auxiliary machinery and associated equipment Flashcards

1
Q

what is meant by the term positive displacement pump?

A

each stroke displaces a definite quanitity of liquid, regardless of the resistance against the pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is an example of a positive displacement pump?

A

reciprocating or rotary pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the two main parts of a reciprocating pump?

A

water end and steam end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

if a riciprocating pump is driven by an electric motor, what is this pump referred as?

A

power pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most common type of reciprocating pump used in the Navy?

A

direct-acting with double action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is meant by the term direct-acting?

A

this is when the pump rod is a direct extension of the piston rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the term double-acting refer to?

A

each stroke serves both to draw in liquid and to discharge liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is it determined whether a pump is high or low pressure?

A

dependent on the size of the steam cylinder in relation to the size of the cylinder in the liquid end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what pressure would a reciprocating pump have, if the steam cylinder was larger than the cylinder in the liquid end?

A

high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the term high pressure, when associated with reciprocating pumps means what?

A

that the pressure being discharged is greater than the steam that drives the pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if a reciprocating pump has identified as 12x8x16 VSDA, what would this refer to?

A

the pump has a 12 inch steam cylinder, an 8 inch water cylinder, a 16 inch inch stroke, and is vertical single double-acting pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the purpose of cushioning valves at each end of the steam cylinder?

A

these valves are adjusted to trap a certain amount of steam at the end of the cylinder, thus cushioning each stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what part of a reciprocating pump is referred to as the power end?

A

steam end of the pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of the snifter valves?

A

emergency feed pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what publication can you use to find pertinent information on pumps?

A

NSTM 503

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

groaning in the pump end of a reciprocating pump is generally caused by what?

A

over tightening of the pump packing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of pump works by means of rotating parts, which trap liquid at the suction side, and force it through the discharge outlet?

A

rotary pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rotary pumps are particularly useful for pumping what type of fluids?

A

oil and other heavy viscous fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why are rotary pumps are particularly useful for pumping what type of fluids?

A

to minimize slippage from the discharge side to the suction side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if rotary pumps are operated at higher than normal speeds, what will occur?

A

erosion and excessive wear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of pump is frequently used as lubricating pump on pumps and other auxiliary machinery?

A

simple gear pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the major advantage of using a helical gear pump?

A

smoother discharge and increased capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is used on a helical gear pump to properly maintain alignment and reduce friction on the gear shaft?

A

roller bearings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is used on a helical pump to prevent leakage at the shafts?

A

stuffing boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of pump uses the throwing forces of a rapidly revolving impeller?

A

centrifugal pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the main feed pump is an example of what type of pump?

A

centrifugal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where does the liquid enter the impeller on a. centrifugal pump?

A

the eye (center)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

capacity and discharge pressure can be varied on a centrifugal pump by changing what?

A

pump speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what term refers to the flooding of the pump casing with fluid before it can operate?

A

pump priming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what prevents the main feed pump from overheating at no load and low load conditions?

A

recirculating lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is installed on a. centrifugal pump, to eliminate the renewing of an entire impeller and pump casing due to rapid wear?

A

wearing rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is installed on the pump shafts to prevent the total replacement of the shaft due to excessive wear and scoring?

A

shaft sleeves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the function of seal piping?

A

to cool the shaft and packing. and to seal the joint between the shaft and the packing against air leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

seal piping leads liquid from the discharge side of the pump to the annular space within what component?

A

lantern ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

main feed pumps are fitted with what two types of governors?

A

constant-pressure and speed-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what supports the weight of the impeller and maintains the position of the impeller both radially and axially?

A

bearings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

to minimize leakage from the discharge side of the pump casing to the suction side of a centrifugal pump what must not be maintained?

A

close clearances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is meant by the term axially flow?

A

liquid flow that is parallel to the shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

why are centrifugal pumps located below the level from which suctions is to be taken?

A

to simplify pump priming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a main feed pump is classified as what type of pump?

A

multistage, high speed, turbine driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what provides a positive suction head to the main feed pump?

A

feed booster pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

impellers on main condensate pumps are constructed from special materials to resist what?

A

cavitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how is entrapped air removed from pump casings?

A

vent valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the function of water flinger rings installed on main feed pump shafts?

A

to prevent stuffing box leakage from following along the shaft and entering the bearing housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

in order to feed the boiler the main feed pump must operate above steam drum pressure?

A

at least 150 psig above drum pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how often are main feed pumps checked for proper operation while online?

A

hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what type of pump is the main air ejector?

A

jet pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the primary use of jet pumps onboard ship?

A

to remove air and other noncondensable gases from main and auxiliary condensers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what type of jet pump uses liquid rather than steam to operate?

A

educator type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

a jet pump contains how many moving parts?

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

on a main lube oil or lube oil service pump filled with a constant-pressure governor, were does oil actuating line connect?

A

discharge side of the pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the purpose of the needle valve installed on the constant-pressure governor?

A

reduces hunting, and stabilizes pump discharge pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what device allows a steam turbine to operate under all conditions from no load to overload but will not exceed 110 percent of normal operating speed?

A

speed-limiting governor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

on a centrifugal-mechanical type governor what causes the steam admission valve to open and close?

A

the movement of the flyweights and spring compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what device ensures that the steam turbine will not exceed a predetermined speed and shuts off the steam when the turbine exceeds 110 percent?

A

overspeed trip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

carbon packing rings must never be lubricated with what?

A

grease oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

the final diameter of the carbon ring jig, including the raised cutting edge, should be equal to what?

A

the required inside diameter of the carbon ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

carbon rings are held together with what type of fastener?

A

springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

when carbon rings are properly fitted what type of joint is formed?

A

butt joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what systems use carbon rings?

A

low pressure and low temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how are carbon rings prevented from rotating with the shaft?

A

by lugs attached to the springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

when examining the shaft after carbon ring ring removal, you notice scoring on the shaft, what is the corrective action?

A

smooth the shaft with an oil stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

labyrinth packing segments are held in place by what?

A

springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the operating principle of labyrinth packing?

A

the steam passes along the shaft, the pressure drops in the labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what device is designed to take care of very slight misalignment between the driving the driven shafts?

A

flexible coupling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the three kinds of friction?

A

sliding, rolling and fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the maximum allowable temperature rise in oil through a bearing?

A

50 degrees F

68
Q

what is the maximum allowable bearing temperature?

A

180 degrees F

69
Q

what are radial sleeve bearings lined with?

A

Babbitt metal

70
Q

in what publication would you find general information on all bearings?

A

NSTM 244

71
Q

what type of bearing measurement with the lead wire and micrometer method, how is a reading attained?

A

by measuring the leads in a several places to see whether they are uniform and measuring them to determine the clearance

72
Q

what size of lead wire is used for bearing measurement?

A

lead wire must be .003 inch thicker than the desired bearing oil clearance

73
Q

what type of bearing measurement uses a feeler gage to determine clearances?

A

bridge gage method

74
Q

when using a mandrel to hand fit a bearing, what can be used to indicate high spots on the bearing surface?

A

Prussian blue

75
Q

what is used to dissipate heat on a radial sleeve bearing?

A

babbitt metal

76
Q

what rides against the thrust collar, on a kingsbury thrust bearing?

A

shoes

77
Q

what type of bearing is used for high speeds and heavy loads?

A

Kingsbury thrust bearing

78
Q

how are the shoes kept in alignment and equalized with pressure?

A

by leveling plates

79
Q

how is a thrust clearance reading taken on a kingsbury thrust bearing?

A

by moving the shaft axially in each direction and by measuring the amount of end play with a dial indicator

80
Q

what is babbitt composed of?

A

lead base and tin base alloys

81
Q

what is another name of a anti friction bearing?

A

ball bearing

82
Q

what is the function of flexible couplings?

A

to join the driver and driven shafts and take care of very slight misalignment between the driving and driven shafts

83
Q

what is the flexible comment in a grid type coupling manufactured from?

A

spring steel

84
Q

when should oil coolers be put into operation on auxiliary machinery?

A

when the temperature of the lube oil leaving the cooler is 100 degrees F

85
Q

what are the two main types of forced draft blowers used onboard naval ships?

A

centrifugal and propeller

86
Q

force draft blowers serve what function?

A

to furnish a large amount of air required for combustion of the fuel oil

87
Q

as a rule, how many main force draft blowers are provided per boiler?

A

two

88
Q

how is the air intake protected to prevent entry of foreign objects?

A

screened intakes

89
Q

what publication lists general information on all force draft blowers?

A

NSTM 554

90
Q

What is the function of the diffuser vanes installed downstream from the fan wheel?

A

to straighten the air flow as it leaves the blower

91
Q

when the blower is secured, what is the position of the shutters?

A

locked closed

92
Q

failure to lock the shutters on an idle blower can result in what, if another blower is operating?

A

windmilling of an idle blower

93
Q

what is the discharge duct of the force draft blower connected to?

A

boiler air casing

94
Q

on blowers that use nozzle valves, how are they designed to control speed?

A

by opening in sequence

95
Q

what is the major difference between centrifugal and propeller blowers?

A

direction of air flow

96
Q

what is the most common force draft blower found onboard naval vessels?

A

propeller type

97
Q

how is the blower speed checked for revolutions per minute? (RPM)

A

by the use of tachometers

98
Q

what is installed to prevent the force draft blower turbine from exceeding the maximum safe operating speed?

A

speed limiting governors

99
Q

what is the power source of the port use blower?

A

electric motor

100
Q

what type of lubrication system is installed on steam force draft blowers?

A

force feed

101
Q

what is the temperature of the oil cooler outlet maintained at on all steam driven auxiliary machinery?

A

between 120 degrees F and 130 degrees F

102
Q

what are the stationary diffuser blades on a vane axial force draft blower called?

A

stator blades

103
Q

what is the FDB tachometer, that is driven by the governor spindle calibrated to indicate?

A

main shaft speed in revolutions per minute (RPM)

104
Q

what device prevents carryover in the distilling plants?

A

moisture or vapor separators

105
Q

what does the term evaporating refer to?

A

the progress of boiling water setter to separate it into feed water vapor and brine

106
Q

in the distilling plant what is the first stage of distillation defined as?

A

evaporation

107
Q

what is the second stage of distillation in the distilling plant called?

A

condensation

108
Q

in the distilling process the term vapor means?

A

the end product of the evaporated seawater

109
Q

what is the most widely used distilling plant in the navy?

A

flash type

110
Q

what is the major heating source of the seawater heater?

A

auxiliary exhaust

111
Q

what type of heat exchanger is used for fuel and lube oil coolers?

A

counterflow

112
Q

the main condenser is an example of what type of heat exchangers?

A

cross flow

113
Q

what are the five classifications of heat exchanger?

A

path flow, direction of flow, number of passes, type of surface, type of construction

114
Q

what does the term parallel flow mean?

A

when both fluids flow in the same direction

115
Q

what doe the term counter flow mean?

A

when the flow fluids flow in opposite directions

116
Q

what does the term crossflow mean?

A

when one fluid flows at ring angles to another

117
Q

if the surface of a heat exchanger is fitted with rings, fins, studs, or some other kind of extension it is termed what type?

A

extended surface

118
Q

what publication lists general information on heat exchangers, condensers, and air ejectors?

A

NSTM 254

119
Q

A condenser changes a gas to a liquid by causing the gas to?

A

lose its latent heat

120
Q

what type of heat exchanger is the deaerating feed tank (DFT)

A

direct contact

121
Q

a plain surface heat exchanger is constructed to have what type of surface?

A

very smooth

122
Q

what type of heat exchanger is constructed of pairs of flat oblong strips?

A

strut tube and plate tube

123
Q

what type of heat exchanger is constructed to have one tube inside another?

A

double tube

124
Q

what type of heat exchanger is constructed to have coils of tubing?

A

helical or spiral tube

125
Q

what type of heat exchanger uses U shaped tubes on one tube sheet?

A

return bend

126
Q

what is the function of an air ejector?

A

to remove air and noncondensable gases from condensers

127
Q

how is flow through the air ejector maintained?

A

by jet of high velocity steam passing through a nozzle

128
Q

what is the first stage of the main air ejector called?

A

intercondenser

129
Q

what is the second stage of the main air ejector called?

A

aftercondenser

130
Q

where does the aftercondenser take a suction from?

A

intercondenser

131
Q

what is used to cool the main air ejector assembly?

A

condensate

132
Q

what prevents the main air ejector from overheating?

A

thermostatic recirculating valve

133
Q

what system provides steam to the main air ejector?

A

auxiliary steam system

134
Q

what are the three functions of the main air ejector?

A

initiates the vacuum in the main condenser
helps maintain the vacuum in the main condenser
removes air and noncondensable gases

135
Q

what is meant by the term helical flow turbine?

A

when steam enters at a tangent to the periphery of the rotor and impinges upon the moving blades

136
Q

what are the blades on a helical turbine called?

A

buckets

137
Q

what is the primary purpose of the turbine wheel or rotor?

A

to carry the moving blades

138
Q

what converts the thermal energy from the steam into rotary movement of the shaft?

A

the moving blades

139
Q

what is the purpose of the equalizing hole drilled through the rotor on an impulse turbine?

A

to prevent the development of a pressure difference between the two sides

140
Q

how are impulse blades attached to the rotor?

A

by either an inverted circumferential dovetail or a pine tree dovetail

141
Q

on an impulse turbine what is the function of the nozzle?

A

to guide the steam from the steam chest to the moving blades

142
Q

what are the three functions of the deaerating feed tank?

A

to free the condensate of oxygen and other noncondensable gases
to preheat the feed water
to act as a reservoir in which to store feedwater

143
Q

what is the major heating source of the deaerating feed tank?

A

auxiliary exhaust

144
Q

the deaerating feed tank is designed to operate at what pressure and temperature?

A

15 psig and 240 to 250 degrees F

145
Q

what assists the deaerating feed tank atomizing valve in opening?

A

high pressure drains

146
Q

what protects the deaerating feed tank from excessive internal pressure?

A

a relief valve

147
Q

what pressure is the deaerating feed tank relief valve set to lift at?

A

approximately 30 psig

148
Q

what device is installed on the deaerating feed tank to protect it from excessive external pressure from the atmosphere?

A

vacuum breaker

149
Q

what is the deaerating feed tank vacuum breaker set to lift at?

A

approximately 13 psig

150
Q

what is the minimum recirculation time of the deaerating feed tank, prior to alignment to the feed system?

A

10 minutes

151
Q

normally, what is the pressure drop between the auxiliary exhaust steam line and the deaerating feed tank?

A

1/2 psig or less

152
Q

what component receives a steam-air mixture from the deaerating feed tank and from the glands of auxiliary steam turbines?

A

gland leakoff condenser

153
Q

what is installed in the deaerating feed tank to minimize turbulence of the water, due to the ships movement?

A

swash plates

154
Q

what two types of lube oil purifiers are currently in use today?

A

delavel and sharples

155
Q

a disk type purifier would be constructed by what manufacturer?

A

delavel

156
Q

a sharples purifier uses what typeof rotating element?

A

a tubular type

157
Q

both lube oil purifiers employ what type of force to separate water from the oil?

A

centrifugal

158
Q

for maximum efficiency lube oil purifiers should be operated in what manner?

A

operate the purifier at maximum designed speed and rated capacity

159
Q

when oil becomes emulsified you should lower the percent of lube oil purifier rated capacity to?

A

80 percent at rated capacity

160
Q

when a purifier is being operated as a separator the bowl must be primed with?

A

fresh water

161
Q

how often must you clean an operating lube oil purifier?

A

it is dependent on the amount of foreign matter in the oil. if the amount of foreign matter is not known you should shut down the purifier and check it. cleaning is normally accomplished after 12 hours of continuous sump to sump purification

162
Q

if the water seal fails on an operating purifier what could be the end result?

A

lube oil can be dumped to a drain tank or the bilges

163
Q

what can be used to preheat the lube oil prior to it reaching the lube oil purifier

A

a steam heater

164
Q

information on proper idle condenser lay up can be found in what NSTM?

A

NSTM 254

165
Q

what is the composition of main condenser tubes?

A

90/10 copper nickel alloy

166
Q

what divides the main condenser seawater side and condensate side?

A

a tube sheet

167
Q

ship’s not equipped with air ejectors establish main condenser vacuum by

A

by using vacuum pumps