Autres (Quizlet, vidéos, etc) Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

What are the receptors involved in necroptosis?

A

FAS, TNFR1, toll like receptors

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2
Q

What is the focal adhesion complexe made of ? (2 proteins)

A

vinculin and talin

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3
Q

IL 12= which Th?

A

TH1

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4
Q

Which growth factor do cancer associated fibroblasts secrete?

A

TGF beta, which supresses inflammation

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5
Q

What are the Yamanaka factors

A

Oct4
Sox2
C-myc
KLF4

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6
Q

TERT is shuttled and folded by which protein?

A

HSP90

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7
Q

Which cytokine causes reduced expression MHC?

A

Interferon gamma

It also INCREASES PDL1 expression

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8
Q

Which oncogenic pathway upregulates the expression of IL10?

A

MAPK

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9
Q

Which oncogenic pathway disrupts T cell response

A

WNT/B-catenin

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10
Q

Which oncogenic pathway disrupts IFN signaling in tumor cells?

A

PTEN loss

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11
Q

ZEB, SNAIL and TWIST reduce expression of E-cadherin and increase expression of …?

A

N Caderin and vimentin

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12
Q

What does the polycomb group repressor complex do? (PRC1 and 2)

A

mediates gene silencing via lncRNA

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13
Q

cell senescence in mediated mainly by which P ? (CDKN)

A

p16

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14
Q

Which proteins inhibit RB by phosphorylating it in the cell cycle?

A

CDK4 and CDK6

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15
Q

Which molecule keeps RAS membrane associated?

A

Famesyl membrane anchor

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16
Q

growth factors activate what in the cell cycle?

A

they activate cyclins, cyclin dependant kinase phosphorylate RB, which release E2F, which has a transcriptional activity

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17
Q

Summary of MYC’s Actions:
Promotes cell cycle progression, driving cells into S phase.
Stimulates cell growth and proliferation by enhancing protein synthesis, ribosome biogenesis, and metabolism.
Reprograms metabolism, promoting aerobic glycolysis and other metabolic changes critical for fast-growing cells.
Can induce apoptosis but may also promote cell survival in certain contexts (like cancer).
Influences genomic stability and DNA damage response, contributing to genomic instability and tumorigenesis.
Plays a role in angiogenesis and tumor vascularization.
Regulates stem cell properties and differentiation, which may lead to cancer stem cell-like traits.

A

.

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18
Q

Smac/DIABLO, on top of activating caspases, it ____________

A

neutralizes IAPs (inhibitor of apoptosis proteins)

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19
Q

Hapoinsufficiency and quasisufficiency + ogligate haploinsufficiency, give an example of each (protein of the cell cycle)

A

p53 and PTEN

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20
Q

Which is the transcription factor in the JAK/STAT pathway

A

STAT

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21
Q

Which growth factor uses SMAD as signal transduction pathway?

A

TGF beta

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22
Q

Akt pathway is activated by RTK and RAS via _____. Which protein blocks Akt?

A

PI3K

PTEN

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23
Q

What is DLL4?

A

the ligand for the NOTCH receptor

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24
Q

what is the name of the repair enzyme for each:

single strand break
pyrimidine adducts
double stranded break
mutations
oxydative injury

A

base excision repair
nucleotide excision repair
recombination repair
DNA mismatch repair
8-oxo-guanosine

25
Which 2 proteins are used for non homologous recombination repair?
DNA-PK and ligase IV
26
what does PARP1 does?
helps repair DNA(single/double stranded break and others). If expressed +++ causes apoptosis via activation of p53
27
ATM/ART, CHK1/2 and BRCA1/2 are major players of ____________
homologous recombination repair
28
Transcytosis is upregulated by __________
VEGF
29
which drives margination: vasodilation or vasoconstriction?
vasodilation
30
31
In necroptosis, which is the protein/molecule that cause plasma membrane permeabilization, releasing DAMPs? And which protein forms the necrosome?
MLKL RIPK1 and 3
32
These proteins are involved in what? ULK1 VPS34 (PI3K) ARG9 LC3
autophagy
33
Which is the protein that gets cleaved in the perforin granzyme apoptosis, and degrades DNA?
ICAD/CAD - > CAD It is done via caspases Granzyme B also activates caspase 10 (mainly), caspase 3 and BID-TBID-> activating BAX/BAD pore
34
which protein detects cytoplasmic DNA and activate the STING pathway?
cGAS
35
RIG1 and MDAS recognize viral DNA and activate the _________ pathway
MAVS
36
DNA damage response: which ones are the sensors, transducers and effector: P53, Ku, Rad, ATM, BRCA1, MRE/N, ART
sensors: Ku, MRE/N, Rad Transducers: BRCA1, ART, ATM effector: p53
37
Which main TLRs are associated with necroptosis? (2)
TLR3, TLR4
38
What is the DISC?
Associated with extrinsic apoptosis, it is made of the death receptor, FADD and caspase 8, sometimes also caspase 10
39
Bid links the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptoosis , and is activated by being cleaved by which caspase?
caspase 8
40
What 2 factors compose the intrinsic tenase complex?
Factor VIII and Factor IX
41
Which is the integrin affected by Glansman thrombasthenia?
GPIIb3a (binding of platelet to fibrinogen)
42
Which coagulation factor is activated by NET
XII
43
PAF does what: vasodilation, constriction or increased permeability
vasodilation and permeability
44
45
which are the chronic proinflammatory cytokines?
IL4, IL12, IL13, IL17 (also acute), IFNgamma
46
wha are the 3 components of the indirect link between platelets and neutrophils in NE activation? And the direct?
1. MAC-1, fibrinogen, GPIIb/IIIa 2. MAC-1, vwf, GPIb PSGL1 and P-selectin
47
What does the RAGE receptor binds on neurophils?
HMGB1 (released by platelet)
48
PF4 (released from platelets) binds to ________, then they bind to a G proein coupled receptor on neutrophils -> NET
CCL5
49
Which protein induces citrullination of histones?
PAD4
50
which is the most important groth factor for fibroblast migration and proliferation
TGF beta also remember that it inhibits MM2 (reduces breakdown of ECM)
51
which is the most important growth factor for early angiogenesis?
VEGF A his receptor is VEGF R2 on endohelial cells, stimulates production of NO and migration/proliferation
52
Which is pro vessel stabilization vs anti stabilisation/proremodeling: MMPs, PDGF, TGF-B, angiopoietin 1, angiopoietin 2
pro stabilization: angiopoietin 1 PDGF TGF beta anti stabilization angiopoietin 2 MMPs
53
where does the phase 1 and phase 2 of metabolism of toxic substances occur? (which organelles/space)
phase 1 in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum phase 2 in the cytosol
54
55
What is the role of EphB4 (receptor for Ephrin B2)?
Remodeling of new blood vessels
56
Which molecule in low concentration is a vasodilator and in high concentration is a vasoconstrictor?
PAF
57
Lipoxins: PMNs make them and _________ activate them
platelets
58
Leucotriene C, D and E increase vascular permeability, cause bronchospasm and ______________
vasoconstriction
59