3 Outline/MCQs Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What does it mean to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment

A

Understanding its objectives: FAR, Safeguard efficiency, REGs

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2
Q

What economic indicator occurs as a result of the economy

A

Average duration of unemployment

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3
Q

What is the primary objective of data security controls?

A

To ensure that storage media are subject to authorization prior to access, change or destruction

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4
Q

Define the 4 types of control procedures

A

1) Information processing - applies to individual transactions. 2) General - relates to many applications regarding info systems. 3)Physical - safeguard of assets like security devices or restricted areas. 4) Monitoring - controls to “Assess” qualify

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5
Q

What defines a control to be operating effectively

A

For a control to be “operating effectively,” it needs to be acted on by mgmt.

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6
Q

In obtaining an understanding of IC - what does the auditor have to

A

Required to obtain knowledge about the design, and whether the controls have been implemented. WE DO NOT NEED TO KNOW ABOUT “OPERATING” EFFECTIVENESS

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7
Q

What most impacts auditors’ documentation on understanding of internal control regarding tech

A

The degree to which info tech is used in the accounting function

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8
Q

What does the auditor do if it is not possible to reduce DR by substantive tests alone

A

Increase the test of controls to support a lower level to control risk.

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9
Q

Define “operating” effectiveness and effectiveness of controls

A

“operating” effectiveness we dont have to know. However, we must evaluate the effectiveness of controls by testing them.

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10
Q

When do auditors test “operating effectiveness of controls”

A

When controls have changed and need to test them

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11
Q

What additional work is done to extend audit conclusions as of interm date

A

Substantive procedures for the period between the interim date and the B/S

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12
Q

What is the auditors responsibility regarding noncompliance with laws and regs

A

Design the audit to detect material misstatements due to noncompliance with laws and regs

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13
Q

How does noncompliance effect the report

A

If disclosed, noncompliance does not affect the report - can still be modified

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14
Q

How does an auditor evaluate accounting estimates?

A

Accounting estimates should be reasonable under the circumstances. To do so, first, evaluate how mgmt got the estimate.
Then: Review sub events, test estimate, and develop your own. We dont care about competitors

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15
Q

What the effect of a client not allowing the CPA to speak to mgmt before accepting a new engagement

A

Auditor would not take the engagement since refusal to get legal corroboration would result in a disclaimer. (Auditors may reach out for legal corroboration before accepting)

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16
Q

What does an audit inquiry letter TO LEGAL sound like?

A

In connection with an audit to our F/S mgmt has prepared and furnished to OUR auditors…

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17
Q

What would help identify sub doubt to continue?

A

Read min of the board, working capital shortage

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18
Q

What determines the relevance of evidence?

A

1)Timing of audit procedure, 2)Testing over/understatement, 3) designed to test an assertion

19
Q

What is the best approach for developing expectations on analytical procedures?

A

Identify reasonable explanations for unexpected differences before talking to mgmt. Unaudited account balances are not reliable.

20
Q

What impacts the efficiency of the analytical procedures

A

1) Data used to develop expectation is reliable. 2)There is a clear understanding of data. 3) A more precise expectation should be developed.

A/Ps do not have to be applied to assertions

21
Q

What type of accounts yields the highest predictability

A

Expense accounts

22
Q

How are oral responses considered when doing audit confirmations

A

Oral responses do not meet the criteria needs to be written

23
Q

What is not a relevant assertion when testing transactions and events during a client audit

A

rights and obligations

24
Q

What are the PCAOB assertions

A

Existence, Completeness, valuation or allocations, rights and obligations, presentation and disclosure - “P” for presentation

25
What impacts the sample size for "test of controls" and " test of details"
The expected rate of "deviation" for test of controls, since we want to rely on controls. "Tolerable misstatement" for test of details since we dont want the F/S to be "misstated"
26
Sample size for a test of controls is inversely related to what?
Inversely related to the tolerable rate since we want to rely on the controls. If we tolerate less we sample more.
27
When testing controls how does the population size correlate to the sample size?
Population size has little effect on the sample size
28
What is the main driver of sample size?
The level of sampling risk that the auditor is willing to accept will affect the sample size
29
What does stratified MPU do?
it produces an estimate having a desired level of precision with a "smaller" sample size
30
What is the projected sample formula?
Sample (/) total items = sample size. Then do overstatement (/) sample size
31
What is a consideration for sampling for a test of details?
When testing details the auditor is considering "Preliminary judgements about materiality levels"
32
Is the cost of obtaining evidence a consideration in the auditor deciding what procedure to use?
Yes, cost is an important factor and a procedure may be omitted if alternative procedures can be performed.
33
Is client data sufficient enough to support the F.S?
No, clients data by itself can not be considered sufficient evidence to support the F/S
34
What is the auditors responsibility regarding acts of noncompliance with laws and regs that are done by "mgmt override"?
The auditor is still required to design the audit to identify material misstatements due to non compliance from mgmt override. Therefore, auditor is not responsible for noncompliance regarding operating aspects only F/S accounting aspects.
35
What type of evidence is accounts receivable confirmations?
Corroborating evidence, this is used to agree clients accounting records.
36
How does an entity attempt to safeguard information?
Through risk assessment
37
How can completeness be tested?
observe, trace, A/Ps NOT INSPECTION
38
What is the relationship between sample size and tolerable rate, regarding test of controls?
Since the auditor cant accept a large error rate, the sample size increases when tolerable rate goes down.
39
What is the best evidence that the auditor has identified all material accounting estiamtes?
Read the minutes of the board, confirming through the rep letter is not the best evidence
40
According to PCAOB "may" the APs done in the review stage be different or the same as planning?
They MAY be the same as the APs in the review and planning
41
NONstatistical sampling vs statistical sampling provides what?
Statistical uses greater mathematical methods in demining an appropriate sample size
42
What is most likely to identify going concern
inquiring about entity legal counsel NOT IDENTIFYING THIRD PARTY
43
If there is a possibility of non compliance, what should the auditor do?
What the auditor should do first is apply procedures to ensure noncompliance has occurred