August 2014 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in August 2014 Deck (77):
0

The formula rad x QF is used to calculate the:

Rem

1

Which of the following does NOT protect the patient by limiting the volume of tissue being exposed?

A. Collimator
B. Cylinder cone
C. Aperture diaphragm
D. Filter

Filter

2

What term refers to the radiation that is produced when an electron moves from an outer shell to fill a vacancy in an inner shell?

Characteristic radiation

3

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is likely that an individual will receive ______ in any single year.

.5 rem

4

Which of the following may result in reduced radiation dose to the patient?

1. AEC
2. Slow film/screen speed
3. Lowest mAs possible

All

5

Secondary barriers are not designed to protect people from:

The primary beam

6

Which of the following would allow an individual to survive larger amounts of radiation?

A. Protraction
B. Fractionation
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Protraction and Fractionation

7

What happens when a state is considered to be an "agreement state" with the NRC?

Radiation protection regulations are enforced by state

8

Attenuation of a diagnostic x-ray beam is the result of which of the following?

1. Photoelectric effect
2. Compton effect
3. Pair production

Photoelectric and Compton

9

Which of the following radiation induced effects would require a threshold dose?

A. Acute radiation syndrome
B. Radiation induced leukemia
C. Genetic effects of radiation
D. None of the above

Acute radiation syndrome

10

Which of the following would result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?

A. Use of 100 speed screens instead of 200 speed screens
B. Adjusting collimation from a 10x12 field to an 8x10 field
C. Increasing the kVp and decreasing the mAs to maintain exposure to the IR
D. Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

11

The protective curtain on the fluoroscope between the patient and the radiographer protects:

The radiographer from scatter radiation

12

Patient dose will increase during cine fluoroscopy with a ____.

Smaller field of view and an increased number of frames per second

13

Which of the following devices is not considered a personnel monitoring device?

A. Geiger-Müller counter
B. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter
C. Pocket dosimeter
D. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

Geiger-Müller counter

14

What is the most effective way to reduce the dose to a radiographer in the exam room during a fluoroscopic exam?

Doubling distance from fluoroscopic table

15

Which photon-tissue interactions results in the production of a recoil electron?

Compton's interaction

16

Which of the following would have the longest wavelength?

A. Gamma radiation
B. Diagnostic x-rays
C. Cosmic radiation
D. Visible light

Visible light

17

Thyroid shields worn during fluoroscopic procedures should be ____ lead one lead equivalent.

.5 mm

18

Effective dose is partially based on:

The radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

19

How frequently should the lead aprons be checked for holes and cracks?

Annually

20

The detector array ______ in a cassette-less digital system.

Converts remnant x-rays to an electronic signal

21

What supplies free electrons for x-ray production?

Thermionic emission

22

The ______ operates on the principle of self-induction .

Autotransformer

23

The amount of current needed to heat the filament in an X-ray tube is:

3-5 amps

24

This type of system does NOT require analog to digital conversion.

Film/screen

25

The image on the output phosphor of an image intensifier is:

1. Brighter than the input phosphor
2. Dimmer than the input phosphor
3. Larger than the input phosphor

Brighter than the input phosphor

26

With an AEC device:

A backup timer is required

28

300 mA 400 mA
.01 second ____mA
200 film/screen speed 100 film/screen speed
80 kVp 70kvp

.03 second

29

400 mA _____ mA
1/5 second 1/10 second
60 kVp 70 kVp
8:1 grid 5:1 grid

200 mA

30

50 mA 300mA
.30 second _____ second
100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed
5:1 grid 8:1 grid

.05 second

31

100 mA 300 mA
1/5 second _____ second
90 kVp 104 kVp
50" SID 72" SID

1/15 second

32

Final image contrast in a digital system is primarily influenced by:

LUTs

33

Which of the following choices represents a compensating filter?

A. Collimator
B. Added filter
C. Inherent filter
D. Aluminum wedge filter

Aluminum wedge filter

34

Which of the following exposure factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast for a radiograph of the abdomen?

A. 200 mA 1/4 sec 72 kVp 6:1 grid 200 film/screen speed
B. 100 mA 1/2 sec 90 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed
C. 400 mA 3/4 sec 76 kVp 5:1 grid 50 film/screen speed
D. 300 mA 1/5 sec 80 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed

A

35

Chemical fog can be caused by:

Increased developer temperature
Increased developing time
Chemical contamination
Increased replenishment

36

In a CR system, sampling frequency and pixel pitch are used to determine :

Spatial resolution

37

In which of the following ranges would an increase in 10 kVp have the least effect on the exposure to the IR?

A. 51-60 kVp D. 81-90 kVp
B. 61-70 kVp E. 91-100 kVp
C. 71-80 kVp

91-100 kVp

38

Histogram analysis errors in a cassette-based system can be attributed to:

Scatter fog

39

Ton compensate for excessive OID, the SID should:

Be increased

40

The most commonly used filter for a darkroom safelight is:

GBX

41

Employing the correct _____ is one of the two most effective ways to control the effect of scatter on a digital image.

Collimation

42

Decreasing the OID will result in REDUCTION of:

Magnification

43

The various densities of the part being radiographed will affect:

1. Exposure to the IR
2. Radiographic contrast
3. Differential absorption

All

44

The wide _____ in digital imaging allows more anatomic information to be captured and displayed.

Dynamic range

45

Which position/projection best demonstrates the left kidney in profile and the entire right ureter for intravenous urography?

RPO

46

Spina bifida results from:

Failure of the lamina to unite

47

The medial articulation of the head of the radius is with the:

Ulna

48

The mitral valve is situated between the:

Left atrium and left ventricle

49

Which of the following structures is located most anterior in the abdomen?

A. Spleen
B. Kidney
C. Transverse colon
D. Inferior vena cava

Transverse colon

50

The degree of angulation between the petrous pyramids and the median sagittal plane of a mesocephalic shaped skull is approximately:

45 degrees

51

In order to best demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus free of superimposition, a plane passing through the epicondyles should:

Be perpendicular with the central ray

52

Which of the following structures of the thoracic vertebrae would articulate with the anterior end of the rib?

A. Body
B. Transverse process
C. Pedicle
D. None of the above

None of the above

53

An AP projection of the foot could also be termed:

Dorsoplantar projection

54

Which of the following bones from the foramen magnum?

1. Occipital bone
2. Temporal bone
3. Sphenoid bone

Occipital bone

55

The term that most accurately describes the movement of the foot when turned inward at the ankle joint is:

Inversion

56

The central ray for an AP projection of the knee should enter:

1 cm inferior to the apex of the patella

57

The number of ribs that should be demonstrated above the diaphragm on a chest radiograph with proper inspiration would be:

10

58

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum could best be demonstrated utilizing the:

Parietoacanthial projection Waters method

59

Which projection would provide maximum demonstration and closest placement to the film of the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

Right anterior oblique position (RAO)

60

The cuboid lies on the _____ side of the foot.

Lateral

61

The outer layer of the meninges is the:

Dura mater

62

If the orders for a patient state that they are NPO this means:

Nothing should be given by mouth

63

Which of the following contraindicate the use of iodine contrast agents?

A. Multiple myeloma
B. Creatinine level of 2.8
C. BUN level of 35 mg/dl
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

All of the above

64

The vital sign that most accurately indicates that a patient is in shock is:

Blood pressure

65

What is the best method to transfer a very obese patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table if the patient is unable to bear weight on either leg?

Use a hydraulic lift

66

The rule for restraining pediatric patients is:

Restrain children only when necessary

67

The ____ is responsible for addressing possible adverse effects of a procedure as well as alternate diagnostic tests.

Physician

68

Which transmissions would apply to microorganisms spread by contaminated water?

Common vehicle transmission

69

A radiographer observes that a patient's IV site has become swollen and puffy. The radiographer should:

Clamp off the IV

70

Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes are used for:

1. Feeding
2. Decompression
3. Radiographic examinations

All

71

The term that the CDC currently uses to describe isolating patients with known infection is:

Transmission based precautions

72

Sterile trays may have an indicator that changes colors when sterilization has occurred. What type of sterilization process uses this type indicator?

Gas plasma
Autoclave
Freezing

73

What is an example of verbal communication?

Asking the patient for their symptoms

74

The term _______ refers to the process of performing initial examinations and assigning a priority for further care of disaster victims.

Triage

75

Which of the following choices represents a standard principle of surgical asepsis?

1. Never leave a sterile area unattended
2. Never reach across a sterile field
3. You may pass between the physician and the sterile field if needed

1&2

76

The type of microorganism that causes tuberculosis is a/an:

Bacteria

103

400 mA _____ mA
.12 second .08 second
100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed

300 mA