Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Mock Review > August 2014 > Flashcards

August 2014 Flashcards

(77 cards)

Start Studying
0
Q

Which of the following does NOT protect the patient by limiting the volume of tissue being exposed?

A. Collimator
B. Cylinder cone
C. Aperture diaphragm
D. Filter

A

Filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The formula rad x QF is used to calculate the:

A

Rem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What term refers to the radiation that is produced when an electron moves from an outer shell to fill a vacancy in an inner shell?

A

Characteristic radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is likely that an individual will receive ______ in any single year.

A

.5 rem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following may result in reduced radiation dose to the patient?

  1. AEC
  2. Slow film/screen speed
  3. Lowest mAs possible
A

All

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Secondary barriers are not designed to protect people from:

A

The primary beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following would allow an individual to survive larger amounts of radiation?

A. Protraction
B. Fractionation
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

A

Protraction and Fractionation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens when a state is considered to be an “agreement state” with the NRC?

A

Radiation protection regulations are enforced by state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Attenuation of a diagnostic x-ray beam is the result of which of the following?

  1. Photoelectric effect
  2. Compton effect
  3. Pair production
A

Photoelectric and Compton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following radiation induced effects would require a threshold dose?

A. Acute radiation syndrome
B. Radiation induced leukemia
C. Genetic effects of radiation
D. None of the above

A

Acute radiation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following would result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?

A. Use of 100 speed screens instead of 200 speed screens
B. Adjusting collimation from a 10x12 field to an 8x10 field
C. Increasing the kVp and decreasing the mAs to maintain exposure to the IR
D. Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

A

Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The protective curtain on the fluoroscope between the patient and the radiographer protects:

A

The radiographer from scatter radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patient dose will increase during cine fluoroscopy with a ____.

A

Smaller field of view and an increased number of frames per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following devices is not considered a personnel monitoring device?

A. Geiger-Müller counter
B. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter
C. Pocket dosimeter
D. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

A

Geiger-Müller counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most effective way to reduce the dose to a radiographer in the exam room during a fluoroscopic exam?

A

Doubling distance from fluoroscopic table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which photon-tissue interactions results in the production of a recoil electron?

A

Compton’s interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following would have the longest wavelength?

A. Gamma radiation
B. Diagnostic x-rays
C. Cosmic radiation
D. Visible light

A

Visible light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Thyroid shields worn during fluoroscopic procedures should be ____ lead one lead equivalent.

A

.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Effective dose is partially based on:

A

The radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How frequently should the lead aprons be checked for holes and cracks?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The detector array ______ in a cassette-less digital system.

A

Converts remnant x-rays to an electronic signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What supplies free electrons for x-ray production?

A

Thermionic emission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ______ operates on the principle of self-induction .

A

Autotransformer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The amount of current needed to heat the filament in an X-ray tube is:

A

3-5 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
This type of system does NOT require analog to digital conversion.
Film/screen
25
The image on the output phosphor of an image intensifier is: 1. Brighter than the input phosphor 2. Dimmer than the input phosphor 3. Larger than the input phosphor
Brighter than the input phosphor
26
With an AEC device:
A backup timer is required
28
300 mA 400 mA .01 second ____mA 200 film/screen speed 100 film/screen speed 80 kVp 70kvp
.03 second
29
400 mA _____ mA 1/5 second 1/10 second 60 kVp 70 kVp 8:1 grid 5:1 grid
200 mA
30
50 mA 300mA .30 second _____ second 100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed 5:1 grid 8:1 grid
.05 second
31
100 mA 300 mA 1/5 second _____ second 90 kVp 104 kVp 50" SID 72" SID
1/15 second
32
Final image contrast in a digital system is primarily influenced by:
LUTs
33
Which of the following choices represents a compensating filter? A. Collimator B. Added filter C. Inherent filter D. Aluminum wedge filter
Aluminum wedge filter
34
Which of the following exposure factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast for a radiograph of the abdomen? A. 200 mA 1/4 sec 72 kVp 6:1 grid 200 film/screen speed B. 100 mA 1/2 sec 90 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed C. 400 mA 3/4 sec 76 kVp 5:1 grid 50 film/screen speed D. 300 mA 1/5 sec 80 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed
A
35
Chemical fog can be caused by:
Increased developer temperature Increased developing time Chemical contamination Increased replenishment
36
In a CR system, sampling frequency and pixel pitch are used to determine :
Spatial resolution
37
In which of the following ranges would an increase in 10 kVp have the least effect on the exposure to the IR? A. 51-60 kVp D. 81-90 kVp B. 61-70 kVp E. 91-100 kVp C. 71-80 kVp
91-100 kVp
38
Histogram analysis errors in a cassette-based system can be attributed to:
Scatter fog
39
Ton compensate for excessive OID, the SID should:
Be increased
40
The most commonly used filter for a darkroom safelight is:
GBX
41
Employing the correct _____ is one of the two most effective ways to control the effect of scatter on a digital image.
Collimation
42
Decreasing the OID will result in REDUCTION of:
Magnification
43
The various densities of the part being radiographed will affect: 1. Exposure to the IR 2. Radiographic contrast 3. Differential absorption
All
44
The wide _____ in digital imaging allows more anatomic information to be captured and displayed.
Dynamic range
45
Which position/projection best demonstrates the left kidney in profile and the entire right ureter for intravenous urography?
RPO
46
Spina bifida results from:
Failure of the lamina to unite
47
The medial articulation of the head of the radius is with the:
Ulna
48
The mitral valve is situated between the:
Left atrium and left ventricle
49
Which of the following structures is located most anterior in the abdomen? A. Spleen B. Kidney C. Transverse colon D. Inferior vena cava
Transverse colon
50
The degree of angulation between the petrous pyramids and the median sagittal plane of a mesocephalic shaped skull is approximately:
45 degrees
51
In order to best demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus free of superimposition, a plane passing through the epicondyles should:
Be perpendicular with the central ray
52
Which of the following structures of the thoracic vertebrae would articulate with the anterior end of the rib? A. Body B. Transverse process C. Pedicle D. None of the above
None of the above
53
An AP projection of the foot could also be termed:
Dorsoplantar projection
54
Which of the following bones from the foramen magnum? 1. Occipital bone 2. Temporal bone 3. Sphenoid bone
Occipital bone
55
The term that most accurately describes the movement of the foot when turned inward at the ankle joint is:
Inversion
56
The central ray for an AP projection of the knee should enter:
1 cm inferior to the apex of the patella
57
The number of ribs that should be demonstrated above the diaphragm on a chest radiograph with proper inspiration would be:
10
58
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum could best be demonstrated utilizing the:
Parietoacanthial projection Waters method
59
Which projection would provide maximum demonstration and closest placement to the film of the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical vertebrae?
Right anterior oblique position (RAO)
60
The cuboid lies on the _____ side of the foot.
Lateral
61
The outer layer of the meninges is the:
Dura mater
62
If the orders for a patient state that they are NPO this means:
Nothing should be given by mouth
63
Which of the following contraindicate the use of iodine contrast agents? ``` A. Multiple myeloma B. Creatinine level of 2.8 C. BUN level of 35 mg/dl D. All of the above E. None of the above ```
All of the above
64
The vital sign that most accurately indicates that a patient is in shock is:
Blood pressure
65
What is the best method to transfer a very obese patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table if the patient is unable to bear weight on either leg?
Use a hydraulic lift
66
The rule for restraining pediatric patients is:
Restrain children only when necessary
67
The ____ is responsible for addressing possible adverse effects of a procedure as well as alternate diagnostic tests.
Physician
68
Which transmissions would apply to microorganisms spread by contaminated water?
Common vehicle transmission
69
A radiographer observes that a patient's IV site has become swollen and puffy. The radiographer should:
Clamp off the IV
70
Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes are used for: 1. Feeding 2. Decompression 3. Radiographic examinations
All
71
The term that the CDC currently uses to describe isolating patients with known infection is:
Transmission based precautions
72
Sterile trays may have an indicator that changes colors when sterilization has occurred. What type of sterilization process uses this type indicator?
Gas plasma Autoclave Freezing
73
What is an example of verbal communication?
Asking the patient for their symptoms
74
The term _______ refers to the process of performing initial examinations and assigning a priority for further care of disaster victims.
Triage
75
Which of the following choices represents a standard principle of surgical asepsis? 1. Never leave a sterile area unattended 2. Never reach across a sterile field 3. You may pass between the physician and the sterile field if needed
1&2
76
The type of microorganism that causes tuberculosis is a/an:
Bacteria
103
400 mA _____ mA .12 second .08 second 100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed
300 mA

Mock Review (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions