Autoimmunity and Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

How common are autoimmune reactions

A

Mostly short-lived, self-resolving sequelae of infection. However in some 2-3%
of individuals the reaction is chronic, debilitating and even life-threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is autoimmunity considered to be generally

A

a failure of self tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the different types of molecule involved in an autoimmune reaction

A

Antibodies (autoantibodies) or T cells (autoimmune T cells) are
directed to antigens on target tissues, known as autoantige

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an explanation for the increase in autoimmune conditions in developed countries

A

hygiene hypothesis:

immune system is no longer conditioned by early exposure to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What has decreased while autoimmunity has increased?

A

infections

such as measles, mumps and TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What may cause autoimmunity

A

some autoimmune
conditions are caused by infectious organisms that have not been identified: the Cryptic Infection
hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name an autoimmune disease that is highly tissue specific

Name one that is systemic

A

Graves’ disease

SLE (lupus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 2 autoimmune diseases that attack the thyroid

A

Graves’ disease

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is pernicious anaemia

A

Lack of intrinsic factor due to autoimmune attack on parietal cells and a resulting lack of B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which autoimmune disease can target the following:
skin
kidney
joints

How can these diseases be considered

A

skin (scleroderma),
kidney (SLE)
joints (RA)

non-organ specific autoimmune diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do the 3 general autoimmune mechanisms parallel hypersensitivity?

A

parallels Hypersensitivity types II, III and IV

no autoimmune diseases are IgE mediated like type 1 hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the autoantibody mediating Graves’ disease

A

anti-TSH receptor antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the antibody against the TSH receptor differ from TSH itself

A

antibody is not subject to the negative feedback on TSH, results in hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why is Graves’ disease considered a Th2 type response

A

there is little inflammation or lymphocyte infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of autoimmune response is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Th1 - lymphocytes invade the organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does Hashimoto’s thyroiditis affect the thyroid

A

lymphocytes infiltrate the
organ. Nevertheless, antibodies are generated
which block hormone production, causing
hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following result in a goiter
Graves’ disease
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens in myasthenia gravis

A
autoantibodies to the
AChR diminish
neuromuscular transmission from
cholinergic neurons by blocking
the binding of ACh and by
causing downregulation
(degradation) of its receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name an autoimmune disease caused by direct tissue pathology following antibody binding

A

rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can immune complexes be cleared

A

complement binding on the complex to the complement receptor on RBCs

RBCs carry bound complex to liver and spleen where they are phagocytosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 2 diseases that are caused by autoantibody-antigen complexes

A

SLE

Vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which organ is particularly sensitive to immune complex deposition

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in SLE

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

patients have a wide variety of anti-cytoplasmic and anti-nuclear
auto-antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Visible sign of SLE

A

butterfly/ wolf rash on face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Who is SLE more common in
African and Asian women
26
What is a predisposing factor for LSE
, complement deficiencies that impair immune clearance, such as C1, C2, C4 there is often a complement depletion in SLE patients
27
What is the autoimmune mechanism behind T1D and MS
T cell mediated T cell mediated damage leads to tissue destruction without requiring the production of autoantibody
28
What are the different mechanisms of T cell mediated autoimmunity
cytotoxicity by CD8 T cells; direct destruction by TNF; recruitment of macrophages and subsequent bystander killing; induction of apoptosis by Fas Ligand.
29
What % of the population suffer RA How is this changing
3% decreasing as more people give up smoking
30
What is EAE
a model of MS
31
How can we show that MS can be transferred with T cells using EAE
The rat is immunised with myelin basic protein (MBP) in complete Freund's adjuvant. CD4+ T cells specific to MBP are isolated and can subsequently cause disease if injected into another animal.
32
What are most autoimmune diseases associated with genetically
one or more HLA allotype
33
Are the HLA allotypes associated with autoimmune diseases 'mutant alleles'
no they are polymorphic variants in the normal populations
34
Give a good way to express the way allotypes influence disease
Relative Risk in comparison with HLADQ6-ve people, HLA-DQ6+ves are 12 times more likely to develop multiple sclerosis. But HLA-DQ6 is common in normal healthy individuals. Conversely, not all patients who develop the disease have this allotype and only a fraction of DQ6+ves will succumb
35
What is a common haplotype in caucasian populations that is associated with T1D, SLE, Graves' disease and myasthenia gravis
A1-B8-DR3- | DQ2.
36
What position on the MHC molecule plays a major role in T1D
position 57 in the HLA-DQβ
37
What does the different HLA types being associated with different autoimmune diseases reflect
binding of different peptides to the grooves of HLA For example, a residue at position 57 of the beta chain of HLA-DQ is protective if charged (aspartate) but not if hydrophobic, reflecting binding of different diabetogenic peptides
38
True or false: T1D only involves 1 genetic locus What is this referred to What other disease can be placed in this categry
false multiple loci are involved multigenic disorders rheumatoid arthritis
39
How does incidence of autoimmunity differ between sexes? Give specific examples (4)
e Grave’s and Hashimoto’s are 4-5 times, and SLE 10 times, more common in females. Ankylosing Spondylitis is 3-4 more frequent in males.
40
What is the twin concordance rate for common autoimmune diseases eg T1D and RA
20-40%
41
Give examples of autoimmune diseases being directly caused by infection
rheumatic fever can follow Streptococcal infection; reactive arthritis after Yersinia, Shigella or Chlamydia. Non-specific infection is known to cause a flare-up of MS
42
How much are environmental factors thought to contribute to T1D Break this down
50% The MHC contributes about 25% and the other 25% comprises a variety of other genes.
43
Describe how release of a sequestered antigen can result in autoimmunity, using an example to demonstrate
In the case of autoimmune sympathetic ophthalmia, damage to one eye leads to subsequent autoimmune attack of the contralateral eye.
44
How can T cell tolerance be bypassed
modification - generation of neoantigens recognized by T cells this results in breaking of tolerance to a self antigen
45
Give an example of modification allowing bypassing of T cell tolerance
e.g. by modification of proteins, such as | citrullination, by environmental factors, such as smoking
46
Why is coeliac not strictly an autoimmune disease
it is dependent on eating gluten
47
What does coeliac disease involve presentation of
deamidated gliadin peptides by specific HLA-DQ molecules
48
True or false | Rheumatoid arthritis may involve protein modification
true protein citrullination by peptidylarginine deiminase. Initially, occurs in the lung (there is a strong link between RA and smoking). Antibodies to the modified proteins: ACPA (anti-citrullinated protein antibodies) are present in most patients with RA.
49
How can gum infection lead to autoimmunity
periodontitis | Infection of teeth and gums with P. gingivalis can result in citrullination of epitopes which again result in ACPA
50
What do both periodontitis and RA have in common
both involve bone erosion both have risk factors involving smoking and ageing periodontitis often precedes RA
51
What are the 2 distinct types of animal models
spontaneous | induced
52
Describe spontaneous autoimmune disease models
They exist as a result of deliberate inbreeding of strains of animals for particular characteristics including the incidence of autoimmune disease. Such inbred strains are therefore genetically susceptible and spontaneously develop disease
53
Give an example of spontaneous autoimmune disease models
the non-obese diabetic | (NOD) mouse
54
Describe induced autoimmune disease models
require some treatment of the animal to trigger the disease. They also generally require the presence of some genetic susceptibility factors
55
How can you induce MS in mice
inject mouse with spinal chord extract and powerful adjuvants will trigger an autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) but only in a few inbred strains. This disease resembles multiple sclerosis, as introduced above in the T cell transfer experiment in rats.
56
Describe the non obese diabetic mouse
a spontaneous T1D model, The islets of these mice are infiltrated with T cells and macrophages, with associated cytokine release and production of autoantibodies that could kill cells by ADCC
57
What do the immune mechanisms in NOD mice lead to
abnormalities in glucose metabolism and | ketoacidosis, a breakdown product of fat
58
What happens if you switch bone marrow cells between NOD and normal mice
induces T1D in normal mouse
59
How were Tregs implicated in protection against T1D
n using the NOD model as it was demonstrated, using GFP-tagged FoxP3, that this transcription factor was key in controlling the development of regulatory T cells and thus the disease.
60
Can the immune system return to a tolerised state
yes a number of induced autoimmune diseases resolve themselves
61
Treatment against autoimmune conditions is usually ineffective except in which case?
organ specific cases s where specific | agents can be used to exert metabolic control, such as thyroxine for hypothyroidism
62
What is the blunt tool to use to treat autoimmunity
immunosuppressive drugs
63
Describe a promising new treatment for RA
Blocking reagents such as anti-TNF antibodies or soluble receptor
64
Why is the Th1/Th2 paradigm useful for thinking about autoimmunity?
in some cases a predominantly cytotoxic response | is required and in others emphasis is more on antibody production.
65
Other than Th1/2 what other Th is involved in autoimmunity
Th17
66
What is a useful method to identify different subsets of T cells
staining for the associated transcription factors
67
What does Th2 make Whhat does this drive
IL-4 M2 macrophages production
68
When do Th17 cells function primarily What do they do
used in anti microbial immunity at epithelial barriers promote recruitment of neutrophils to sites of bacterial and fungal infection
69
What do Tfh cells do
localise in B cell follicles and activate B cells. responsible for Ab development, isotype switching and affinity maturation
70
What is the issue with immunosuppressants? Name some immunosuppressive agents
long term use has unwanted side effects cyclosporin and rapamycin
71
What are cyclosporin and rapamycin
potent inhibitors of T cell activation
72
Why is blocking TNF alpha considered anti-inflammatory
TNFα is generally produced by innate | immune cells
73
What is CTLA4-Ig? What does it do? What is it approved for treatment for?
a fusion protein which binds CD80 and CD86 with high affinity, prevents co-stimulation of T cells via CD28 RA
74
What is hypersensitivity
to immune responses that are damaging rather than helpful to the host. In other words, these are over-reactions of the immune system.
75
How many types of hypersensitivity are there
4: 3 Ab mediated 1 T cell mediated
76
Which hypersensitivity uderlie rapid allergic reactions
type 1
77
Name 3 kinds of type 1 hypersensitivity
hayfever eczema asthma
78
what is allergic rhinitis
hay fever - a type 1 hypersensitive reaction to pollen
79
What is the cause of a type 1 hypersensitive reaction
contact with antigen to which the host has pre-existing IgE and a Th2 type response is elicited
80
What happens after an allergen is detected in type 1 sensitivity Give 3 stages
mast cells are activated by cross linking of FcεRI via antigen binding to the bound IgE molecule mast cells release serotonin and histamine six hours later, secondary inflammatory mediators are released in the later response
81
What are the different categories of allergens in involved in Type 1 hypersensitivity Give examples of each
Pollens: birch tree/ragweed/oil seed rape Foods: nuts/eggs/seafood Drugs: penicillin/aspirin Insect products: bee venom/house dust mite Animal hair: cat hair and dander.
82
What distinguishes allergens which stimulate strong IgE responses from other antigens? (4)
no single common factor often proteases low MW highly soluble (so diffuse readily into mucus) generally stable and can survive as a desiccated particle
83
Can allergens which stimulate a type 1 hypersensitive response activate T cells
yes - they contain peptides that bind MHC Class II to prime t cells the low dose encountered favours IL-4 producing, Th2 response BUT REMEBER TPE 1 IS IgE MEDIATED (NOT T CELL MEDIATED)
84
How can you diagnose a type 1 hypersensitivity to an allergen
wheal and flare test | prick patient's skin with the allergen and wait for a reaction
85
Describe the wheal and flare test
prick patient's skin with suspected allergen if they're allergic, ‘wheal and flare’ reaction appears at the site of infection within a few minutes. wheal= swelling (edema) subsequent redness (flare or erythema) = from increased blood flow. After 6 hours there may be a late-phase reaction where the swelling spreads to involve the surrounding tissue.
86
How common is type 1 hypersensitivity
30% of some populations
87
is there a genetic component to type 1 hypersensitivity
Having two susceptible | parents doubles the risk of an affected child, indicating a genetic component
88
How can you recognise a child who atopic to type 1 hypersensitivity
have serum IgE raised 10-100 times the usual level
89
Is there a selective advantage to having type 1 hypersensitivity
increased protection against parasites (common in tropical countries)
90
When can extreme type 1 hypersensitive reactions occur What can result
if the antigen is directly injected into the blood stream. In systemic anaphylaxis the increased permeability of blood vessels results in extreme drop in blood pressure and anaphylactic shock, which can be fatal
91
What is the difference between systemic anaphylaxis and anaphylactic shock
In systemic anaphylaxis the increased permeability of blood vessels results in extreme drop in blood pressure and anaphylactic shock, which can be fatal
92
How can you treat type 1 hypersensitivity
identification and avoidance of the antigen; antihistamine and corticosteroids, which suppress leukocyte function. In some cases, desensitisation may be achieved by gradual exposure to increased dose of antigen, to convert Th2 to Th1 and/or iTreg responses.
93
Which immune cells are involved in asthma (5)
increased TH2 | lymphocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils and basophils, which amplify inflammation and airway remodeling.
94
Name some genetic susceptibility loci implicated in asthma (5)
HLA class II, TCR genes which affect the TH1/TH2 balance genes which affect IgE receptor and cytokines eg IL-4 effects of non-immune genes such as those influencing smooth muscle cell behavior, bronchial physiology and tissue repair
95
How can you induce asthma in mice genetically
. Mice lacking the T-Bet transcription factor, which drives T cells to differentiate into TH1 cells, and suppresses the TH2 pathway, have increased levels of IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 cytokines and have a disease similar to human asthma
96
True or false the skin prick test cannot be used to test if an asthmatic person is allergic to a certain allergen because asthma is not a type 1 hypersensitivity
false asthma IS type 1 hypersensitivity skin prick test is unsuitable so a breathing exhalation rate is tested after exposure to inhaled antigen
97
Describe the reaction an asthmatic person would have after inhaling an allergen
acute constriction of bronchial smooth muscle in an attempt to expel the antigen (lasts an hour) late response after 6 hours - more damaging and if the antigen persists, asthma becomes chronic and re-exposure to antigen can trigger further attacks
98
Describe the cell mediators underlying each stage of the asthmatic reaction following inhalation of the allergen
``` a) immediate bronchial constriction: due to degranulation of mast cells in the respiratory tract, armed with allergen-specific IgE. Ends after an hour ``` b) late response follows after about 6 hours, due to leukotrienes and other inflammatory mediators. This phase is most damaging and leads to recruitment of eosinophils and TH2 lymphocytes. If the antigen persists the condition may become chronic, whereby allergen-specific TH2 cells promote further IgE production and recruitment of eosinophils and neutrophils. The condition may deteriorate and the airways become occluded by mucus plugs. Re-exposure to antigen can trigger further attacks
99
How can asthma be exacerbated
by bacterial and viral infections, dominated by TH2 cells and a type IV hypersensitivity response
100
What is type 2 hypersensitivity
IgM / IgG mediated tends to lead to destruction of RBCs (hemolytic anemia) or platelets (thrombocytopenia)
101
Give an example of type 2 hypersensitivity
uncommon side effect of penicillin drug binds to self cell surface and is a target for Igs cell-bound antibody triggers clearance of the cell by tissue macrophages in the spleen, which bear Fcγ receptors, or by complement lysis.
102
What hypersensitivity is blood grouping related to
type 2
103
Why is the ABO blood group special
``` it is the only histocompatibility alloantigen for which pre-existing antibody is present in naïve, previously untransplanted (untransfused) recipients. ```
104
Explain the ABO blood grouping
``` RBC surface molecules consist of a core H antigen The O (null) allele is unmodified H antigen ``` Sugars may be attached to this core: The A allele adds a terminal N-acetylgalactosamine The B allele adds a terminal galactose AB indicates both modifications
105
What are the ABO phenotype frequencies in European Caucasoid populations
O - 45% A - 40 % B - 11 % AB - 4 %
106
What kind of hypersensitivity is Rhesus reaction
type 2
107
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn
Rhesus reaction
108
How does the hemolytic disease of the newborn come about
If the mother is Rhesus negative and the child is Rhesus positive the mother can produce antibodies to the Rhesus antigen. This happens because some Rh+ cells leak into the maternal circulation at birth. The IgG can cross the placenta and compromise the subsequent Rh+ baby.
109
How can the rhesus reaction be circumvented
by giving anti-Rh antibody (RhoGam) to the mother before she reacts to her child's red blood cells. The antibody crosslinking to FcgRIIB receptor prevents activation of naïve B cells
110
What is type III hypersensitivity
inability to clear immune complexes IgG mediated
111
What differentiates a hypersensitive response from IgE to IgG mediated
IgG hypersensitivity reactions occur when the antigen is soluble and in high quantities low levels tend to produce IgE responses
112
Describe the process involved in type 3 hypersensitivity
individual exposed to soluble allergen in high quantity IgG produced Immune complexes formed and deposited in tissue mast cells triggered via FcgRIII receptor activation of complement and polymorphs -> local tissue damage and inflammation
113
What are common examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions
post-infection complications such as arthritis and glomerulonephritis
114
What is the Arthus reaction
a local type III hypersensitivity reaction. This can be triggered in the skin of sensitized individuals who have IgG against the sensitising antigen
115
Name 2 examples of type III hypersensitivity reaction where the allergen is inhaled
pigeon fancier's lung or farmer's lung
116
What is serum sickness
a transient immune complex mediated syndrome caused by injecting horse serum (passive immunisation)
117
Why could serum sickness result after being treated for pneumonia
horse serum which was immune to pneumonia is injected to treat the patient's pneumonia this leads to type III hypersensitivity
118
What is delayed type hypersensitivity
type IV sensitivity t cell mediated memory t cells release cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages
119
When is the maximal type IV hypersensitivity reaction
48-72 hours after exposure
120
How much antigen is required for t celll mediated hypersensitivity compared to the other types
Requires MUCH more antigen (10-100x) than for Ab mediated hypersensitivity
121
What kind of reaction is poison ivy implicated in
hapten=Urushiol – passes through endothelial layers ad taken up by a dendritic cell which uses MHCII to expose the antigen to a naïve T cell Naïve T cell’s CD28 binds to the dendritic B7, promoting IL-12 release which makes T cell mature. Mature T cell produces. Mature T cells encourage a pro-inflammatory response, leading to dermatitis
122
What is a hapten
a small molecule which, when combined with a larger carrier such as a protein, can elicit the production of antibodies which bind specifically to it (in the free or combined state).
123
Which Th cells are involved in type IV hypersensitivity
Often TH1 – IV orchestrated by cytokines from TH1 CD4 cells (including TNFα IFNγ and IL-3) the recruited macrophages present antigen to T cells to amplify response
124
What are contact sensitivities Give examples
Cutaneous responses to haptens, which form stable complexes with host proteins. type IV hypersensitvity For example, poison ivy, metal salts and small reactive chemicals.
125
What is Abacavir sensitivity syndrome
``` a T cell mediated drug hypersensitivity that occurs in individuals possessing the HLA class I allele HLA-B*57 ```
126
In humans, the situations when allogeneic cells come into contact are either:
Iatrogenic (effects of medical treatment), such as blood transfusion, or Natural, such as pregnancy in placental mammals
127
What is the main problem with transplantation
most cells express polymorphic surface | antigens encoded by the MHC.
128
What are the 4 possible relationships between transplanted donor material and the recipient
autologous syngeneic allogenic xenogenic
129
What is the most common type of transplant What does it display
allogenic immunological memory
130
How is the immune system primed in transplantation
by the allograft upon first encounter with the antigen
131
What happens if a recipient that has previously rejected a skin graft is regrafted with skin from the same donor What happens if a graft from a third party is added
the graft is rejected more rapidly in a second set reaction 3rd party graft will be rejected the same as for the 1st set reaction
132
How do we know second set reactions in transplantation is caused by a memory immune response from clonally expanded and primed T cells specific for the donor skin?
The rapid second set rejection course can be transferred to normal or irradiated recipients by T cells from the original recipient
133
Why is the second set reaction in transplant rejection faster?
Memory T cells are produced alongside effector T cells in a primary immune response. Upon a second exposure to the same antigens memory T cells promote a more rapid, more effective response. This is because memory T cells to a specific antigen are more numerous than naïve T cells and they are more readily activated.
134
Which cells are important in recognition of transplants
A central role for recognition of transplanted tissue is played by T cells but other cells may be involved in rejection, including NK. However, in some cases antibodies are important, although their production may be initiated by T cells.
135
How can T cells recognize antigens on transplanted tissue
through direct recognition of the donor MHC or indirect recognition, of an antigen presented by self MHC molecules.
136
What are the 3 types of rejection following an allotransplant
1. Hyperacute rejection 2. Acute rejection 3. Chronic rejection
137
What are hyperacute rejections
occurs very rapidly, within minutes or a few hours. It results from pre-existing antibody, such as in ABO incompatible transplants
138
Give 3 examples of hyperacute rejection occurring What type of Ab is involved in all of these
y: 1. From previous organ transplants (e.g. children who have multiple transplants) 2. From pregnancy – at childbirth fetal cells enter maternal circulation and stimulate adaptive response to paternal HLA 3. From blood transfusion (matched for ABO but not HLA) anti-HLA
139
Why are tissues rejected rapidly in hyperacute rejection
ABO and HLA antigens are expressed on the endothelial cells lining blood vessels
140
How is the tissue damaged in hyperacute rejection
by complement activation, coagulation and leakage of fluids, as well as by aggregation of platelets that block the microvasculature
141
What is the issue facing companies who hope to use pig organs to transplant into humans What are the problems that need to be overcome
Hyperacute rejection also takes place in Xenotransplants First, we make natural IgM and IgG antibody to modified sugars on pig tissue. These transplants are said to be discordant. Second, complement does not function well across species. Normally complement is disabled on self tissues by the action of regulatory proteins such as decay accelerating factor (DAF). This does not work on pig tissue and the graft is attacked by the human complement.
142
What is the main immunological barrier to allotransplantation
acute graft rejection
143
What is acute graft rejection caused by What can it be compared to
T cell recognition of the transplanted tissue. Acute rejection can be thought of as a type of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction as it involves the response of CD8 T cells to HLA class I differences and CD4 T cells to HLA class II differences.
144
Why does blood transfusion not result in acute graft rejection
RBCs do not carry MHC antigens
145
Why does the polymorphic nature of the MHC genetic region make transplants problematic
and it is highly polymorphic. In spite of attempts at matching, most organ transplants are performed across some HLA class I and/or class II differences. The recipient’s naïve T cell population contains clones of so-called alloreactive T cells that recognise HLA allotypes that are not shared with the recipient. Some of these clones are of the memory type and were initially stimulated and expanded in response to pathogens but cross-react with allogeneic HLA