AUTO FLIGHT - FLIGHT GUIDANCE

Question 1

The Flight Guidance (FG) provides the following functions:

Answer 1

‐ The Flight Director (FD)
‐ The Autopilot (AP)
‐ The Autothrust (A/THR).

Question 2

The FG operates by using the following modes:

Answer 2

‐ AP/FD lateral modes to control the lateral trajectory
‐ AP/FD vertical modes to control the vertical trajectory, or the speed or Mach
‐ A/THR modes to control the speed or Mach, or the thrust.

Question 3

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD ENGAGEMENT
MANUAL ENGAGEMENT
The flight crew manually engages the FD by pressing the onside FD pb.
Note: If the flight crew did not previously engage any AP or FD, then HDG or TRK, and V/S or FPA engage. The FD symbol flashes for ___.

Answer 3

10 s

Question 4

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD ENGAGEMENT
AUTOMATIC ENGAGEMENT
ON GROUND
FD1 and FD2 automatically engage at ___

Answer 4

aircraft power-up.

Question 5

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD ENGAGEMENT
AUTOMATIC ENGAGEMENT
IN FLIGHT
FD1 and FD2 automatically engage in flight, if:

Answer 5

‐ The flight crew engages the SRS GA mode, or
‐ The AP/FD TCAS  mode engages upon a RA.

Question 6

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD ENGAGEMENT
Note: On SRS engagement, if the flight crew previously selected the FPV/FPD display, the FD symbol reverts to

Answer 6

vertical and horizontal bars.

Question 7

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD ENGAGEMENT
ENGAGEMENT ANNUNCIATION
If FD1 and/or FD2 engages, all the following events occur:

Answer 7

• FD pb on the FCU
• The xFDy message appears FMA

Question 8

The PFD displays a yaw bar that replaces the roll bar in green below 30 ft radio height if a localizer signal is available during:

Answer 8

‐ Takeoff in RWY mode, or
‐ Landing in FLARE and ROLL OUT modes.

Question 9

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD SYMBOLOGY - NON DISPLAY
The FD bars disappear, when one of the following occurs:

Answer 9

‐ The aircraft bank angle exceeds 45 °, or
‐ The aircraft pitch exceeds 25 ° up or 13 ° down.

The pitch bar disappears in ROLL OUT.

Question 10

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT
If all FDs disengage while no AP is engaged, all the following occur:

Answer 10

‐ The lateral and vertical modes disengage, and
‐ If engaged, the A/THR reverts to (or remains in) SPEED or MACH mode.

Question 11

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT
If all FDs disengage while at least one AP is engaged, all the following occur:

Answer 11

‐ The lateral and vertical modes remain engaged, and
‐ If engaged, the A/THR remains engaged in the current mode.

Question 12

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT
AUTOMATIC DISENGAGEMENT
The FD disengages if, in ROLL OUT, the difference between the aircraft track and the runway track is more than

Answer 12

20 °.

Question 13

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT
AUTOMATIC DISENGAGEMENT
DUE TO FAILURES
The FD disengages if one of the following occurs:

Answer 13

‐ The FD becomes inoperative, or
‐ The FCU is not available, or
‐ All the engines fail.

Question 14

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT
AUTOMATIC DISENGAGEMENT
DUE TO SPEED PROTECTION
The FD disengages if no AP is engaged and the aircraft speed is either:

Answer 14

‐ below VLS in DES or OP DES, or
‐ above VMAX in CLB or OP CLB.

Question 15

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT ANNUNCIATION
the flight crew disengages one FD, all the following occur:

Answer 15

The corresponding FD pb goes off,
The FD symbol no longer appears on the associated PFD,
1FD- appears on the FMA if FD2 is disengaged or -FD2 if FD1 is disengaged.

Question 16

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD DISENGAGEMENT ANNUNCIATION
one FD fails, all the following occur:

Answer 16

All FD pb remain on,
Both PFDs display the guidance orders from the remaining FD, 1FD1 appears on the FMA if FD2 fails, or 2FD2 if FD1 fails.

Question 17

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD WARNINGS
FD BARS FLASHING
The pitch bar (or FPV) flashes for 10 s and remains steady, if one of the following occurs:

Answer 17

‐ An automatic reversion to V/S (or FPA) mode occurs, or
‐ All APs and FDs are previously disengaged and the flight crew engages the FD.

Question 18

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD WARNINGS
FD BARS FLASHING
The roll bar (or FPV) flashes for 10 s and remains steady, if one of the following occurs:

Answer 18

‐ An automatic reversion to HDG (or TRK) mode occurs, or
‐ All APs and FDs are previously disengaged and the flight crew engages the FD.

Question 19

FLIGHT DIRECTOR - FD FLAG
If the guidance orders are not available while the FD is engaged, a FD flag appears on the PFD and the

Answer 19

FD bars disappear.

Question 20

AUTOPILOT - GENERAL
The AP generates:
‐ Pitch, roll, and yaw orders
‐ The ___ angle.

Answer 20

nosewheel

Question 21

The APs are available in ___ law, only.

Answer 21

normal and alternate

Question 22

AUTOPILOT - AP ENGAGEMENT
One AP engages when the flight crew presses the AP1 pb or the AP2 pb on the FCU, and the aircraft is in flight for more than

Answer 22

5 s.

Question 23

In BACK-UP NAV, the AP engages in selected modes if the ___ is available.

Answer 23

FG part

Question 24

ENGAGEMENT OF BOTH APS
The second AP can engage only when one of the following conditions is applicable:

Answer 24

‐ LOC is armed, or LOC* or LOC is engaged, and
‐ G/S is armed, or G/S* or G/S is engaged
‐ Go-around is engaged.

Question 25

When both APs are engaged, AP1 is active, and AP2 is on standby, regardless of the

Answer 25

order of AP engagement.

Question 26

AUTOPILOT - AP DISENGAGEMENT The APs disengages if one of the following occurs:

Answer 26

‐ The flight crew presses the takeover pb on the sidestick, or ‐ The flight crew presses the AP1(2) pb on the FCU, or ‐ The flight crew moves the pitch trim wheel beyond a certain threshold, or ‐ The flight crew moves a sidestick above a specific threshold, or ‐ The flight crew moves the rudder pedals above a specific threshold, or ‐ On ground, the flight crew sets all the thrust levers above the MCT detent.

Question 27

Airbus recommends to press the sidestick pb ___ times to disengage both APs.

Answer 27

two One time to disengage the APs, the second time to clear the associated AP OFF alert.

Question 28

AUTOPILOT - AP AUTOMATIC DISENGAGEMENT The APs automatically disengage, if one of the following occurs:

Answer 28

‐ One of the engagement conditions is lost, or ‐ During an approach with FINAL APP mode engaged, the aircraft reaches: * The MAP, or * The MDA/MDH -50 ft (if entered), or 400 ft AGL (if no MDA/MDH is entered). In addition, in normal law with all protections available, the APs will disengage when: ‐ High speed protection activates, or ‐ Angle-of-attack protection activates, or ‐ Pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up, or 13 ° down, or bank angle exceeds 45 °.

Question 29

AUTOPILOT - AP DISENGAGEMENT ANNUNCIATIONS AND WARNINGS DISCONNECTION VIA THE takeover pb If the flight crew does not quickly press the takeover pb a second time, the following additional warnings will trigger:

Answer 29

‐ The cavalry charge audio indicators sounds, at high volume ‐ The AUTO FLT AP OFF alert is displayed on the WD.

Question 30

AUTOPILOT - AP DISENGAGEMENT If the AP disengages, without any flight crew action on the takeover pb, the following warnings will trigger:

Answer 30

‐ The AP OFF memo appears on the PFDs ‐ A cavalry charge audio indicator sounds, at high volume ‐ The AUTO FLT AP OFF alert is displayed on the WD.

Question 31

AP/FD MODES - GENERAL The AP/FD modes are either

Answer 31

lateral, vertical, or common.

Question 32

Two types of AP/FD modes are available in order to guide the aircraft:

Answer 32

‐ Managed modes ‐ Selected modes

Question 33

AP/FD LATERAL MODES 7 items

Answer 33

RWY RWY TRK HDG, TRK NAV LOC* LOC GA TRK APP NAV

Question 34

AP/FD LATERAL MODES RWY Runway mode Mode used at takeoff to guide the aircraft along the runway center line using

Answer 34

LOC. Triggered by the thrust levers at FLX or TOGA position.

Question 35

AP/FD LATERAL MODES RWY TRK Runway Track mode Mode used to guide the aircraft along the

Answer 35

track the aircraft was following at the mode engagement. Triggered by the thrust levers at FLX or TOGA position.

Question 36

AP/FD LATERAL MODES HDG,TRK Heading mode, Track mode Mode used to guide the aircraft on a heading or a track selected by the flight crew. The target value is displayed in the FCU window. HDG,TRK are called "basic modes" because it is a back up mode for certain situations :

Answer 36

‐ F-PLN discontinuity entry ‐ AP engagement with no FD ‐ Loss of F-PLN ‐ MCDU BACK UP NAV 

Question 37

AP/FD LATERAL MODES NAV Navigation mode Mode used to guide the aircraft along the lateral F-PLN. Available above

Answer 37

30 ft after takeoff. Automatically armed at takeoff unless HDG,TRK is preset. In that case RWY TRK engages after takeoff.

Question 38

AP/FD LATERAL MODES LOC* / LOC Localizer capture mode Localizer track mode Mode used to guide the aircraft on

Answer 38

the lateral approach path (LOC approach path).

Question 39

AP/FD LATERAL MODES GA TRK Go-Around track mode Mode used to guide the aircraft along the track the aircraft was following at the mode engagement. Triggered by the thrust levers at

Answer 39

TOGA with Slats/Flaps in at least CONF 1.

Question 40

AP/FD LATERAL MODES APP NAV Approach Nav mode Mode used to guide the aircraft on the lateral approach path. Selected by pressing

Answer 40

APPR pb on the FCU; the mode that engages depends upon the selected approach in the F-PLN.

Question 41

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES 14 items

Answer 41

SRS OP CLB CLB EXP CLB ALT* ALT ALT CST* ALT CST ALT CRZ* ALT CRZ OP DES DES EXP DES V/S, FPA G/S* G/S FINAL AP/FD TCAS

Question 42

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES SRS Speed Reference System mode Mode used at

Answer 42

takeoff, or go-around to maintain SRS speed (V2, V2+10, VAPP...). Triggered by the thrust levers at FLX or TOGA position. Automatically disengages at ACCEL ALT, or when another VERT mode is engaged.

Question 43

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES OP CLB Open Climb mode Mode used to climb directly to the FCU selected altitude. These modes disregard all ALT CST. The A/THR is in ___

Answer 43

THRUST mode (CLB/IDLE) The speed target may either be selected or managed. ALT mode is systematically armed. Altitude target is blue on the PFD.

Question 44

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES CLB Climb mode Mode used to climb towards FCU selected altitude along VERT F-PLN taking into account ALT CST. Available, only if NAV mode engaged. The A/THR is in ___

Answer 44

THRUST mode (CLB). The speed target may either be selected or managed. If managed, SPD CST, SPD LIM, and HOLD SPD are taken into account.

Question 45

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES EXP CLB This mode is used to increase the vertical speed by selecting ___

Answer 45

Green Dot speed in climb.

Question 46

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES ALT* ALT Altitude acquire mode Altitude hold mode Mode used to maintain a level flight at the

Answer 46

FCU selected altitude.

Question 47

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES EXP DES This mode is used to increase the vertical speed by selecting

Answer 47

0.80/340 kt in descent.

Question 48

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES V/S, FPA Vertical Speed mode, Flight Path Angle mode Mode used to guide the aircraft by a vertical speed, or a selected flight path angle.

Answer 48

Altitude target is blue on PFD. V/S-FPA is a basic mode.

Question 49

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES G/S* G/S Glide Slope capture mode Glide Slope track mode Mode used to guide the aircraft along the final approach path (ILS)

Answer 49

Selected by pressing APPR pb on the FCU.

Question 50

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES FINAL Final mode Mode used to guide the aircraft along the final approach path (non precision approach)

Answer 50

Selected by pressing the FCU's APPR pb. The mode engaged depends upon the selected approach in the F-PLN. Linked to APPR common mode (APPR pb).

Question 51

AP/FD VERTICAL MODES AP/FD TCAS Mode used to guide the A/C in the case of TCAS RA

Answer 51

Automatically engaged when a RA is triggered.

Question 52

AP/FD COMMON MODES 4 items

Answer 52

LAND FLARE ROLL OUT FINAL APP

Question 53

AP/FD COMMON MODES LAND Land mode Common mode engaged below ___ RA during an automatic ILS

Answer 53

400 ft

Question 54

AP/FD COMMON MODES FLARE Flare mode Common mode which provides alignment to the runway centerline on the yaw axis, and flare on the pitch axis. Engaged below ___ RA, based on the current vertical speed.

Answer 54

60 ft

Question 55

AP/FD COMMON MODES ROLL OUT Roll Out mode Mode used to guide the aircraft on the runway following an automatic landing.

Answer 55

FD roll out symbol is displayed on PFD at touch down.

Question 56

AP/FD COMMON MODES FINAL APP Final Approach mode Common mode including APP NAV and FINAL modes during non-precision approach.

Answer 56

Engaged only if APP- NAV mode and FINAL mode are already armed.

Question 57

AP/FD MODE STATUS - An AP/FD lateral or vertical mode can be ___ - An AP/FD common mode can either be ___

Answer 57

armed, engaged, or disengaged. engaged or disengaged.

Question 58

AP/FD MODES - SRS TO Mode The SRS TO controls the speed via the ___, in order to steer the aircraft along a vertical path.

Answer 58

elevators

Question 59

SRS TO Mode The guidance law also includes:

Answer 59

‐ A flight path angle protection, that ensures a minimum vertical speed of 120 ft/min ‐ A pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up (18 ° of maximum pitch attitude or 22.5 ° maximum in case of windshear). ‐ A speed protection limiting the target speed to V2+15 kt. (When the aircraft is on ground, V2 is the speed target. When the aircraft is airborne, V2+10 kt becomes the speed target.)

Question 60

SRS TO Mode If one engine fails, the speed target is the current aircraft speed at the engine failure detection. However, the speed target is limited by

Answer 60

V2 and V2+15 kt.

Question 61

SRS TO engages, when all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 61

‐ The aircraft is on ground ‐ The slats or the flaps are extended ‐ V2 is inserted in the PERF TAKEOFF page

Question 62

If V2 has not been inserted, V/S mode engages ___

Answer 62

5s after lift-off on the current V/S value.

Question 63

Note: When V2 is inserted, or SRS TO is engaged, the speed automatically becomes ___

Answer 63

managed

Question 64

SRS TO mode disengages, when one of the following occurs:

Answer 64

‐ Automatically, at the GA ACCEL ALT, or if ALT* or ALT CST* mode engages (above 400 ft RA), or ‐ Another vertical mode engages.

Question 65

Note: In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does not automatically disengage at

Answer 65

EO ACCEL ALT.

Question 66

SRS TO reverts to OP CLB, when the FCU selected altitude is above the aircraft altitude, and the flight crew pulls the

Answer 66

SPD/MACH knob.

Question 67

When the ___ is available, the RWY mode gives lateral guidance orders during takeoff, and initial climb.

Answer 67

LOC signal

Question 68

RWY engages, if all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 68

‐ V2 is inserted in the PERF TAKEOFF page, and ‐ The aircraft is on ground, and ‐ The slats are extended, and ‐ The LOC is valid, and ‐ The LOC deviation is below 1/2 dot, and ‐ The aircraft heading is within 20 ° of the ILS ‐ An ILS is set, associated to the takeoff runway, and the difference between the LS course and the runway heading, as inserted in the flight plan is less than 2 ° ‐ No lateral mode is already engaged, and

Question 69

RWY disengages, when one of the following occurs:

Answer 69

‐ The LOC is lost below 30 ft RA ‐ NAV is armed, and the aircraft reaches 30 ft RA: NAV engages ‐ NAV is not armed, and the aircraft reaches 50 ft RA: RWY TRK engages ‐ Another lateral mode engages ‐ The aircraft heading deviates from more than 20 ° from the ILS

Question 70

The RWY TRK automatically engages at 30 ft RA, if all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 70

‐ The FMS flight phase is takeoff, and ‐ NAV is not engaged.

Question 71

REVERSIONS TO HDG/TRK Note: If a managed vertical mode was previously engaged, a selected vertical mode engages:

Answer 71

‐ If CLB was engaged, OP CLB engages ‐ If ALT CST*, ALT CRZ*, or DES was engaged, V/S/FPA engages ‐ If ALT CST was engaged, ALT engages.

Question 72

HDG/TRK PRESET The system has a HDG/TRK preset function for takeoff and go-around. The set value remains displayed in the FCU HDG/TRK window until the flight crew

Answer 72

pulls the knob.

Question 73

AP/FD MODES - CLIMB REVERSIONS TO OP CLB OP CLB also engages, when one of the following reversions occurs:

Answer 73

‐ CLB and NAV are engaged, and NAV disengages, or ‐ CLB is engaged, and the vertical flight plan becomes invalid, or ‐ CLB is engaged, and the FMS flight phase changes to the descent or approach phase, or ‐ EXP CLB  is engaged and the flight crew pulls the SPD/MACH knob, or ‐ SRS TO, or SRS GA is engaged, the FCU selected altitude is above the aircraft altitude, and the flight crew pulls the SPD/MACH knob.

Question 74

AP/FD MODES - CLIMB OP CLB reverts to V/S/FPA, when the flight crew sets the FCU selected altitude

Answer 74

below the aircraft altitude.

Question 75

When CLB is engaged: ‐ AP/FDs controls the speed/Mach target (selected or managed) through the

Answer 75

elevators

Question 76

AP/FD MODES - ALTITUDE The ALT* mode: ‐ Has an internal V/S guidance that is a direct function of the difference between

Answer 76

present altitude and the altitude target

Question 77

AP/FD MODES - ALTITUDE The ALT* mode: ‐ Has an internal protection that decreases the vertical speed when

Answer 77

VLS or VMAX is reached (VLS or VMAX becomes the priority target)

Question 78

The system switches automatically to ALT mode when the altitude deviation becomes less than ___

Answer 78

20 ft.

Question 79

ALT arms, if one of the following conditions occurs: ‐ The difference between the aircraft altitude and the altitude set on the FCU is more than

Answer 79

250 ft.

Question 80

ALT* reverts to V/S / FPA when the flight crew changes the FCU selected altitude by more than

Answer 80

250 ft. If within 5 s after reversion to V/S / FPA, to confirm the altitude target change, the flight crew does not: ‐ Pull the ALT knob, or ‐ Set a new V/S / FPA target, or ‐ Push the ALT pb on the FCU. Then: ‐ The triple click sounds ‐ The new guidance mode is boxed for 10 s ‐ The FD bars flash for 10 s.

Question 81

The aircraft is at the altitude target when the difference between the aircraft altitude and the altitude target is less than

Answer 81

40 ft for more than two seconds.

Question 82

The Altitude SOFT mode corrects minor deviations from the Mach target by allowing a ___ variation from the CRZ FL.

Answer 82

±50 ft This feature enhance fuel efficiency, passenger comfort and minimizes the changes in thrust.

Question 83

AP/FD MODES - DESCENT OP DES reverts to V/S/FPA, if the flight crew sets the FCU selected altitude ___ the aircraft altitude.

Answer 83

above

Question 84

AP/FD MODES - DESCENT When DES is engaged in idle path, the AP/FD adjusts the pitch in order to maintain a speed/Mach target. The A/THR then maintains the ___. When DES is engaged in geometric path, the AP/FD controls the vertical trajectory. The A/THR is then in ___.

Answer 84

idle thrust / SPEED/MACH

Question 85

AP/FD MODES - DESCENT EXP DES reverts to V/S / FPA, when one the following condition occurs: ‐ AP OFF and FD ON, the flight crew not does not follow the FD orders and the aircraft speed reaches

Answer 85

VLS - 2 kt if the speed brakes are retracted or VLS - 17 kt if the speed brakes are extended,

Question 86

MANUAL TUNING ON THE FMS If the flight crew manually-tunes an LS approach on the RADIO NAV page, the flight guidance system will

Answer 86

- disregard the manual tuning and guide the aircraft on the approach selected on the ARRIVAL page. OR - guide the aircraft on the manually-tuned approach.

Question 87

SELECTION IN THE MMRS When an approach is selected on the ARRIVAL page, or manually-tuned on RADIO NAV page, or via the RMP, the approach frequency and course are sent to both MMRs. In case of discrepancy between both MMRs the ___ alert triggers.

Answer 87

NAV LS TUNING DISAGREE

Question 88

The ILS guidance modes are: Above 400 ft RA

Answer 88

LOC & G/S

Question 89

The ILS guidance modes are: Below 400 ft RA, and until end of roll out

Answer 89

LAND: Track of LOC and G/S beams FLARE: Alignment of the yaw axis on the runway centerline, and flare on the pitch axis ROLL OUT: Track of the runway centerline, and nose down

Question 90

LOC arms, when the flight crew presses the APPR pb, or the LOC pb, and one of the following conditions is applicable:

Answer 90

‐ An ILS approach is set on the ARRIVAL page ‐ An ILS is manually-tuned on the RADIO NAV page ‐ At least one LS receiver must be operative. If both receivers are operative, the LS parameters must be the same in both LS receivers ‐ A LOC only approach is set on the ARRIVAL page ‐ The ILS frequency and course are manually-tuned on the RMP.

Question 91

Note: If the flight crew sets a different ILS approach on the ARRIVAL page:

Answer 91

‐ The aircraft will fly the manually-tuned LS ‐ The MCDU displays the RWY/LS MISMATCH message.

Question 92

LOC* engages, when LOC is armed, and the aircraft reaches the capture zone, or the

Answer 92

pre-capture zone of the LOC beam.

Question 93

PRE-CAPTURE ZONE OF THE LOC BEAM (ENHANCED LOC CAPTURE FUNCTION) The pre-capture zone of the LOC beam is introduced through the Enhanced LOC Capture function. Aircraft uses the aircraft position and the FMS trajectory to provide guidance in order to pre-capture the LOC beam. The pre-capture of the LOC beam allows to:

Answer 93

‐ Enhance the performance of the LOC capture ‐ Avoid a false capture ‐ Capture the LOC beam without overshoot.

Question 94

PRE-CAPTURE ZONE OF THE LOC BEAM (ENHANCED LOC CAPTURE FUNCTION) The pre-capture zone is available, when all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 94

‐ The LOC deviation is more than 2.3 dots, and ‐ The FMS is in GPS PRIMARY  , and ‐ The difference between the track and the LOC course is between 25 ° and 115 °, and ‐ The roll order is such that LOC* will capture the LOC beam with a single turn.

Question 95

On the PFD and on the ND, the flight crew observes movement of the LOC deviation toward the center of the scale, only when the LOC deviation is less than 2 dots. This occurs when the aircraft is in the

Answer 95

CAPTURE ZONE (NOT PRE-CAPTURE ZONE)

Question 96

CAPTURE ZONE OF THE LOC BEAM (NOT PRE-CAPTURE) The aircraft reaches the capture zone of the LOC beam, when one of the following occurs:

Answer 96

‐ The LOC deviation is less than 2.3 dots, and: ‐ The LOC deviation is less than 1.3 dot, and the difference between the track and the LOC course is less than 15°

Question 97

LOC CONVERGENCE FUNCTION The purpose of the LOC convergence function is to help to intercept and capture the LOC axis. The flight guidance intercepts the LOC axis with a 20 ° track convergence, when all the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 97

‐ The LOC mode is armed, and ‐ The NAV mode is engaged, and ‐ The aircraft is within 20 NM of the destination runway, and ‐ The difference between the aircraft track and the runway course is less than 20 °.

Question 98

The aircraft reaches the capture zone of the G/S beam, when one of the following occurs:

Answer 98

‐ Passage far from the G/S beam: * The G/S deviation is less than 2 dots, and * The pitch order is such that G/S* will capture the G/S beam with a single resource. ‐ Passage near the G/S beam: The G/S deviation is less than a threshold depending on the radio altitude. This threshold is between 0.1 and 1/3 dot.

Question 99

The LAND mode is a common vertical and lateral mode. The LAND mode tracks the LOC and G/S beams from ___ to approximately ___.

Answer 99

400 ft RA / 40 ft RA

Question 100

LAND automatically engages, when all the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 100

‐ The approach and landing capability is CAT1, CAT2 or CAT3, and ‐ LOC and G/S are engaged, and ‐ The aircraft is below 400 ft RA.

Question 101

LAND automatically disengages:

Answer 101

‐ When the aircraft approximately reaches 40 ft RA: FLARE engages, or ‐ When the flight crew disengages both AP/FD, or ‐ When the flight crew performs a go-around.

Question 102

FLARE engages, if all the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 102

‐ The aircraft approximately reaches 40 ft RA ‐ The approach that the flight crew selects is either an ILS approach FLARE engages only if the following conditions are applicable: ‐ The slats/flaps are extended, or the landing gears are extended ‐ One valid RA.

Question 103

The ROLL OUT mode is a common lateral and vertical mode: ‐ Lateral guidance: The ROLL OUT mode guides the aircraft along the runway centerline ‐ Vertical guidance: The ROLL OUT mode lands the

Answer 103

nose landing gear. The FLARE mode changes to the ROLL OUT mode when the aircraft touches down.

Question 104

When the difference between the aircraft track and the runway track is more than ___, the ROLL OUT disengages due to the APs and FDs disengagement.

Answer 104

20°

Question 105

The FINAL APP mode includes the following modes:

Answer 105

‐ APP NAV mode for lateral guidance ‐ FINAL mode for vertical guidance.

Question 106

FINAL APP mode engages when all the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 106

‐ The aircraft is in the capture zone of the vertical FMS profile. ‐ NAV or APP NAV is engaged ‐ FINAL is armed ‐ Predictions are available in FMS ‐ APPROACH phase is active ‐ The aircraft intercepts a descending leg of the vertical flight path. Laterally: +1.5 NM from the Final Descent Point Vertically: +250 ft above the Final Descent Point.

Question 107

FINAL APP ENGAGEMENT CONDITIONS A blue arrow is displayed on NDs to indicate where the FINAL APP engagement conditions are met and where the final descent will begin automatically. If the same arrow is displayed in white, at least

Answer 107

one engagement condition is not fulfilled, FINAL APP will not engage and the aircraft will not descend automatically.

Question 108

The FINAL APP mode disengages: ‐ Automatically at

Answer 108

MAP

Question 109

When the flight crew initiates a go-around, the SRS GA vertical mode engages. In addition, one of the following occurs: ‐ If a lateral managed mode is engaged (except NAV mode), GA TRK engages, and

Answer 109

NAV mode arms NAV automatically engages as soon as the aircraft reaches the capture zone of the flight plan active leg. In addition, at go-around engagement: ‐ The FMS flight phase becomes go-around ‐ If not previously engaged, the FDs automatically engage ‐ If FPD/FPV was previously displayed, it reverts to FD bars.

Question 110

FMA : Go-around during an ILS approach

Answer 110

MAN TOGA / SRS CLB (BLUE) / GA TRK NAV (BLUE) / AP1+2 1FD2 A/THR (BLUE)

Question 111

FMA : Go-around during an approach in NAV/FPA ‐ If NAV mode is engaged, it remains engaged

Answer 111

MAN TOGA / SRS CLB (BLUE) / NAV / AP1+2 1FD2 A/THR (BLUE)

Question 112

The FMA displays SRS, when the SRS GA mode engages. The SRS GA controls the speed target via the elevators. The guidance law also includes:

Answer 112

‐ A flight path angle protection, that ensures a positive climb ‐ A pitch angle protection to reduce the aircraft nose-up (18 ° of maximum pitch altitude or 22.5 °maximum in case of windshear) ‐ A speed protection, that ensures the aircraft does not exceed VFE.

Question 113

SRS GA Mode The speed target is the memorized aircraft speed at

Answer 113

SRS GA engagement or VAPP, whichever is higher. The higher limit of the target is the lowest value between: ‐ 25 kt above VLS (or 15 kt above VLS when one engine is inoperative) ‐ 5 kt below VMAX.

Question 114

When the SRS GA mode disengages, the speed target becomes the smaller of

Answer 114

Green Dot Speed or the speed constraints.

Question 115

SRS GA engages when all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 115

‐ The flight crew sets at least one thrust lever to the TOGA detent ‐ The slats or the flaps are extended SRS GA mode can be engaged regardless of the vertical mode (except SRS TO).

Question 116

The SRS GA mode disengages when one of the following occur:

Answer 116

‐ At the go-around acceleration altitude (GA ACC ALT), or if ALT* or ALT CST* engages (above 400 ft RA) ‐ If the flight crew engages another vertical mode ‐ If the selected target altitude is above the aircraft altitude and the flight crew selects a speed: SRS GA reverts to OP CLB

Question 117

The GA TRK mode is a managed lateral mode that is applicable during go-around. The GA TRK mode maintains the

Answer 117

track of the aircraft, when the mode engages.

Question 118

GA TRK engages when all of the following conditions are applicable:

Answer 118

‐ The flight crew sets at least one thrust lever to the TOGA detent ‐ The slats or the flaps are extended GA TRK simultaneously engages with SRS GA.

Question 119

GA TRK cannot be disengaged below ___.

Answer 119

100 ft RA

Question 120

AP/FD MODE REVERSIONS REVERSION DUE TO FCU ALTITUDE CHANGES

Answer 120

V/S-FPA engages

Question 121

AP/FD MODE REVERSIONS REVERSION DUE TO THE LOSS OF NAV MODE

Answer 121

CLB engaged - OP CLB engages DES engaged - V/S engages

Question 122

SPEED PROTECTION WHEN FD ORDERS ARE NOT FOLLOWED BY THE FLIGHT CREW (AP NOT ENGAGED) FD engaged with: ‐ AP OFF, and ‐ OPDES,DESorEXPDES  engaged, and ‐ A/THR active (IDLE thrust). IAS = VLS-2 kt (between VLS-2 kt and VLS-19 kt depending on the position of the speedbrakes)

Answer 122

FD bars disappear. If A/THR active, automatic engagement of SPEED mode on the A/THR. Thrust increases to recover the speed target.

Question 123

SPEED PROTECTION WHEN FD ORDERS ARE NOT FOLLOWED BY THE FLIGHT CREW (AP NOT ENGAGED) FD is engaged with: ‐ AP off, and ‐ OPCLB,CLBorEXPCLB  engaged, and ‐ A/THR active (CLIMB thrust). IAS = VMAX+4 kt

Answer 123

FD bars disappear. If A/THR active, automatic engagement of SPEED mode on the A/THR. Thrust decreases to recover the speed target.

Question 124

AP/FD MODES - AP/FD MODE REVERSIONS SPEED PROTECTION DUE TO EXCESSIVE V/S Excessive V/S or FPA selected in climb [IAS = VLS (or VLS-5 kt if target is VLS)] OR Excessive V/S or FPA selected in descent [IAS = VMAX]

Answer 124

The selected V/S (or FPA) target is temporarily disregarded to maintain VLS in climb, or VMAX in descent.

Question 125

SPEED PROTECTION DUE TO EXCESSIVE V/S Excessive V/S or FPA selected in climb Excessive V/S or FPA selected in descent Note: When flying with FD bars only (AP OFF), the FMGS adjusts the pitch so that VLS in climb, or VMAX in descent is

Answer 125

maintained. However, no triple click is generated and the V/S target displayed on the FMA remains unchanged.

Question 126

AP/FD MODES - SCENARIO EXAMPLES TAKEOFF WITH NAV When the aircraft is at the runway threshold, and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA, SRS and RWY engage, and MAN TOGA appears on the FMA. At ___ RA, RWY disengages, and NAV engages.

Answer 126

30 ft

Question 127

TAKEOFF WITH NAV When the aircraft reaches the thrust reduction altitude, ___ flashes. The flight crew sets the thrust levers to the CL detent, MAN TOGA disappears, and ___ engages.

Answer 127

LVR CLB / THR CLB

Question 128

TAKEOFF WITH NAV At the acceleration altitude, SRS disengages, and ___ engages. From liftoff to the acceleration altitude, the managed speed target is ___. At the acceleration altitude, the managed speed target becomes the applicable FMS speed target (e.g. CLB SPD LIM, ECON speed).

Answer 128

CLB / V2+10 kt

Question 129

If CLB and NAV are engaged and NAV disengages, CLB disengages, and ___ engages.

Answer 129

OP CLB The transition from CLB to OP CLB is a reversion with a triple click.

Question 130

When active, two different types of A/THR modes are available:

Answer 130

‐ TheSPEED/MACHmode: The A/THR continuously adjusts the thrust in order to maintain a Speed/Mach target (e.g. during cruise, and approach). ‐ The THRUST modes: The A/THR controls a fixed thrust, in accordance with the engaged THRUST mode.

Question 131

The A/THR modes are automatically linked to the AP/FD vertical modes: ‐ When an AP/FD vertical mode controls the trajectory (e.g. altitude acquire modes, altitude hold modes, V/S/FPA, G/S, F-G/S  ), the A/THR is in ___ mode. ‐ When an AP/FD vertical mode adjusts the aircraft pitch in order to maintain a speed/Mach target (e.g. climb, descent), the A/THR is in ___ mode.

Answer 131

SPEED/MACH THRUST

Question 132

When the A/THR is active, the A/THR thrust target is sent to the ___. The thrust commands are then sent to the engines.

Answer 132

FADECs

Question 133

When the A/THR is armed, the FADECs compute the thrust commands in accordance with the thrust lever positions, and the selection of ___ page. When the A/THR is disconnected, the FADECs compute the thrust commands in accordance with the ___.

Answer 133

PERF TAKEOFF thrust lever positions

Question 134

The thrust levers have: ‐ Four detents: ___ ‐ Two instinctive disconnect pushbuttons.

Answer 134

IDLE, CL, FLX-MCT, TOGA

Question 135

PRELIMINARY CONDITIONS REQUIRED FOR A/THR ARMING AND ACTIVATION A/THR can only arm when all of the following are applicable:

Answer 135

‐ At least one FMGC is available, and ‐ At least one FAC is available, and ‐ Two ADIRUs are available, and ‐ Two FADECs are available, and ‐ At least one channel of the FCU is available, and ‐ At least one LGCIU is available, and ‐ The A/THR is not manually disabled (Instinctive Disconnect pb has not been pressed for more than 15 s).

Question 136

The A/THR arms, if one of the following occurs: ‐ When the aircraft is in an overspeed situation above 400 ft: ‐ The speed is above ___ in clean configuration, or ‐ The speed is above ___ , when slats or flaps are extended. Note: A triple click sounds when the A/THR arms.

Answer 136

VMAX + 5 kt VMAX + 9 kt

Question 137

A/THR ARMING The A/THR arms, if one of the following occurs:

Answer 137

‐ At takeoff, the flight crew sets at least one thrust lever: ‐ By engaging a go-around ‐ By engaging a Soft Go-Around ‐ The flight crew presses the A/THR pb on the FCU ‐ AP/FD TCAS  engages due to a RA ‐ When the aircraft is in an overspeed situation above 400 ft

Question 138

As long as the A/THR is not active, the A/THR messages on the FMA displays the manual thrust as follows:

Answer 138

MAN TOGA MAN FLX +XX MAN GA SOFT

Question 139

If the flight crew sets the thrust levers to FLX-MCT, ___ will appear on FMA.

Answer 139

MAN MCT

Question 140

If the flight crew sets the thrust levers between CL and TOGA, but not at the CL, FLX-MCT, or TOGA detent, ___ will appear on FMA.

Answer 140

MAN THR

Question 141

The flight crew performs a soft go-around, if the flight crew sets the thrust levers directly to FLX-MCT and not TOGA then FLX-MCT, the ___ will appear on the FMA.

Answer 141

MAN THR

Question 142

The normal position of the thrust levers is with A/THR active is:

Answer 142

‐ The CL detent (AEO) ‐ The FLX-MCT detent for the operative engine (OEI).

Question 143

Note: A.FLOOR engages regardless of the

Answer 143

initial A/THR status, and the position of the thrust levers.

Question 144

A/THR IN OVERSPEED When the A/THR is active in an overspeed situation, the A/THR targets one of the following speed, whichever is lower:

Answer 144

‐ The speed bug indicated on the PFD, or ‐ VMAX - 5 kt in clean configuration, or ‐ VMAX when slats or flaps are extended.

Question 145

EFFECT OF THRUST LEVER MOVEMENT WHEN THE A/THR IS ACTIVE When the A/THR becomes armed, the thrust immediately increases, in accordance with the thrust lever position (above CL detent (AEO) or above FLX-MCT detent (OEI)). The FMA displays

Answer 145

MAN THR on Line 1

Question 146

A/THR LIMITED The A/THR limits the engine thrust at the thrust levers position when:

Answer 146

‐ All the thrust levers are set below the CL detent (AEO), or ‐ The thrust lever of all operative engines are set below FLX-MCT detent (OEI). The AUTO FLT A/THR LIMITED alert is repeated every 5 s, until the flight crew moves the thrust levers to the CL detent (AEO) or FLX-MCT detent (OEI).

Question 147

When the thrust is limited, The FMA displays THR LVR on Line 1 of the "A/THR Modes and Messages" column. ___ flashes on Line 3 in the "A/THR Modes and Messages" of the FMA. This reminds the flight crew that the normal position of the thrust levers, when A/THR is active, is the CL detent (AEO) or the FLX-MCT detent (OEI).

Answer 147

LVR CLB or LVR MCT

Question 148

ASYMMETRIC THRUST LEVERS LVR ASYM flashes on the FMA if all the following conditions are satisfied:

Answer 148

‐ The A/THR is armed or active, and ‐ At least one thrust lever is set to CL detent or FLX-MCT detent , and ‐ One thrust lever is not in the same position, Note: LVR ASYM flashes until the flight crew sets all thrust levers to the CL detent or the FLX-MCT detent.

Question 149

STANDARD DISCONNECTION The A/THR disconnects if one of the following occurs:

Answer 149

‐ The flight crew presses an A/THR instinctive disconnect pb, or ‐ The flight crew sets all the thrust levers to the IDLE detent.

Question 150

If the flight crew presses, and holds one A/THR instinctive disconnect pb for more than 15 s, the A/THR will disconnect for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR modes, including ___ , will be lost. The A/THR will be recovered at the next FMGC power-up on the ground.

Answer 150

A.FLOOR

Question 151

THRUST LOCK FUNCTION The thrust lock function activates if

Answer 151

an A/THR non-standard disconnection occurs.

Question 152

As long as the thrust lock function is active, all the following are applicable:

Answer 152

‐ The engines maintain the thrust at the value set before the A/THR disconnection ‐ The FMA displays the flashing THR LK message on the third line of the first column ‐ The ECAM alert ENG THRUST LOCKED appears every 5 s.

Question 153

THRUST LOCK FUNCTION The thrust lock deactivates as soon as the flight crew

Answer 153

moves the thrust levers.

Question 154

STANDARD DISCONNECTION The flight crew can ___ , or the MASTER CAUT light to clear all the associated indicators.

Answer 154

press the A/THR instinctive disconnect pb

Question 155

Note: If the aircraft is below ___ , and the flight crew sets all thrust levers to IDLE, no alert appears.

Answer 155

50 ft RA

Question 156

The A/THR modes are: 4 items

Answer 156

THRUST, SPEED/MACH, RETARD and ALPHA FLOOR.

Question 157

THRUST mode with the associated target thrust : 4 items

Answer 157

THR CLB / CLB THR MCT / MCT THR IDLE / IDLE THR LVR / Thrust corresponding to thrust levers position

Question 158

The SPEED or MACH mode of the A/THR adjusts the thrust to acquire and maintain

Answer 158

a target speed or Mach.

Question 159

If all APs and all FDs are disengaged and the A/THR is active, the A/THR is in

Answer 159

SPEED/MACH mode.

Question 160

When in SPEED or MACH mode, the A/THR does not allow speed excursions beyond the following limits, regardless of the target speed or Mach number:

Answer 160

‐ As a maximum speed VMAX in high lift configuration, VMAX - 5 kt in clean configuration ‐ As a minimum speed: ‐ For a selected speed target, VLS ‐ For a managed speed target, the maneuvering speed of the current slats/flaps configuration (VAPP, F, S, GD).

Question 161

A/THR APPROACH MODE Below 3 200 ft RA, with at least CONF 1, the A/THR behavior is optimized:

Answer 161

‐ Above 150 ft RA, to be more responsive to speed variations ‐ Below 150 ft RA, to be less responsive to speed variations. This logic exists to avoid large thrust increases during the lower segment of the approach that may lead to destabilization and possible long flare.

Question 162

The A/THR RETARD mode is only available during an

Answer 162

automatic landing.

Question 163

When the aircraft reaches approximately 30 ft RA, the ___ mode automatically engages. The FMA displays THR IDLE and the A/THR sets the thrust to idle

Answer 163

A/THR RETARD

Question 164

During an automatic landing, RETARD callout triggers at ___. Note: In manual landing, the RETARD callout triggers at ___

Answer 164

10 ft RA 20 ft RA

Question 165

A/THR MODE REVERSIONS 3 items

Answer 165

THRUST [to] SPEED/MACH The aircraft does not follow the speed target: 1. The aircraft speed is below VLS - 2 kt when DES, OPDES or EXPDES is engaged, or 2. The aircraft speed is above VMAX + 4 kt whenCLB,OPCLBorEXPCLB is engaged. If the aircraft speed goes above VMAX + 4 kt, the OVERSPEED alert triggers. 3. A.FLOOR

Question 166

ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA thrust, regardless of the position of the thrust levers. This protection is available from ___ . When ALPHA FLOOR conditions are met, the FMA displays A.FLOOR surrounded by a flashing amber box and the EWD displays ___ .

Answer 166

lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach A.FLOOR (Amber)

Question 167

When ALPHA FLOOR conditions are no longer applicable and the speed is above VLS: ‐ The FMA displays ___ surrounded by a flashing amber box, ‐ The TOGA thrust is ___ .

Answer 167

TOGA LK / frozen To cancel A.FLOOR or TOGA LK, the flight crew must disconnect the autothrust.

Question 168

FROM SOFT GO-AROUND TO THRUST REDUCTION ALTITUDE 1. The flight crew sets the thrust levers to the TOGA detent: 2. Then, the flight crew sets the thrust levers to the FLX-MCT detent ___ 3. When the aircraft reaches the thrust reduction altitude, LVR CLB flashes, and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to the CL detent:

Answer 168

‐ The engines apply a computed thrust to target a vertical speed of approximately 2 300 ft/min, or TOGA if 2 300 ft/min cannot be reached ‐ MAN GA SOFT appears on the FMA

Question 169

The soft go-around function is only available with both engines operative. Therefore, if one engine is inoperative, the flight crew must apply and keep TOGA during go-around. Then, to activate the climb phase, the flight crew must set the thrust levers to

Answer 169

the FLX-MCT detent.

Question 170

If an engine failure occurs when the soft go-around function is engaged, ___ flashes on the FMA.

Answer 170

LVR TOGA

Question 171

Note: At takeoff, SRS TO will not engage if ___ is not available.

Answer 171

V2

Question 172

If all the APs and FDs are off, the managed speed/Mach is only available when the flight phase of the FMS is the ___ . The A/THR is then in SPEED mode.

Answer 172

approach phase

Question 173

The flight crew may insert a speed/Mach in the PERF DES page to replace the ECON DES SPD. In this case, although the value is entered by the flight crew, this speed target is still managed and is taken into account to compute

Answer 173

the top of descent and the descent profile.

Question 174

For managed speed/Mach, the lowest target is VLS, and the highest target is:

Answer 174

‐ VMAX in the case VMAX is equal to VFE, or ‐ VMAX - 5 kt in the case VMAX is equal to VMO/MMO.

Question 175

SRS TO is engaged, and the aircraft is on ground. Managed Speed/Mach Target ___

Answer 175

V2

Question 176

SRS TO is engaged, and the aircraft is airborne. Managed Speed/Mach Target ___

Answer 176

V2 + 10 kt Note: However, the magenta triangle appears on the V2 value, on the PFDs.

Question 177

SRS TO is engaged, and one engine is out. Managed Speed/Mach Target ___

Answer 177

Memorized aircraft speed at engine-out detection. The target value is limited by V2 and V2 + 15 kt.

Question 178

SRS GA is engaged. Managed Speed/Mach Target ___

Answer 178

Memorized aircraft speed at SRS GA engagement. The lower limit of the target is the VAPP memorized at 700 ft RA. The higher limit of the target is the lowest value between: ‐ VLS + 25 kt (or VLS + 15 kt OEI) ‐ VMAX - 5 kt.

Question 179

VAPP is memorized at 700 ft RA, so if the FMS loses the VAPP below 700 ft RA, the ___ will still be computed.

Answer 179

managed speed target

Question 180

MANAGED SPEED TARGET MEMORIZATION A dual FM failure has different consequences when it occurs in different phases of the flight. The system handles target speed and SPD mode as follows: During approach with LOC and G/S and radio height <700 ft, the target speed is

Answer 180

VAPP as previously memorized, and managed SPD target is maintained

Question 181

MANAGED SPEED TARGET MEMORIZATION A dual FM failure has different consequences when it occurs in different phases of the flight. The system handles target speed and SPD mode as follows: At go-around:

Answer 181

target speed becomes the memorized go-around speed, which is the higher of VAPP or the speed when go-around was initiated

Question 182

MANAGED SPEED TARGET MEMORIZATION A dual FM failure has different consequences when it occurs in different phases of the flight. The system handles target speed and SPD mode as follows: ‐ In all other cases, managed target speed reverts to ___, the value being the speed at the moment of the failure.

Answer 182

selected

Question 183

When the aircraft flies an approach in managed speed, the managed speed target, displayed by the magenta triangle on the PFDs, is variable. This managed speed target is the VAPP, displayed on the PERF APPR page, corrected by

Answer 183

the Ground Speed Mini function.

Question 184

The Ground Speed Mini function is active when:

Answer 184

‐ The speed is managed ‐ The FMS flight phase is the approach phase. The Ground Speed Mini function does not correct Green Dot, S and F speeds.

Question 185

The Ground Speed Mini function takes advantage of the aircraft inertia when the wind varies during the approach in order to provide

Answer 185

an appropriate indicated target speed (i.e. the managed target speed represented by the magenta triangle on the PFD). When the flight crew flies this indicated target speed, the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level that ensures standard aerodynamic margins versus the stall.

Question 186

GROUND SPEED MINI FUNCTION The minimum energy level is the energy level the aircraft will have at touchdown with an indicated airspeed equal to VAPP, and with the wind equal to the tower reported wind as inserted in the PERF APPR page. The ground speed then equals the Ground Speed Mini. The Ground Speed Mini is not displayed to the flight crew. During the approach, the ___ continuously computes the managed target speed in order to keep the ground speed at or above the Ground Speed Mini.

Answer 186

FMGS

Question 187

GROUND SPEED MINI FUNCTION MANAGED SPEED TARGET COMPUTATION The computation of the managed speed target uses

Answer 187

the tower headwind component, the current headwind component, and the VAPP.

Question 188

The FMS computes the VAPP, and displays it on the PERF APPR page. The VAPP computation takes into account the tower headwind component. VAPP is the highest of the following computations:

Answer 188

‐ VAPP = VLS + 1/3 x TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT, or ‐ VAPP = VLS + 5 kt. Note: “1/3 of the TWR HEADWIND COMPONENT” has 2 limits: ‐ 0 kt as the minimum value (no wind or tailwind) ‐ +15 kt as the maximum value.

Question 189

Note: If the selected speed/Mach target is set below VLS or above VMAX, with the autothrust active, the FMGS automatically limits the speed to:

Answer 189

‐ VLS, or ‐ VMAX in the case VMAX is equal to VFE, or ‐ VMAX - 5 kt in the case VMAX is equal to VMO/MMO.

Question 190

Selected speed has priority over managed speed. The only automatic change-over from selected to managed speed target may occur at

Answer 190

go-around mode engagement.

Question 191

The selected speed target disengages when:

Answer 191

‐ The managed speed target engages, or ‐ On ground at engine start.

Question 192

Note: It is not possible to activate selected speed mode on ground with

Answer 192

engines running and FD ON until after takeoff.

Question 193

If no V2 is entered at takeoff, the V/S mode engages ___ after lift-off (no SRS TO). The FCU speed target is the speed at V/S mode engagement. (A/THR becomes active when the thrust levers are set in the active range).

Answer 193

5 s

Question 194

FAIL-OPERATIONAL AUTOMATIC LANDING SYSTEM An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the remaining part of the automatic landing system allows the aircraft to

Answer 194

complete the approach, flare, and landing. The CAT3 DUAL approach and landing capability is fail-operational automatic landing system. Note: In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system operates as a fail-passive system.

Question 195

FAIL-PASSIVE AUTOMATIC LANDING SYSTEM An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition, or deviation of flight path or attitude, but

Answer 195

the landing is not completed automatically. The following approach and landing capabilities are fail-passive automatic landing system: CAT3 SINGLE CAT2 CAT1 Note: With a fail-passive automatic landing system, the flight crew controls the aircraft after a failure.

Question 196

The AUTOLAND warning flashes when:

Answer 196

‐ At least one AP is engaged below 200 ft with LOC and G/S armed, or with LOC, G/S, LAND or FLARE mode on the FMA and the difference between both RA indications is more than 15 ft RA, or ‐ At least one AP is engaged below 200 ft with LAND or FLARE mode on the FMA and one of the following conditions occurs: * The LOC deviation exceeds 1/4 dot and the aircraft is above 15 ft RA (the LOC scale flashes on the PFD), or * The GLIDE deviation exceeds 1 dot and the aircraft is above 100 ft RA (the GLIDE scale flashes on the PFD), or * Loss of LOC signal above 15 ft RA (the FD vertical bar flashes on the PFD), or * Loss of GLIDE signal above 100 ft RA (the FD horizontal bar flashes on the PFD), or * The last AP disengages, or * The FMGS detects a long flare, or * The FMGS detects an untimely flare condition. The FMGS detects an untimely flare condition when the time between LAND engagement (measured radio height is below 400 ft) and FLARE condition (measured radio height is below 50 ft) is less than 2 s.

Question 197

The FMA is located on the upper part of the PFD, and displays the following information, associated to flight guidance:

Answer 197

‐ A/THR messages and modes ‐ AP/FD modes (Vertical, Lateral, Common) ‐ Approach and landing capability ‐ AP, FD, and A/THR engagement status ‐ Special Messages.

Question 198

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (RED) Display Conditions ___

Answer 198

Displayed in case of loss of L + R elevators.

Question 199

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA MAN THR Display Conditions ___

Answer 199

A/THR is armed, and: ‐ The most advanced thrust lever is between FLX/MCT and TOGA detent, or ‐ All thrust levers are above CL detent (AEO) but not in FLX/MCT or TOGA detent, or ‐ The most advanced thrust lever is between CL and FLX/MCT detent, or ‐ All thrust levers are below CL detent.

Question 200

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA MORE DRAG Display Conditions ___

Answer 200

DES is engaged, idle is selected, and either: ‐ The aircraft is above the vertical profile and the predicted intercept point of the theoretical profile is less than 2 NM from the next altitude constraint, or ‐ The aircraft enters a speedbrake decelerating segment.

Question 201

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA SET HOLD SPEED Display Conditions ___

Answer 201

The aircraft is in selected SPEED control, an HM leg is inserted in the F-PLN and the aircraft is 30 s before the deceleration point to the precomputed HOLD SPEED.

Question 202

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA T/D REACHED Display Conditions ___

Answer 202

The thrust is not reduced when passing the Top of Descent, and the aircraft is above the flight profile.

Question 203

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA THR LVR Display Conditions ___

Answer 203

A/THR is active in thrust mode, all thrust levers are below CL detent, or the most advanced thrust lever(s) is between CL and MCT detent with at least one thrust lever in CL detent.

Question 204

CONTROLS AND INDICATORS - FMA USE MAN PITCH TRIM Display Conditions ___

Answer 204

F/CTL are in direct law or in flare law with dual RA failure.