Autonomic Nervous System Drugs Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

acetylcholine category?

A

parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

acetylcholine MOA?

A

muscarinic & nicotinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bethancehol category?

A

parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bethanechol MOA?

A

muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pilocarpine category?

A

parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pilocarpine MOA?

A

muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

neostigmine category?

A

parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

neostigmine MOA?

A

reversible cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

malathione category?

A

parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

malathione MOA?

A

irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

atropine category?

A

parasympatholytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

atropine MOA?

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

scopolamine category?

A

parasympatholytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

scopolamine MOA?

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ipratropium (atrovent) category?

A

parasympatholytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ipratropium (atrovent) MOA?

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

EPI category?

A

sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EPI MOA?

A

stimulates alpha & beta receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

phenylephrine category?

A

sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

phenylephrine MOA?

A

alpha 1 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

clonidine (catapres) category?

A

sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

clonidine (catapres) MOA?

A

alpha 2 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

isoproterenol category?

A

sympathomimetic

24
Q

isoproterenol MOA?

A

beta 1 and 2 receptor agonist

25
albuterol category?
sympathomimetic
26
albuterol MOA?
beta 2 receptor agonist
27
amphetamine category?
sympathomimetic
28
amphetamine MOA?
stimulates the release of NE and dopamine
29
phenelzine category?
sympathomimetic
30
phenelzine MOA?
MAO inhibitor
31
prazocin (minipress) category?
sympatholytic
32
prazocin (minipress) MOA?
alpha 1 receptor antagonist
33
propranolol category?
sympatholytic
34
propranolol MOA?
beta 1 & 2 receptor antagonist
35
metoprolol category?
sympatholytic
36
metoprolol MOA?
beta 1 receptor antagonist
37
reserpine category?
sympatholytic
38
reserpine MOA?
promotes release of NE and reduces re-uptake resulting in depletion of NE stores
39
distinguishing characteristics: Rapidly hydrolyzed by esterases; acts on both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors; quaternary ammonium group invokes a polarity predicted actions: Short half-life (sec); diffuse activity; limited distribution uses: local opthalmic use if other options aren't available
acetylcholine
40
distinguishing characteristics: Not metabolized by esterase enzymes; quaternary ammonium compound; particular affinity for the gut and bladder smooth muscle; oral administration is preferred predicted actions: Longer half-life allows for distribution to areas of low perfusion; no CNS effect uses: post-op gastroparesis, urinary retention, xerostomia, ocular diagnostics
bethanechol
41
distinguishing characteristics: Resistant to esterases; plant origin, tertiary ammonium compound; preferential activity on sweat glands predicted actions: Will cause accomodation; may cause CNS effects at high plasma levels; duration of action is up to 8 hours uses: glaucoma, xerostomia SEs: diaphoresis
pilocarpine
42
distinguishing characteristics: Contains an ester group - slowly hydrolyzed (half-life is 1-2hrs); quaternary ammonium compound; poorly absorbed orally predicted actions: Elevates Ach levels; causes both muscarinic and nicotinic stimulation uses: miosis, glaucoma, myasthenia gravis, antidote to atropine, atonic gut or bladder
neostigmine
43
distinguishing characteristics: Not hydrolyzed by esterase enzymes; binds covalently to esterase enzymes; tertiary ammonium compound; rapidly absorbed through multiple routes predicted actions: causes SLUD & other ANS activities, causes CNS distribution, chemical weapon uses: insecticide, chemical warfare, not used medically atropine is antidote
malathione
44
distinguishing characteristics: Resistant to hydrolysis by esterases; plant origin, tertiary ammonium compound; metabolized in liver with a half-life of 4hrs predicted actions: Inhibits SLUD and other parasympathetic activities uses: mydiasis, cycloplegia, antidote to parasympathomimetics, diarrhea, historical asthma tx
atropine
45
distinguishing characteristics: Greater CNS distribution than atropine; similar to atropine otherwise; plant source - Hyocyamus niger predicted actions: Greater CNS effects/abuse potential than atropine; used less frequently uses: Motion sickness
scopolamine
46
distinguishing characteristics: Quaternary ammonium compound; minimal inhibition of mucociliary clearance predicted actions: No CNS effects; bronchodilation; limited mucous accumulation muscarinic antagonist
ipratropium
47
distinguishing characteristics: Metabolized in many tissues; more Beta and Alpha activity; ineffective orally predicated actions: Very short half-life (min) uses: Cardiac emergencies; bronchospasm; adjunct to local anesthesia
ephinephrine
48
distinguishing characteristics: Limited access to CNS; effective orally uses: Nasal decongestant; mydriatic SEs: rebound congestion, increased peripheral resistance, reflex bradycardia
phenylephrine
49
distinguishing characteristics: Crosses BBB; prefers alpha receptors in the brainstem; long half-life and duration of action; diminish discharge from medular vasomotor center; effective orally uses: Antihypertensive SEs: Dry mouth; sedation; sexual dysfunction
clonidine
50
distinguishing characteristics: Metabolized by COMT; short duration of action predicted actions: Tachycardia; bronchodilation; replaced by more selective beta agonists uses: Cardiac arrest
isoproterenol
51
distinguishing characteristics: Limited CV effects; duration of action is several hours; effective orally or by inhalation uses: Bronchodilator SEs: weak and ocassional tachycardia, vasodilation
albuterol
52
distinguishing characteristics: Enters the CNS; Inhibits MAO predicted actions: Vasoconstriction, cardiac stimulation, inc. BP; mydriasis - NE; CNS stimulation: euphoria, insomnia, anxiety, loss of appetite, hyperthermia uses: narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD highly abused, controlled substance
amphetamine
53
distinguishing characteristics: Readily absorbed; crosses BBB; increases synaptic catecholamine levels uses: antidepressant
phenelzine
54
distinguishing characteristics: Highly protein bound (only 5% free); effective orally uses: HTN
prazocin
55
distinguishing characteristics: Very lipid soluble; significant 1st pass metabolism; highly variable plasma levels uses: Antihypertensive; antiangina; antiarrythmic
propranolol
56
distinguishing characteristics: Similar to propranolol | uses: Antihypertensive without risk to asthma and diabetic patients
metoprolol
57
distinguishing characteristics: Derived from plant; transitory sympathomimetic followed by prolonged sympatholytic effect; Antiquated for therapeutic use - more for research uses: anti-HTN
reserpine