AUDIT MCQ Flashcards
When the auditor concludes that he or she cannot express an opinion because there has been a limitation on the scope of the audit on internal control over financial reporting under PCAOB standards, the auditor should express either a(n)
A.
Adverse opinion or a qualified opinion
B.
Disclaim an opinion or a qualified opinion
C.
Disclaim an opinion or an unqualified with explanatory paragraph relating to the scope limitation
D.
Disclaim an opinion or withdraw from the engagement
D
The management of Cain Company, a nonissuer, engaged Bell, CPA, to express an opinion on Cain’s internal control. Bell’s report described several material weaknesses and potential errors and irregularities that could occur. Subsequently, management included Bell’s report in its annual report to the Board of Directors with a statement that the cost of correcting the weaknesses would exceed the benefits. Bell should:
A. Disclaim an opinion as to management’s cost-benefit statement.
B. Advise the Board that Bell either agrees or disagrees with management’s statement.
C. Advise management that Bell’s report was restricted for use only by management.
D. Advise both management and the Board that Bell was withdrawing the opinion.
Correct Answer: A
Choice “A” is correct. The auditor should disclaim an opinion as to management’s cost-benefit statement (i.e., “We do not express an opinion or any other form of assurance on management’s cost-benefit statement.”).
Choice “B” is incorrect. The CPA should disclaim an opinion regarding management’s representation.
Choice “C” is incorrect. The CPA’s report on internal control is not restricted as to use.
Choice “D” is incorrect. The CPA does not need to withdraw the opinion as long as a disclaimer on management’s cost-benefit statement is presented.
When reporting on conditions relating to an entity’s internal control observed during an audit of the financial statements of a nonissuer, the auditor should include a:
A. Description of tests performed to search for material weaknesses.
B. Statement of positive assurance on internal control.
C. Paragraph describing the inherent limitations of internal control.
D. Restriction on the use of the report.
Correct Answer: D
Choice “D” is correct. When reporting on conditions relating to an entity’s internal control observed during an audit of the financial statements, the auditor should include a restriction on the use of the report.
Choice “A” is incorrect. The auditor would not include a description of tests performed to search for material weaknesses since the auditor is not in fact obligated to search for them.
Choices “B” and “C” are incorrect. An auditor would make a statement of positive assurance on internal control and include a paragraph describing the inherent limitations of internal control in conjunction with an engagement to report on internal control. These comments would not be made when reporting on an entity’s internal control in conjunction with an audit of the financial statements of a nonissuer.
An engagement to express an opinion on the internal control of a nonissuer will generally:
A. Require procedures that duplicate those already applied in assessing control risk during a financial statement audit.
B. Increase the reliability of the financial statements that have already been audited.
C. Be more extensive in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit.
D. Be more limited in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit.
Correct Answer: C
Choice “C” is correct. An engagement to express an opinion on internal control will generally be more extensive in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit of a nonissuer. This occurs because assessing control risk is the primary purpose of an engagement to express an opinion on internal control, whereas it is an incidental result of an audit of a nonissuer.
Choice “A” is incorrect. Since the results of the audit may be considered in performing the engagement to express an opinion on internal control, it is unlikely that the auditor would duplicate those procedures already applied.
Choice “B” is incorrect. It is unlikely that the reliability of the financial statements that have already been audited would be increased if an engagement to express an opinion on internal control is performed.
Choice “D” is incorrect. An engagement to express an opinion on internal control is more extensive in scope than the control risk assessment performed during an audit of a nonissuer.
Which of the following representations should not be included in a report on internal control related matters noted in an audit of a nonissuer?
A. Significant deficiencies related to internal control design exist, but none is deemed to be a material weakness.
B. There are no significant deficiencies in the design or operation of internal control.
C. Corrective follow-up action is recommended due to the relative significance of material weaknesses discovered during the audit.
D. The auditor’s consideration of internal control would not necessarily disclose all significant deficiencies that exist.
Correct Answer: B
Choice “B” is correct. A report on internal control related matters noted in an audit should not state that there are no significant deficiencies in internal control, since this statement might erroneously imply that the auditor searched for such conditions.
Choice “A” is incorrect. The auditor is permitted to state that no material weaknesses were identified during the audit. Typically, this occurs in reports submitted to governmental authorities.
Choice “C” is incorrect. The auditor may suggest that corrective follow-up action should be taken due to the relative significance of material weakness discovered.
Choice “D” is incorrect. The auditor’s report may state that his or her consideration of internal control would not necessarily disclose all significant deficiencies that exist.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s required communication of significant deficiencies?
A.
A significant deficiency previously communicated during the prior year’s audit that remains uncorrected causes a scope limitation.
B.
An auditor should perform tests of controls on significant deficiencies before communicating them to the client.
C.
An auditor’s report on significant deficiencies should include a restriction on the distribution of the report.
D.
An auditor should communicate significant deficiencies after tests of controls, but before commencing substantive tests.
正解:C
<問題解説>
報告書の使用制限に関する問題。
重大な不備(significant deficiencies)についての報告には、報告書は、ガバナンスに責任を負う者(those charged with governance)、経営者、組織体内の他の者(または特定の規定された代理人)の情報及び使用 のためだけを意図して作成され、特定されている団体以外の使用を意図しておらず、又使用されるべきで はない旨を表明するべきである。従って、正解はc。
aは誤り。過去に報告されたが是正されていない不備は、再度報告されなければならないが、それは必ずし も監査範囲の制限の原因とはならない。
bは誤り。統制のテストは重大な不備についてではなく、内部統制について行われる。
dは誤り。重大な不備は、統制のテストの後に報告される必要はない。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35266
No.M7-24-2 より
When an independent CPA assists in preparing the financial statements of a publicly held entity, but has not audited or reviewed them, the CPA should issue a disclaimer of opinion. In such situations, the CPA has no responsibility to apply any procedures beyond
A.
Documenting that internal control is not being relied on.
B.
Reading the financial statements for obvious material misstatements.
C.
Ascertaining whether the financial statements are in conformity with GAAP.
D.
Determining whether management has elected to omit substantially all required disclosures.
正解:B
<問題解説>
監査・レビュー以外の財務諸表への関与について問う問題。
公開企業の財務諸表に対して監査・レビュー以外の業務で関与する場合、CPAは意見差し控えを表明するが、調製業務と同様、最低限明らかな虚偽の表示がないか、財務諸表を読む責任はある。従って、正解はb。
a, c, dは誤り。これらのような手続を行う責任はない。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35430
No.M15-11-3 より
During a review of the financial statements of a non-public entity, an accountant becomes aware of a lack of adequate disclosure that is material to the financial statements. If management refuses to correct the financial statement presentations, the accountant should
A. Issue an adverse opinion. B. Issue an "except for" qualified opinion. C. Disclose this departure from generally accepted accounting principles in a separate paragraph of the report. D. Express only limited assurance on the financial statement presentations.
正解:C
<問題解説>
財務報告フレームワークからの逸脱があった場合の対処を問う問題。
非公開企業のレビューの際、財務諸表に重要な開示が不十分ということに気づき、経営者が表示し直さな かった場合、レビュー報告書に説明区分を追加してGAAP違反の旨を明記する。従って、正解はc。
aは誤り。不適正意見は、監査が実施された場合にのみ用いられる。
bは誤り。“except for”つきの限定意見は、監査が実施された場合にのみ用いられる。
dは誤り。限定的保証を表明することでGAAP逸脱の事実を伝えることはできない。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35421
Which of the following is not an objective of a CPA’s examination of a client’s MD&A (management discussion and analysis) prepared in accordance with Securities and Exchange Commission rules and regulations?
A.
The historical amounts have been accurately derived, in all material respects, from the entity’s financial statements.
B.
The presentation is in conformity with rules and regulations adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
C.
The underlying information, determinations, estimates and assumptions of the entity provide a reasonable basis for the disclosures contained herein.
D.
Required elements of MD&A are included in the presentation.
正解:B
<問題解説>
MD&A(Management Discussion and Analysis)に対する検証業務に関する問題。
MD&Aに対する検証業務において、CPAは以下の3点について意見を表明する。
1) MD&Aの表示が、全ての重要な点において、SECが適用する法規制において要求される最低限の情報を含んでいるか。
2) MD&Aの財務情報の金額は、全ての重要な点において、財務諸表に基づいて正確に算出された金額であるか(財務諸表の金額と整合しているか)。
3) MD&Aの元となる企業の情報、判断、見積り、および仮定は、MD&Aに開示されている情報の合理的な根拠となるものであるか。
MD&Aに対する検証業務において、CPAは、MD&Aの表示がSECに準拠しているかどうかについて明示的に意見を表明するのではなく、MD&AにSECが要求する最低限の情報(elements)が含まれているかどうかについて意見を表明する。従って、正解はb。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35469
No.M16-15-1 より
According to the PCAOB, which of the following tax services may be provided jointly with the audit of an issuer’s financial statements without impairing independence?
A.
Planning and issuing an opinion in favor of the tax treatment of an aggressive tax position.
B.
Reviewing a proposed transaction and informing the client of the tax consequences.
C.
Providing consultations under a contingency fee arrangement.
D.
Preparing tax returns for an individual in a financial oversight reporting role during the audit period.
正解:B
<問題解説>
税務サービスと独立性に関する問題。
提示された取引に対して、税務上の影響を知らせるだけでは、主観や利害関係を生まないため、独立性を侵害しない。
従って、正解はb。
aは誤り。積極的な税務取引に関する意見を出すことは、独立性を侵害する。
cは誤り。監査と同時に成功報酬方式による他のサービスを行うことはできない。
dは誤り。監査実施期間中に、財務報告の監督の役割を持つ人員に対して税務サービスを提供することは、独立性を侵害する。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35566
No.M19-11-3 より
Miller, CPA, is requested to compile the financial statements of Web Co., a nonpublic entity, in conformity with the income tax basis of accounting. Web’s financial statements are not considered appropriate in form unless the financial statements include the following except:
A.
A description of the income tax basis of accounting.
B.
A description of the primary differences from GAAP.
C.
Informative disclosures.
D.
A statement of restricted use of the report.
正解:D
<問題解説>
その他の包括的会計基準で作成された財務諸表のレビューに関する問題。
AR90によると、税法基準会計のような、その他の包括的会計基準(Other comprehensive basis of accounting; OCBOA)で作成された財務諸表は、以下の条件を満たさない限り、原則として適切な形式と認められない。
1) 財務諸表に重大な会計方針の要約(summary of significant accounting policies)、及びGAAPとの主要な差異(primary differences from GAAP)を含むOCBOAの説明が含まれている。
2) GAAPが要求するものと類似した有益な開示(informative disclosure)が行われている。
正解はd。
aは誤り。これは、上記1)に該当する。
bは誤り。これは、上記1)に該当する。
cは誤り。これは、上記2)に該当する。
<関連講義>
http://study.abitus.co.jp/?p=35423
No.M15-6-9 より
Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm’s quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm’s accounting and auditing practice?
a. Engagement performance.
b. Risk analysis.
c. Safeguarding of assets.
d. Information processing.
正解:a
監査の品質管理(quality control)に関する問題。 品質管理基準(Statement on Quality Control Standards; SQCS)によれば、品質管理の方針及び手続は、以下の6つの要素から構成されるとしている。
a) 事務所内における品質に対するリーダーシップの責任(leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm)
b) 適切な倫理的用件(relevant ethical requirements)
c) 依頼人との関係及び特定の契約に係る容認と継続(acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements)
d) 人的資源(human resources)
e) 契約の履行(engagement performance)
f) 監視(monitoring)
Which of the following factors most likely would be considered an inherent limitation to an entity’s internal control?
a. The ineffectiveness of the entity’s audit committee.
b. Collusion of employees in circumventing internal controls.
c. The lack of resources to monitor internal controls.
d. The complexity of the entity’s electronic order processing system.
正解:b
内部統制の固有の限界(inherent limitation)に関する問題。
内部統制の固有の限界とは、内部統制の整備状況や運用の有効性ではなく、内部統制の本来の性質と構造に起因する理由から、財務諸表の虚偽表示を防止、是正または適時に発見できないことをいう。言い換えれば、たとえ内部統制がどんなに整備され、有効に運用されていたとしても、虚偽の表示が発生しうる状況を指す。例えば職務の分離が適切に行われ、相互牽制の仕組みが有効に運用されていたとしても、内部統制の担当者が共謀(collusion)した場合には意味をなさない。従って、正解はb。 a、c、dは誤り。これらはいずれも内部統制の整備・運用上の問題であり、内部統制の固有の限界とは言えない。
An auditor is selecting prenumbered purchase orders for testing an entity’s internal control activities related to their proper approval before office equipment is ordered. The auditor is matching random numbers with the purchase order numbers to determine which purchase orders to inspect. If a random number matches a voided purchase order, the auditor ordinarily would replace the voided purchase order with another if the voided purchase order
a. Represents office equipment ordered and never received.
b. Has been properly voided in the normal course of business.
c. Represents office equipment ordered and canceled before being processed by the vendor.
d. Has been electronically deleted from the purchase order file.
正解:b
属性サンプリングの事例問題。 本問では属性サンプリング(attribute sampling)を使って、事務用備品の購入注文書が適切に承認されているかどうかを検証する統制テストを実施している。監査人は、サンプル抽出した注文書が適切に承認されていれば「逸脱がない」、適切に承認されていなければ「逸脱がある」と評価する。 もしサンプルの中に無効となった(voided)購入注文書がある場合は、まず当該注文書が無効とされた原因と経緯を詳細に調査すべきである。通常の業務 (normal course of business)において注文を無効にする場合、企業によって無効の承認等の内部統制が設定されているはずである。正当な理由に基づき、適切な手続を経て無効となった購入注文書については注文の承認に係る統制テストの目的から外れるものであるためサンプルから除外し、別のサンプルを抽出する。従って、正解はb。 aは誤り。注文したのに備品を受領していない原因を確かめる必要がある。 cは誤り。この選択肢からは、注文が取り消された(canceled)原因がわからないため、詳細な調査が必要である。 dは誤り。注文が電子ファイルから削除された理由や、適切な承認を経て削除したものかどうかを確かめる必要がある。
In assessing the tolerable rate of deviations of a test of controls that was performed using statistical sampling, an auditor should consider that
a. Deviations from pertinent controls do not affect the risk of material misstatement in the accounting records.
b. Deviations from pertinent controls at a given rate ordinarily result in misstatements at a lower rate.
c. When the degree of assurance desired in a sample is high, the auditor should allow for a high level of sampling risk.
d. Increasing the number of items selected for the test of controls usually increases the tolerable rate of deviations.
正解:b
属性サンプリング(attribute sampling)に関する問題。 属性サンプリングにおいては、サンプルから発見された逸脱に基づいて、母集団に含まれる逸脱率を評価する。逸脱率が重要であるかどうかを評価する基準値として許容逸脱率(tolerable rate of deviations)を用いる。母集団に含まれると推定される逸脱率が許容逸脱率以下である場合、統制に重要な逸脱は含まれていないと判断し、統制リスク(及びRMM)を低いと評価する。従って、正解はb。 aは誤り。仮に予想外に多くの逸脱が発見された場合、統制リスクを当初よりも高く評価することになるため、RMMに影響を与えることになる。 cは誤り。サンプルの結果から得られる保証(assurance)の程度を高めるためにはサンプルの精度を高める必要がある。そのためにはサンプリングリスクの許容水準を低くしてサンプル件数を増加させなければならない。 dは誤り。許容逸脱率を変動させるとサンプル件数も変動するが、サンプル件数を変動することにより許容逸脱率が変動することはない。また許容逸脱率とサンプル件数は逆の関係にあり、許容逸脱率が増加した場合、サンプル件数は減少する。
An auditor is using statistical sampling in testing whether cash disbursements were properly authorized. The sample results indicate that the sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate. Under these circumstances, the auditor most likely would reduce the
a. Planned reliance on the prescribed control.
b. Assessed level of control risk.
c. Planned reliance on substantive tests.
d. Tolerable rate of deviations.
正解:a
属性サンプリング(attribute sampling)におけるサンプルの評価に関する問題。 本問では属性サンプリングを用いた統制テストを行っている。属性サンプリングではサンプルに含まれる逸脱率を計算し、誤差を考慮して”allowance for sampling risk”を加算調整した後、許容逸脱率と比較する。本問では実際の逸脱率(=サンプルの逸脱率+allowance for sampling risk)が許容逸脱率を上回るため、統制に重要な逸脱が含まれていると考えられる。この場合、統制リスクは当初よりも高くなるため、監査人は当初想定したよりも内部統制に依拠する(rely on)程度を減らし、実証性テストの範囲を拡大しなければならない。従って、正解はa。 bは誤り。実際の逸脱率が許容逸脱率を上回っているため、統制には重要な逸脱が含まれていると判断し、統制リスクの評価を当初よりも高くしなければならない。 cは誤り。統制リスクが高くなった結果、RMMは当初よりも高いと評価されるため、計画時よりも実証性テストの範囲を拡大し、厳格な監査を実施しなければならない。 dは誤り。許容逸脱率はサンプルの結果を評価するために用いる基準値である。既に評価は完了しているため、許容逸脱率をさらに減少させてもあまり意味がない。
In searching for unrecorded liabilities, an auditor most likely would examine the
a. Cutoff bank statement for deposits recorded in the books, but not by the bank.
b. Details of accounts receivable confirmations that are classified as “exceptions”.
c. Files of purchase requisitions for items ordered just before the year end.
d. Receiving reports for items received before year end, but not yet recorded.
正解:d
未認識の負債(unrecorded liabilities)を調査する監査手続に関する問題。 利益を過大計上するために、費用・負債は過小計上される傾向にある。そのため負債項目の網羅性を検証し、認識すべき負債が会計帳簿に適切に計上されているかどうかを確かめる必要がある。例えば、期末日前に供給業者から受け取った棚卸資産を検証し、対応する買掛金が帳簿に計上されているかどうかを確かめる。従って正解はd。 aは誤り。銀行勘定照合表(bank cutoff statement)は期末日後の預金口座の動きを示すものであり、買掛金等の負債の動きを示すものではない。 bは誤り。売掛金残高の確認状の回答を調べても、負債に関連する情報は得るのは難しい。買掛金や借入金の残高について確認状を送付すべきである。 cは誤り。注文の段階では何も帳簿に計上されないため、注文された項目を検証してもあまり意味がない。依頼人が実際に供給業者から受け取った物品を検証すべきである。
Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events?
a. Verify inventory pledged under loan agreements by confirming the details with financial institutions.
b. Inquire about the current status of transactions that were recorded on the basis of preliminary data.
c. Compare the financial statements being reported on with those of the prior year.
d. Trace information from shipping documents to sales invoices and sales journal transactions.
正解:b
後発事象(subsequent events)に対する監査手続に関する問題。 期末日後において後発事象の有無を確かめるために実施する監査手続の一つとして、期末日後現在における取引の状況(例えば、重大な偶発負債や契約が発生しているか、資本構成や運転資本に重大な変化があったか等)について経営者等の担当者に質問する。従って、正解はb。 aは誤り。これは後発事象を特定する手続ではなく、財務諸表の開示情報の妥当性を確かめる手続である。 cは誤り。前期の状況から当期の状況を類推することも可能ではあるが、当期において状況が変化している可能性もあるため、現在の状況について確認した方が良い。従って、選択肢bの方がより適切な回答であると言える。 dは誤り。これは後発事象を特定する手続ではなく、当期の売上及び売掛金を検証する手続である。
Mill, CPA, was engaged by a group of royalty recipients to apply agreed-upon procedures to financial data supplied by Modern Co. regarding Modern’s written assertion about its compliance with contractual requirements to pay royalties. Mill’s report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain a(an)
a. Disclaimer of opinion about the fair presentation of Modern’s financial statements.
b. List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and Mill’s findings.
c. Opinion about the effectiveness of Modern’s internal control activities concerning royalty payments.
d. Acknowledgment that the sufficiency of the procedures is solely Mill’s responsibility.
正解:b
合意された手続(agreed-upon procedures; AUP)報告書に関する問題。 AUP報告書においてCPAは主題について意見(opinion)も結論(conclusion)も表明せず、実施した手続と発見事項を客観的事実として列挙する。なお報告形式として、実施した手続及び発見事項の一覧を添付し、報告書にはその一覧を参照するように記載する方法も認められる。従って、正解はb。 aは誤り。本問の業務は財務諸表の表示の適正性とは何も関連性がない。 cは誤り。AUP業務においてCPAは意見を表明しない。 dは誤り。AUP業務において手続の十分性(sufficiency)について責任を負うのは、CPA(本問ではMill)ではなく、責任を負う当事者(本問ではModern社の経営者)である。
During an engagement to compile the financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant becomes aware that management had stated land at appraised value and that, if GAAP had been followed, both the land account and stockholders’ equity would have been decreased by $1 million, a material amount. The accountant decides to modify the standard compilation report because management will not revise the financial statements. Under these circumstances, the accountant should
a. Issue either an adverse opinion or a qualified opinion, depending on materiality, because of the departure from GAAP.
b. Add a separate paragraph to the accountant’s report that restricts the distribution of the financial statements to “internal use only.”
c. Add a separate paragraph to the accountant’s report that discloses the departure from GAAP and its effects on the financial statements.
d. Add a separate paragraph to the accountant’s report that explains the underlying purpose of recording assets at historical cost.
正解:c
調製業務の報告書(compilation report)に関する問題。 財務諸表に対する調製業務において、財務諸表に含まれるGAAPからの重要な逸脱を発見し、経営者が修正に応じない場合、CPAは調製報告書に当該逸脱の内容と財務諸表への影響について説明した段落を追加する。従って、正解はc。 aは誤り。調製業務においてCPAは意見を表明しない。 bは誤り。調製報告書の利用を制限するかどうかは依頼人の判断に基づいて決められる。本問では特に利用を制限するという記述はないため、記載は不要である。 dは誤り。追加する段落には逸脱に関する説明のみを記載する。本来あるべき会計処理の趣旨について記載する必要はない。
In evaluating the reasonableness of an entity’s ac count ing estimates, an auditor normally would be concerned about assumptions that are
a. Susceptible to bias.
b. Consistent with prior periods.
c. Insensitive to variations.
d. Similar to industry guidelines.
(a) The requirement is to identify an area of concern to
auditors when evaluating the reasonableness of an entity’s accounting estimates. Answer (a) is correct because AU-C 500 states that in evaluating the reasonableness of estimates auditors normally concentrate on assumptions that are subjec-
tive and susceptible to bias.
Answer (b) is incorrect because all things being equal, an auditor would expect assumptions that are con sistent with prior periods.
Answer (c) is incorrect because assumptions that are insensitive to variations in underlying data have little predictive ability.
Answer (d) is incorrect because, often, one would expect assumptions similar to industry guide lines.
A client uses a suspense account for unresolved ques tions whose final accounting has not been determined. If a balance remains in the suspense account at year-end, the auditor would be most concerned about
a. Suspense debits that management believes will bene fit future operations.
b. Suspense debits that the auditor verifi es will have re-
aliza ble value to the client.
c. Suspense credits that management believes should be classified as “Current liability.”
d. Suspense credits that the auditor determines to be cus-tomer deposits.
(a) The requirement is to determine which balance
remaining in a “suspense” account would be of most con cern
to an auditor. Answer (a) is correct because suspense debits
that management believes will benefi t future opera tions must
be au dited carefully to determine whether they have value and
should be classifi ed as an asset. Answer (b) is incorrect because
when an auditor has already determined that a suspense
debit has value it becomes a relatively straightforward issue
of the item’s proper classifi cation. Answer (c) is incorrect
because the conservative approach taken in audits is likely
to cause the auditor to have some what more concern about
suspense purported to be assets [i.e., answer (a)], than for those
classifi ed as current liabili ties. Answer (d) is incorrect because
when the auditor de termines that the suspense credits represent
customer de pos its, establish ing a proper accounting will
ordinarily be rela tively simple.
An auditor ordinarily uses a working trial balance resem-
bling the fi nancial statements without footnotes, but containing
columns for
a. Cash fl ow increases and decreases.
b. Audit objectives and assertions.
c. Reclassifi cations and adjustments.
d. Reconciliations and tick marks.
(c) The requirement is to determine a difference be-
tween an auditor’s working trial balance and fi nancial
statements without footnotes. Answer (c) is correct because a
working trial balance includes columns for reclassifi cation and
adjustments. Answers (a), (b), and (d) are all incorrect because
while they suggest information that might be in cluded on a
working trial balance, they will not be included in the form of
additional columns.
Which of the following is required documentation in an
audit in accordance with generally accepted auditing stan dards?
a. A fl owchart or narrative of the accounting system
de scribing the recording and classifi cation of
transactions for fi nancial reporting.
b. The overall audit strategy and audit plan.
c. A memo summarizing all major stakeholder groups.
d. An internal control questionnaire identifying con trols
that assure specifi c objectives will be achieved.
(b) The requirement is to identify the required
documentation in an audit. Answer (b) is correct because
AU-C 300 requires documentation of the audit strategy and
the audit plan (as well as signifi cant changes made during the
audit). Answer (a) is incorrect because while fl owcharts and
narratives are acceptable methods of documenting an auditor’s
understanding of internal control, they are not required.
Answer (c) is incorrect because major stakeholder groups
need not be documented. Answer (d) is incorrect because
completion of an internal control questionnaire is not required.