Aviation Flashcards
(903 cards)
1
Q
What produces the maximum glide range?
A
Best lift drag ratio, flying at minimum drag speed VIMD (page 2)
2
Q
What is the effect of weight on the glide range?
A
Weight doesn’t effect glide range. A light and a heavy plane would fly the same gliding range but the heavier will do so at higher speed or to reach the same point it would have to start the descent earlier (page 2)
3
Q
What is rate of climb/descent?
A
Is the height achieved compared to the distance travelled over the ground (page 2)
4
Q
What is the effect of weight on rate of descent?
A
If weight increases rate of descent increases (page 2)
5
Q
What is an airfoil?
A
A body that produces lift when into an airflow like wings, rudder, tail plane, propeller (page 2)
6
Q
What is an airfoil chord line?
A
Straight line from leading edge to trailing edge (page 2)
7
Q
What is the mean chord line?
A
Wing area divided by wing span
8
Q
What is the mean chamber line?
A
Is the line that cuts the wing in half (page 3)
9
Q
What is the angle of incidence ?
A
Is the angle between the aerofoil’s chordline and the aircraft’s longitudinal datum (which is fix for a wing) (page 3)
10
Q
What is angle of attack?
A
The angle between the chord line and the airflow (page 3)
11
Q
What is washout on a wing ?
A
A decrease of angle of incidence from the root to the tip to fight against early wing tip stall (page 3)
12
Q
What is dihedral ?
A
Is the upward inclination of the wing to improve lateral stability ex.PA28 (page 3)
13
Q
What is anhedral ?
A
Is the downward inclination of the wings to decrease lateral stability ex.antonov Russian plane (page 3)
14
Q
What is lift?
A
Lift is the force caused by the movement of an aerofoil into a airflow (page 3)
15
Q
What is the lift formula?
A
L= 1/2rho v2 S CL
16
Q
What is CL?
A
Is made of angle of attack and chamber (page 4)
17
Q
Describe CoP?
A
The CoP is the point where Lift force acts (page 4)
18
Q
Describe the L/W pitching moment ?
A
If the forces of L and W are not acting to the same point there will be either a nose down or nose up pitching moment depending whether the CoG is acting in front or behind the CoP (page 5)
19
Q
Describe aspect ratio
A
Ratio of wing span and geometric chord
High aspect ratio = high lift
Low aspect ration = low lift
20
Q
During what phases of flight is lift the greatest?
A
During take off (page 5)
21
Q
What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight?
A
Lift Weight Thrust Drag (page 1)
22
Q
What is the direct lift control ?
A
Elevator / stabilizer (page 6)
23
Q
What are high lift devices ?
A
Slats ( leading edge flaps - Kruger Flaps),
Trailing edge flaps ( fowler flaps)
Slots (boundary layer control)
(Page 6)
24
Q
What is Drag ?
A
Drag is the resistance of motion of an object (page 6)
25
Define the two major type of drag?
```
Induced drag:
as speed increases induce drag decreases
As speed decreases induce drag increases
Parasite drag
-form drag
-interference drag
-skin friction
Page 6
```
26
Describe the drag curve of a piston propeller aircraft?
Page 7
27
Describe the drag curve of a jet aircraft?
-flatter drag curve
-not noticeable change of flying qualities other than a light lack of speed stability
-VIMD is higher because swept wing is more efficient against profile drag
Page 8
28
Describe the pitching moment associated with the T/D couple?
With jet plains with engines under the wing the increase and decrease in thrust causes the plane to pitch up or down
Page 9
29
What are high drag devices?
- trailing edge flaps
- spoilers
- landing gear
Page 9
30
What causes/are wing tip vortices?
Are caused by the high pressure under the wing trying to reach the low pressure over the wing, the two pressure mix at the trailing edge and wing tip and cause vortices
Page 10
31
What are the effect of span wise airflow over the wing?
| Normal wing airflow
- create wing tip vortices
- reduce aileron efficiency
- the flow that tries to reach low pressure from bottom creates extra disturbance on wing tip causing wing tip stall
Page 10
32
What are the effect of wing tip vortices?
- create induce drag
- create turbulence
- down wash affects the direction of the relative airflow over the tailplane which affects longitudinal stability
Page 11
33
How do you prevent span wise flow?
Fences and vortex generators which direct the airflow perpendicular to the upper wing leading edge
Page 11
34
What is the purpose of vortex generator / fences?
Vortex generators disturb the airflow improving ailerons effectiveness because disturbed airflow sticks to the wing longer
Fences they impose in front of the airflow that tries to reach the wing tip when the root has stalled, keeping the airflow over the wing tip un-stalled
Page 11
35
What are winglets and how do they work?
Are little fences on the wing tip that help reduce drag and increase fuel consumption by preventing the mixing of the bottom and upper wing airflow
Page 11
36
What limits an aircraft structural weight ?
The lift capability of the aircraft therefore the wings
Page 12
37
What are the effects of excessive aircraft weight?
```
Take off and landing distance is increased
Rate of climb of climb is reduced
Range and endurance is reduced
Max speed is reduce
Stall speed is increased
Manoeuvrability is reduce
```
Page 12
38
Describe CoG.
Is the point where weight acts
Page 12
39
Describe (component) arm?
Is the distance between the datum and where the weight component of something acts
Page 12
40
Describe CoG moment?
Moment = arm x weight
Page 13
41
What is the pitching moment of the L/W coupled balanced?
The tailplane
Page 13
42
Describe the CoG range ?
Is the furthest toward and aft position where the CoG acts and where the tailplane can help the aircraft to be longitudinally stable
Page 13
43
What are the reason/effects of keeping the CoG inside its limits ?
Ensure
- Not too nose or tail heavy
- aircraft pitch control is not compromise
- minimum horizontal tailplane deflection
44
What are the effects of CoG outside limit range ?
Forward CoG
- nose heavy
- stable
- stall speed increases
- fuel flow increase
- range decreases
Aft CoG
- tail heavy
- unstable
- stall speed decrease
- fuel flow decreases
- range increases
Page 15
45
If you were loading and aircraft for max range, aft of forward CoG?
Aft
Page 16
46
How does a forward CoG increase stall speed and why.
Weight is a factor affecting stall speed, if weight increases stall speed increases
Page 16
47
Why does a jet aircraft have (need) a large CoG range ?
Because it's CoG can change with the change in weight during the flight
Page 17
48
How does an weight affects an aircraft flight profile point.
The heavier the plane the soon it would need to start its descent
Page 18
49
What is positive G force?
1 g
Page 18
50
What is negative g force ?
Above 1 g
51
Describe how you would design a high speed aircraft wing?
Thin, minimal chamber, swept wings
Page 19
52
How does a swept wing aid the increase in its critical Mach number?
The airflow going over the swept wing "sees" a already thin wing even thinner due to the oblique backward shape.
A thin wing equals small chamber therefore slow acceleration.
Swept wing = slower air velocity = higher Mcrit = later shockwaves onset = later drag onset
Page 19
53
Describe how you would optimise the lift design of a swept wing?
Add lift devices
Page 20
54
What advantages does a jet aircraft gain from a swept wing?
- High Mach cruise speed
- stability in turbulence
Page 20
55
What disadvantages does a jet aircraft suffer from a swept wing ?
- poor lift
- stall speed increased
- unstable at low speed
- wing tip stalling tendency (due to greater angle of incidence)
Page 21
56
Where does a swept wing stall first, and what effects does this have on an aircraft's attitude ?
At Wing Tip
After the wing tip has stalled the CoP will move inward and forward towards the leading edge, this will cause the nose to rise and the plane to stall.
Solutions:
- increase wing tip chamber
- wash out or twist on wing tip
Page 21
57
Explain speed stability.
A speed is said to be stable when after being disturbed from its trimmed state it returns back to its original speed.
Unstable is when the speed keeps changing after a disturbance
Page 22
58
What's is Mach number?
Mn = TAS/LSS
LSS = 38.94 sq root of T
T in Kelvin = 273 + Celcius degrees
Page 23
59
What is the critical Mach number ?
Is the number at which airflow becomes sonic
0.72 is a typical Mach number where airflow becomes sonic Mach 1 over the upper surface of the wing
Page 23
60
Describe the characteristics of critical Mach number ?
| what happens when Mcrit is reached ?
1. Initial Mach buffet due to shock wave
2. Increase in drag
3. Mach Tuck
4. Possible loss of control
Page 23
61
Describe the change in the centre of pressure as an aircraft speed increases past the critical Mach number ?
As speed increases above Mach critical number the shockwave created will get bigger and move backwards and backward. The highest lift is in front of the shock wave so the CoP will move with it. As the CoP moves rearward it will lift the tail and pitch the nose down causing Mach Tuck
Page 23
62
What is Mach Tuck?
As speed increases above Mach critical number the shockwave created will get bigger and move backwards and backward. The highest lift is in front of the shock wave so the CoP will move with it. As the CoP moves rearward it will lift the tail and pitch the nose down causing Mach Tuck
Page 24
63
What is the purpose of a Mach Trimmer?
To compensate for Mach Tuck
Page 24
64
What is Mach Trimmer and what is used for?
Is a system that with a proportional upwards movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabiliser maintains the aircraft's pitch attitude above its Mcrit
Page 24
65
What are the effects of compressibility?
- airspeed indicator shows and over-read error
- shock wave / drag
Page 25
66
Explain speed margins
A speed margin is the difference between the aircraft's normal maximum operating speed and its higher certified testing speed
Page 25
67
What is coffin corner?
Coffin corner is reached when the aircraft reaches its absolute ceiling where stall speed and Mach critical number are the same.
Stall speed is the lowest speed to fly at before reaching stall
Mcrit is the maximum speed to fly at before reaching stall
Page 27
68
Explain why an aircraft stalls
When a wing is not able to produce lift anymore
Page 27
69
What properties affect an aircraft's stall speed ?
- weight
- altitude
- wing design
- configuration
- prop speed
Page 27
70
How does the stall speed varies with weight ?
If weight increases stall speed increases
As weight increases we can either increase wing size to produce more lift or increase speed always to produce more lift
Page 27
71
What wing design the delay the break up of airflow (stall)?
- wing slots
- lower angle of incidence
- greater Chamber for a particular wing section (wing tip)
Page 28
72
What changes the aircraft angle of attack at the stall ?
The movement of the CoP
Page 28
73
What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes and why ?
The stall speed increases
Because of:
- Mach number compressibility effect over the wing
- compressibility error on the IAS
Page 28
74
What is a super stall ?
Also known as Deep Stall is mainly associated with rear engine, high T-tail swept wing aircraft.
As the plane is reaching the stall the turbulent airflow created by the wings flying at low speed is hitting the T-tail causing it to be ineffective cause it would need a clean airflow. As the nose pitches up the elevators are not working therefore the nose will keep rising no stop.
Page 29
75
What systems protect against a stall?
Stall warning and stick pusher
A stick shaker is activated at or just before the onset of pre stall buffet
Page 30
76
What is Dutch Roll ?
It's yaw and roll together. It's a oscillatory instability associated with swept wings.
Page 30
77
What causes Dutch Roll?
Swept wings
When a yaw is induced the adverse action is for the aircraft to roll. As the aircraft rolls the outside wing is producing more speed and therefore more lift to a point where it stalls. This cause a wing drop and an adverse yaw towards the dropped wing at this stage the new outer wing is producing more speed and more lift to a point where now it stalls and the aircraft will yaw towards it. This can continue endlessly.
Page 30
78
What is the recovery technique from Dutch roll?
Use of opposite ailerons (2-3 times)
Rudder will not be effective as the pilot is not quick enough to counteract the yaw.
Yaw damper
Page 30
79
What prevents Dutch Roll?
Yaw Damper which improves the effectiveness of the fin
Page 31
80
What is spiral stability and instability ?
Spiral stability is the tendency of an aircraft to return into level flight on its on from a turn on release of ailerons.
Spiral instability is the opposite usually found with planes with large fin where the fin will jump into action creating a side slip which will steep the turn until the point of spiral dive.
Page 32
81
What is lateral stability ?
Is the tendency of a aircraft to return to a laterally lever position around he longitudinal axis on release of the ailerons into a side slip.
Two main features:
- wing dihedral
- side loads produced on the keel surface (fin)
Page 32
82
What is Longitudinal stability ?
Is the aircraft's natural ability to return to a stable pitch position around the lateral axis after a disturbance
Page 32
83
Describe stability at high altitudes?
Stability is reduced at high altitudes in term of dynamic stability mainly because aerodynamic damping(restoring moment) decreases with altitude
Page 34
Whenever in-flight maneuvers result in rotation of an aircraft about or near its center of gravity, a restoring moment is created by the changed relative airflow. This restoring moment opposes the control demands, and it arrests maneuvers as and when the control demands cease. The effectiveness of the restoring moment (known as aerodynamic damping) is dependent on the dynamic pressure (i.e., indicated air speed). As altitude increases, true air speed increases for the given equivalent air speed, resulting in decreased aerodynamic forces. Thus, at higher altitudes the pilot must apply greater opposite control movements to arrest rotation.
84
What are the 4 flying qualities penalties experienced at very high altitude?
1. Restricted operating speed range
2. Reduced manoeuvrability
3. Reduce aerodynamic damping
4. Reduced stability
Page 34
85
What are the primary control surface?
Ailerons, elevators, rudder
Page 35
86
What is the elevator and how does it work?
Page 35
87
What is the aileron and how does it work?
Page 35
88
What is the rudder and how does it work?
Page 35
89
How does the effectiveness of the control surfaces vary with speed?
As speed increases they become more effective
Page 36
90
What is elevator reversal?
At high speed the air loads over the elevator can be so strong to cause a twisting moment that can push the elevator back to neutral or opposite position cause a reverse of aircraft's pitch attitude
Page 36
91
What is adverse yaw?
As the aircraft rolls to the right the nose yaw to the left, caused by the downgoing aileron on the left wing.
Features:
- frise ailerons
- differential ailerons
Page 36
92
What is aileron reversal?
At high speed the air loads can produce a twisting moment and cause the downgoing aileron to reverse upwards and cause an adverse roll (a roll in the opposite direction)
Page 36
93
What is a yaw induced adverse rolling motion, and when is it likely to occur?
Yaw left roll right and vice versa.
It happens at high speeds
Page 37
94
What are spoilers and how do they work?
Spoilers consist of opening panels over the wing. They can work as spoiler, differential, to spoil the airflow, create more drag to help in a turn.
They can work as speed breaks, working in parallel to increase drag and dump lift on landing and to slow the plane down
Page 37
95
What are the 3 purposes of spoilers?
- roll control
- speed brakes
- ground lift dumpers
Page 38
96
Give six reasons for spoilers?
- ailerons are limited in size therefore effectiveness
- on this swept wing ailerons are too large and can experience air loads twisting moment
- ailerons lose effectiveness at high speeds
- to fight adverse rolling moment with yaw
- due to lag in engine response to slow down
- dump lift off during rejected take off or landing
Page 38
97
What limits the use of spoilers and why they blow back?
Very high speeds which cause them to blow back
Page 39
98
How is spoilers blow back prevented ?
Follow speed limits
Page 39
99
How do you correct spoilers blow back ?
Reduce speed
Page 39
100
What do leading edge slats do?
Increase wing chamber, increase lift, decrease stall speed
Page 39
101
What are Kruger flaps?
They are leading edge flaps that increase chamber therefore increase lift
Page 39
102
What are Fowler flaps?
They are three slotted trailing edge flaps
Page 40
103
What is the primary use of flaps on jet aircraft ?
To increase lift by increasing wing area
Page 40
104
What are the effects of extending flaps in flight?
Mainly increase lift and create a nose up pitching pitching moment
Page 40
105
What are the effects of raising flaps in flight?
Lift loss
Page 40
106
How do flaps affect take off ground run?
The right a degree of flaps will improve lift and reduce the take off run
Page 41
107
What are the proposes of roll and yaw dumpers and how do they work?
A Yaw Damper is a gyro system that applies opposite rudder, especially used again Dutch Roll.
A Roll Damper applies opposite roll in turbulence controlling lateral stability
Page 42
108
Describe parallel Yaw Dampers?
They works in parallel with the pilot's pedals. Their activity is reflected in the rudder bar activity because they move the pedals
Page 42
109
Describe series yaw dampers?
It operates on the rudder but the system doesn't actually move the rudder pedals
Page 42
110
What is a stabiliser / variable incidence tail plane ?
It's an all moving tail plane
111
What is the purpose of a stabiliser ?
The purpose of the horizontal stabiliser is to provide s longitudinal balance force to the aircraft. The stabiliser covers large and small pitching moments
Page 43
112
For are the 4 reasons for a variable incidence tailplane stabiliser especially on jet aircrafts ?
- provide balance force for large centre of gravity range
- provide a balancing force for a large speed range
- to cope with large speed changes
- to reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum
Page 43
113
Describe the effects of a stuck stabiliser.
Is degraded longitudinal balancing ability which is due to the employment of the less powerful elevator in providing this longitudinal balancing force
Page 43
114
What is the best CoG position with a stuck stabiliser and why ?
is the AFT position.
Because it need to be tail heavy to improve elevator movements
page 43
115
What is the required action with a stuck stabiliser ?
- divert to nearby airfiled
- move the CoG aft
- reduce speed as late as possible
- plane a long final approach
- use a reduce flap settings
page 44
116
describe a runaway stabiliser condition and required action ?
```
it's when the brakes te hold the stabiliser into a certain position don't work anymore.
required action:
- hold control column firmly
- disengage the autopilot
- cut stab trim out
- hold trim wheel
```
page 45
117
describe the effects of a jammed/degraded elevator ?
will result in a less effective elevator manouvrability
118
what is the best CoG position with a jammed/degraded elevator?
AFT, to lessen the need for large pitch control demand
119
what is the required action for a jammed/degraded elevator ?
if the elevator is jammed than it's unusable.
if the elevator control is degraded that it could be assessed if can still be safely used.
actions:
- move CoG aft
- plane a long final
- use low flap settings
page 45
120
describe the effects of a failure/reduction in elevator feels ?
whenever the feel is reduced great care must be exercised in its use. slow and smooth movements
page 46
121
what it the best CoG position with a reduced or failed elevator feel system?
forward, to reduce the weight over the elevator feel system, since it need gentle movements, the lighter the better
page 46
122
describe the effects of the air loads on a control surface and how this effects are managed ?
hinge moment of air load force = lift force(air load) x arm
lift force experienced depends on
- airspeed
- angle of deflection
page 46
123
what is a tab surface and what can it be used for ?
is a small hinged surface found on a primary flight control, it can be used for:
- trimming
- control balance
- servo operation
page 46
124
what is a balanced tab?
reduces the overall hinge moment like a trim tab
125
what is a hinge/horn balance ?
hinge balance sets the hinge line back into the control surface thus reducing the center of pressure to hinge line harm.
horn balance is a protruding control surface that produces a balancing force in the opposite direction of the main lift reducing hinge moment.
page 47
126
what is a mass balance?
it's a mass weight that keeps the control surface into position and fights against the twisting moment caused by air loads.
page 48
127
why are control surfaces hydraulically operated on large aircraft ?
it is simply beyond the strength of a pilot
page 48
128
why does a powered control surface needs a artificial feel system ?
cause they do not feed back to the pilot any sensory information
page 48
129
how does an artificial feel work ?
the simplest form is a Spring Box or otherwise a Q Feel which is a sophisticated computer based artificial feel
page 48
130
what is Q Feel and where it is used ?
Q Feel which is a sophisticated computer based artificial feel used on aircraft with powered flight controls
page 49
131
what are the inputs to Q Feel ?
- static and dynamic pressure
- control surface angle of deflection
page 49
132
what are active(automatic) controls?
an active control is a control surface that moves automatically
page 49
133
what is thermodynamics ?
is the study of the behaviour of gases under variation of temperature and pressure
page 51
134
explain Bernoulli's theorem
if the kinetic energy is increased the pressure/temperature energy drops proportionally and vice versa so as to keep the total energy constant
page 51
135
explain a Venturi
```
a venturi is a convergent/divergent tube
convergent:
- velocity increase,
- static pressure decreases,
- temperature decreases
```
divergent:
- velocity decrease
- static pressure increases
- temperature increases
page 52
136
what is the combustion cycle of an piston engine ?
- induction
- compression
- combustion
- exhaustion
page 52
137
what is compression ration in a piston engine ?
total volume / clearance volume
page 52
138
what produces the ignition on a piston engine ?
spark plugs connected to magnetos
page 53
139
what does blue, black, white smoke indicate ?
blue: oil burn (oil leak in cylinder)
black: fuel bun (mixture is too rich)
white: water (high water content into combustion chamber)
page 53
140
what is engine toque ?
is a force causing rotation, like the twisting moment caused by the spinning propeller onto the engine
page 53
141
what is a normally aspired pistone engine ?
an engine where its power output is restricted by the cylinder capacity without the help of super/turbo charge
page 53
142
what is a supercharged piston engine ?
supercharger compresses the air for a greater engine power output.
it is engine driven connected by a belt
page 53
143
how is the piston engine power output increased to compensate for low atmospheric pressure ?
by the use of superchargers or turbocharges
page 54
144
what regulates the supercharger to deliver a constant boost manifold pressure ?
the Auto Boost Control
page 54
145
how is engine power monitored ?
MAP and boost pressure gauge
page 54
146
what advantages does an aircraft gain from a propeller ?
- creates a high energy slipstream
- has a quick response to throttle input
page 54
147
what produces thrust in propeller driven aircraft ?
the movement of the propeller through the air
page 55
148
what restriction does the propeller design have ?
blade length due to:
- ground and fuselage clearance
- blade tip speed
blade chord size due to:
- increase in chord size will reduce aspect ration
- increase in chord size will increase twisting moment
page 56
149
how does the propeller converts energy horse power to produce thrust ?
thrust = air mass x velocity
page 56
150
why is the propeller blade twisted ?
to maintain a constant AoA
page 56
151
how do you define propeller efficiency ?
propeller efficiency = prop thrust / engine bhp
page 56
152
what are the disadvantages of a fixed pitch propeller ?
that it only produces its maximum efficiency at one predetermine engine RPM, altitude and airspeed.
page 56
153
what is a variable pitch propeller and why is it used ?
it's a propeller that can change the blade AoA use to its optimum settings in order to maintain propeller efficiency and aircraft thrust over a wide range of aircraft speed
page 57
154
what controls the propeller blade angle/ speed ?
the governor (CSU)
page 57
155
why is a turbo prop aircraft better suited for short regional operations ?
- has a better short field capability
- doesn't need to fly as high for SFC
- smaller pax capacity for short route
page 58
156
is there a critical engine in a propeller aircraft ?
Yes, left, if the props both spin clockwise,
No if they spin anticlockwise
page 58
157
why is the left engine the critical engine on a multi engine propeller aircraft ?
due to:
- slipstream effect
- asymmetric blade effect
page 59
158
how does a crosswind effect the critical engine ?
we prefer a crosswind to come from the side of the critical engine or failed engine to help restore the force on the fuselage and fight against the yaw moment caused by the failed engine
page 60
159
what is a wind-milling propeller ?
when the propeller is spinning due to the aircraft speed and not due to the engine power.
as the propeller is not getting propelled by the engine is not causing lift. The airflow that hits the outside of the propeller created a force on the outside AoA (negative AoA) causing the prop to spin.
page 60
160
can you obtain ground reverse/braking thrust from propellers ?
Yes
ex. Cessna Caravan
page 61
161
what is propeller feather and why is it used ?
is the 90º pitch(usually a bit less) of the propeller set in that way to reduce drag in case of engine failure
page 61
162
how do propeller aircraft generate noise ?
from the sheer effect of propeller spinning through the air
page 61
163
how is propeller noise controlled or reduced ?
- increase blades number
- reduce take off power
page 61
164
what is the theory of jet/gas turbine engine ?
Newton's Third Law : Thrust = air mass x velocity
Frank Whittle : when you let air out of a balloon, a reaction propeller the balloon in the opposite direction
page 61
165
what is specific fuel consumption ?
fuel flow / engine thrust
the ratio of how much fuel you burn compared to engine thrust
page 62
166
what is the combustion cycle of a jet/gas turbine engine ?
- induction
- compression
- combustion
- expansion
- exhaustion
page 62
167
why was the jet/gas turbine engine invented ?
- to achieve higher altitudes
- to achieve higher speeds
- to create a simpler more reliable engine
page 62
168
describe how a jet/gas turbine engine works ?
- induction
- compression
- combustion
- expansion
- exhaustion
page 63
169
what is a fuel injected system and what are its advantages and disadvantages ?
advantages:
- free of icing problem in the venturi
- more uniform delivery
- improved fuel-air ratio
- fewer maintenance problem
- instant response
- increased engine efficiency
disadvantages:
- subjected to fuel vaporisation (fuel line close to engine)
- difficult to start when already hot
- more susceptible to contamination (fine fuel lines)
- the fuel return line goes only to one tank causing unbalance
page 64
170
describe maximum take off thrust and its limitation ?
is the max thrust to be selected at take off for not more then 5 min to don't cause damage to the engine
page 65
171
describe maximum continues thrust ?
the maximum permissible engine thrust for continuous use
page 65
172
what is the compression ratio of a gas turbine engine ?
is the difference between the Inlet and Outlet part of either a:
- individual compressor stage, or
- the complete compression section of the engine
page 65
173
what is the principal of the bypass engine ?
move of the thrust (acceleration of air) is caused by airflow getting duct around the engine core
page 65
174
what is bypass ratio?
is the difference from the air ducted around the core and the air flowing into the core.
page 66
175
describe the fan engine and it's advantages ?
85% of airflow is ducted, the other 15% goes into the engine core. After passing through the front Fan, the air goes into Low Pressure Compressor(N1), where air pressure and temperature start to rise. After it goes into the High Pressure Compressor(N2) where 70% of pressure and temperature rise is experienced. Then it goes through the Diffuser that slows the airflow down to be properly ignited in the Combustion Chamber. The airflow then goes through the High Pressure Turbine that extracts energy to spin the High Pressure Compressor via a connecting rod (spool). Then it goes into the Low Pressure Turbine that extracts energy to spin the Low Pressure Compressor and the Fan
(spool). In the exhaust phase the ducted air and the core air mix. The ducted air causes 80% of thrust the core air 20%.
Advantages:
- smaller engine size
- better propulsive efficiency
- better specific fuel consumption
- reduce engine noise
- contaminations are discharged via the bypass duct
page 67
176
what are the advantages of a wide-chord fan engine ?
the wider the fan chord, the higher is the balde tip speed, the greater is the generated airflow speed, and the greater is the discharged air pressure, resulting in an increased engine thrust
page 67
177
describe the triple spool turbo an engine.
it works like a twin spool with the difference that it also has as an intermediate pressure compressor.
Low Pressure Compressor (N1)
Intermediate Pressure Compressor (N2)
High Pressure Compressor (N3)
advantages:
- the compressors have their own connecting shafts
- higher engine thrust
- easier to start
- easier to built and maintain
page 68
178
why is a fan engine flat rated ?
to give the widest possible range of operation keeping within its define structural limits
page 69
179
when and where is the jet/gas turbine engine (bypass) at it's most efficient and why ?
at high as possible and at high rpm speeds
page 69
180
why does a jet aircraft climb as high as possible ?
because that is where they operate the best .
high rpm speed due to low air density
- minimum cruise airframe drag
- best engine SFC
page 70
181
what advantages does a jet engine aircraft gain from flying at a high altitude ?
- best SFC although will need to be flown at the maximum endurance speed
- higher TAS for constant IAS
page 71
182
explain the jet/gas turbine engine's thrust to thrust lever position ?
at low rpm speed an inch movement of the thrust lever could produce only 600lb of thrust but at hight rpm this could produce 6000lb
page 72
183
what are the main engine instruments ?
```
primary:
- EPR
- N1 gauge
- EGT
then
- N2 gauge
- Fuel Flow
```
secondary:
- oil e temp
- engine vibration meter
page 73
184
what is EPR ?
is the primary engine thrust instrument
jet engine:
fan outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
turbo prop:
max compressor cycle to compressor inlet ambient temperature
page 73
185
what it the EGT and why is this an important engine parameter ?
exhaust gas temperature tells us the temperature the turbine is experiencing.
the only real threat to engine life is excessive turbine temperature.
page 74
186
describe an engine wet start, its causes, indications and actions ?
it is a failure to start after the fuel has been delivered to the engine.
indication is:
- EGT does not rise
action:
- close the fuel
- motor the engine
page 74
187
describe an engine hung start, its causes, indications and actions ?
it happens when the engine ignites but it doesn't reach its self sustaining rpms due to the insufficient airflow to supply the combustion.
causes:
- low air density (high elevation, hot condition)
- inefficient compression
- low starter rpms
indications:
- EGT above normal
- engine rpms below normal
actions:
- close fuel lever
- motor the engine
to have a successful start in hot and high conditions you need supply more air not more fuel
page 74
188
describe an engine hot start and its causes, indications, and actions ?
it starts as a normal start but then the EGT rises above max limits
causes:
- overfueling
- air intake/exhaust blocked
- tailwind causing compressor to run backward
- seized engine
actions:
- close fuel lever
- motor the engine
page 75
189
what is a variable/reduce thrust take off ?
it's a take off with reduce take off thrust
page 75
190
can a maximum take off weight aircraft use a reduce take off thrust ?
yes, but needs a longer runway
page 77
191
why do you use reduced derated take off thrust in a jet aircraft ?
- engine life
- to reduce noise
page 77
192
why is the risk per flight decreased with a reduces thrust take off ?
- full reverse thrust has more effective quicker
- if engine failure continued take off we can increase thrust
page 77
193
what are the limitations of a variable/reduce thrust (flex) take off ?
the limitations are all those situations where max power is needed
page 77
194
what happens to engine pressure ratio on take off roll?
the initial decreasing is caused by:
- engine lag to throttle input
- P7 (exhaust) is lower than P2 (inlet) because before the flow into the engine gets steady, at the initial stage, P2 will always read more than P7
page 78
195
why does EPR need to be set by 40 to 80 kts on take off ?
to ensure V1 and Vr are achieved by the take off run required rotate point
page 79
196
what is an engine windmill start, and when is it used ?
a start without the aid of the starter because the compressor are being turned by a natural airflow when airborne.
page 79
197
what is the purpose of engine relight boundaries ?
is to ensure the correct proportion of air is delivered to the engine combustion chamber
approved relight envelope against height
page 79
198
what causes a jet/gas turbine upset, and how do you correct it ?
disturbed and turbulent airflow will cause the engine to be upset and stall.
indications:
- TGT rises
- engine vibration
- RPM fluctuations
page 80
199
what is a jet engine surge, causes and indications ?
a surge is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air the combustion chamber is expelled forward, instead of back, through the compressor with a loud bang and the resulting loss of engine thrust.
causes:
- compressor stage stall
- excessive fuel flow
indications:
- total loss of thrust
- TGT rise
actions:
- close the throttle slowly
- adjust aircraft attitude
- reopen the throttle slowly
page 81
200
why are bleed valves fitted to turbine engine ?
```
- to provide bleed air to auxiliary system
air conditioning
engine cooling
accessories colloing
engine e wingtip anti icing system
```
- to regulate the correct airflow pressure between different engine sections
page 81
201
why gas turbine engine have auto igniters ?
they work by sensing a particular value of incidence of the aircraft and ignite to make sure the engine doesn't stall in case of turbulent airflow
page 81
202
what is FADEC ?
full authority digital engine control
page 81
203
what fuels are used commonly for jet aircraft ?
Jet A1 and Jet A
difference is A1 freezes at - 50ºC, A at - 40ºC
page 82
204
how to jet gas turbine engine generate noise ?
jet's faster displaced air moves into the slow ambient air
page 82
205
how is jet gas turbine engine noise controlled reduces ?
- bypass engine
- flex thrust
- maximum rate of climb of take off
page 82
206
is there a critical engine on a jet gas turbine aircraft ?
No but there are crosswind considerations to be made
page 82
207
describe a typical aircraft fire detection and protection system ?
- overheat and fire detection loop
- fault monitoring system
- fire extinguishers and fire circuits
- testing facility
- toilet/cargo smoke detectors
page 83
208
what are the indications of thermal expansion and use of the fire bottle on the side of the aircraft fuselage ?
separate disks, one for extinguishment release and one to indicate use
page 83
209
describe the approach difference between a jet and a piston engine propeller aircraft ?
- momentum (jet is heavier so changes are much slower)
- speed stability
- wing lift value
- engine response rate (acceleration/deceleration)
- slipstream effect
- power on stall speed (the prop slipstream lowers the stall speed when powering on, jet don't have that)
page 85
210
explain the (low) speed control difference between a jet aircraft and a propeller driven aircraft ?
the value of drag against a speed is different which make their speed controllability different
page 86
211
what speed stability difference are there between a jet aircraft and a prop driven aircraft
the jet has poorer stability then prop plane
page 87
212
describe the difference between a jet and a piston engine propeller aircraft's stall speed ?
the stall speed of a piston engine is lower but the range of the jet is wider
page 87
213
describe the differences between propeller and jet aircraft wing performance.
prop driven aircraft have better performance then jet swept wings especially when contaminated. the prop driven aircraft wing has more energised airflow on the upper surface.
page 87
214
what is true direction?
is the direction measured to true north
page 89
215
what is magnetic direction?
is the direction measured to magnetic north
page 89
216
what is magnetic variation ?
is the difference between true direction and magnetic direction
page 89
217
what is compass direction?
is the direction measured to compass north
page 89
218
what is compass deviation ?
is the difference between magnetic direction and compass direction
page 89
219
what are the lines that run from pole to pole on the earth called?
meridians of longitude
page 90
220
how do you measure a change of latitude?
1 Nm = 1 min therefore 60 min = 1º of latitude
page 90
221
what are the lines that run east west called ?
parallel of latitude
page 90
222
how do you measure a change of longitude ?
with the departure formula because as latitude increases longitude decreases
page 90
223
what is departure ?
departure = change in longitude(min) x cos latitude
page 90
224
what is a great circle track ?
is the shortest distance between to point
page 91
225
what is a rhumb line ?
is the line that cuts meridians at the same angle, also a longer distance than a great circle
page 91
226
what is convergency ?
is the convergency of meridians towards the poles
page 91
227
what is a conversion angle ?
is the angle of difference between a great circle and a rhumb line
page 92
228
what is chart scale ?
ratio of chart distance to earth distance
page 92
229
describe the doppler effect ?
is the change of frequency between the transmitted and received signal.
as you get closer the frequency circles increase and you get further the frequency of coming circles decreases
page 92
230
what is an airborne doppler system ?
is a self contained radio system that calculates the ground speed based on doppler effect
page 92
231
what is an INS/IRS ?
Inertial Navigation System, it's a navigation system, like an internal gps without external assistance.
Inertial Reference System, is a modern INS that work with the FMS and provides actual magnetic position and heading information with reference to the FMS required position and heading
page 92
232
how does an INS/IRS work ?
the INS determines the initial position an give an up to date position as the aircraft accelerates in the horizontal plane on a great circle track.
component:
- accelerometer
- gyroscopes
- position computer
page 93
233
how does an INS/IRS find true north ?
it's aligned to true north via gyroscopes
page 93
234
how does an INS/IRS find magnetic north ?
applies the stored variation the true north
page 93
235
What are the advantages of an INS ?
- it's a global system
- it's self contained
- it's very accurate
INS with laser gyroscopes
- short warm up
- no real wander
- no precession
page 93
236
what are the disadvantages of an INS ?
errors that do not increase:
- shuler loop
- north alignment
errors that increase:
- incorrect position input (will cause velocity and position error)
- north alignment
Inherent system errors:
- no allowance for distance being greater at height than on the ground (not very large)
- doesn't make allowance for the earth not being a real sphere
page 94
237
describe GPS
it's Global Positioning System.
- it's made of 24 satellites but only 21 are operative at one time.
- 6 orbital planes (each one is 3-4 satellites)
- each orbital plane is 55º to equator
- 4 satellites will always be in line of sight at any position of the earth
n1 e n2 establish LAT and LONG
n3 confirm the FIX
n4 altitude info
the GPS receiver uses the time delay between transmission and reception to calculate its distance to the satellite
page 95
238
what are the advantages of the GPS ?
- truly global
- high capacity use
- high redundant satellites
- built in fix confirmation (n3)
- able to be integrated into FMS
- potential to be very accurate
- ability to fly great circle tracks very accurately
- free of charge
page 95
239
what are the disadvantages of the GPS ?
- selective availability
- system errors
page 96
240
What is differential GPS ?
it's a more accurate GPS
page 96
241
how does differential GPS work ?
a ground station fixes up the GPS signal and sends a more accurate signal to aircrafts within 70 nm
page 96
242
how is an INS/IRS better than a GPS especially for navigation information ?
INS/IRS is the only truly onboard self contained system and suffers fewer errors than the GPS
page 97
243
what do you know about FANS ?
future air navigation system
page 97
244
what is R-NAV ?
is a form of onboard area navigation aircraft equipment that uses either a basic VOR/DME systems or either position sensors
page 98
245
what do you know about the free flight concept ?
system under development that will allow airlines to set their own direct route
page 98
246
what is Decca ?
is a low frequency navigation system.
uses hyperbolic position lines. it measures the lines of equal difference in range between two beacons. to fix your position you need a minimum of three stations.
page 99
247
what is Omega ?
is a long range global navigation system that uses ground based beacons operating in very low frequency
page 99
248
what it rho rho rho Omega ?
a omega system using three stations position fixing
page 99
249
what is Loran C ?
long range navigation system that uses ground based beacons that operates in the low frequency band using surface waves to achieve range of more the 100 nm
page 99
250
describe VHF directional finding (VDF) ?
uses radio waves and does not require any additional instrument in the cockpit. the system allows ATC to provides pilots with bearing information
page 99
251
give the following definition QUJ, QTE, QDR, QDM
QUJ: true bearing TO the station
QTE: true bearing FM the station
QDR: magnetic bearing FM the station
QDM: magnetic bearing TO the station
page 100
252
what is a QGH let down ?
a VDF let down available to military
page 100
253
describe how a NDB/ADF works ?
a non directional beacon is a medium range radio navigation aid that send out signals(bearings) for aircraft to home to.
transmits in the 200 to 1750 kHz medium and low frequency
page 100
254
what is the range of the NDB ?
300nm over land, 600nm over water
page 101
255
what are the errors of an NDB/ADF ?
- interference form other NDB station
- thunderstorms
- night effect (ionosphere raising at night)
- coastal refraction
- mountain effect
- quadrantal error
page 101
256
what is and ADF beat frequency oscillator (BFO) used for ?
BFO imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make it audible to the pilot
page 101
257
what is a VOR and how does it work?
a VOR is a VHF Omni Range short range navigation aid that projects 000º to 359º radials .
transmits at very high frequency band 108 to 118 MHz
page 102
258
what is the range of a VOR ?
```
line of sight propagation path
below 5000ft is 60 nm
5000 to 10000 is 90 nm
10000 to 15000 is 120 nm
and so on
```
page 103
259
what errors do a VOR experience ?
- equipment errors (max 5º error)
- site error (signal reflection on near object)
- propagation error (scalloping effect)
page 103
260
what has the furthest range VOR or NDB ?
NDB because of its surface wave propagation path. where VOR is line of sight
page 103
261
describe an ILS and how it works ?
is the most accurate precision approach landing system
it's made off two beacons which guide the aircraft to land
the first one is provided by the Localiser which gives left and right on track guidance.
the second one is the Glide Slope which gives up and down on track guidance.
GS extends to 8º left and right and can be captured at 10 nm.
ILS uses 100 to 150 MHz frequency
GS uses 329 to 335 MHz frequency
page 104
262
what is a ILS back course approach ?
a mirror image of the localiser beam on the reciprocal runway
page 104
263
what errors does an ILS experience ?
- false glide slope (approaching the 150hz lobe which overlaps the 90hz lobe you will descent at twice as the 3º glide path)
- phantom signals (outside range signals cannot be relied on)
- back course approaches (would display exactly the opposite of the correct indications)
page 105
264
what is MLS ?
Microwave Landing System, is more accurate then ILS
page 105
265
how does the MLS work ?
detects the aircraft position by sweeping the signal 20º left to 20º right and back
page 106
266
what are the advantages of the MLS ?
- offers a curved or off center beam
- not sensitive to reflection from terrain
- has more transmitting channels
page 107
267
describe the DME system and how it works ?
it consist of a onboard aircraft interrogator and a ground beacon transmitter. (UHF)
The time delay between sending and receiving these pulses is converted into a range (SLANT) and distance (nm).
transmitter and receiver are correctly associated via the unique DME random pulse (jittering)
the ground transmitter re-transmits at a difference frequency 63 MHz apart from the interrogator
page 107
268
how is DME information used ?
VOR/DME
ILS
page 108
269
what error does DME experience ?
slant range error (when close to the beacon the pilot cannot get a reading)
page 108
270
what does radar stand for ?
radio detection and ranging
page 109
271
describe primary (pulse) radar and how it works
works on the reflected signal principal
primary radar uses UHF VHF
page 109
272
what effects the range of primary pulse radar ?
- atmospheric attenuation
- antenna power
- height of the aircraft
page 109
273
describe secondary (surveillance) radar and how it works /
works on the respondent-reply signal principal
page 110
274
describe the functions of a transponder
- code selection
- transmission function switch (STDBY, ON, ALT, TEST)
- reply/monitoring light
- ident switch
- system switch
- fault light
page 111
275
what are the advantages of secondary radar ?
- positive identification
- abnormal situation
- altitude ground speed reporting
- ident
page 112
276
how does an isoecho (weather radar) work ?
the radar aerial fitted in the nose scans 90º left and right and 15º up and down. it detects water droplets
page 112
277
how do you calculate cloud tops ?
range(ft) x (weather radar scanner tilt - 1/2 beam width)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
60
range in ft = nm x 6080 = ft
page 113
278
what is AGC on weather radar ?
Automatic Gain Control.
it lowers the strength of the signal so that the closer target don't look the brightest given false indication
page 113
279
on a color weather radar display, what colours represent the areas of greatest turbulence ?
thunderstorms appear as red colour, turbulence are associated with them
page 113
280
what is the aviation definition of height ?
distance above ground (QFE)
page 115
281
what is the aviation definition of altitude ?
distance above QNH or altitude above mean sea level
page 115
282
what is the aviation definition of flight lever ?
pressure lever above standard QNH 1013
page 115
283
what does ISA stand for ?
International Standard Atmosphere
page 115
284
what are the ICAO ISA conditions at sea level ?
15ºC, QNH 1013, ELP 2º x 1000ft
page 115
285
what is air pressure ?
the weight of a column of air or the gravity of air molecule
page 116
286
how many feet are in a millibar ?
| air pressure rate of change
the rate of change in air pressure is more near the ground and less at high altitude
page 116
287
how many inches of mercury in a millibar ?
0.00295 in 1 hpa
page 116
288
what is pressure altitude ?
is the height above 1013
page 116
289
how do you calculate the pressure altitude actual height ?
difference between actual QNH and standard QNH multiplied by 27 (27ft x 1 hpa), then add or subtract from starting altitude.
from high to low beware below
from low to high you-re up in the sjy
page 117
290
why do you need to calculate the actual height of a pressure altitude ?
any difference from 1013 will give a difference between the pressure altitude and the actual altitude
page 117
291
what common pressure error is commonly experienced ?
barometric pressure error on the altimeter
page 117
292
what is ISA temperature deviation ?
the measurement of actual temperature against ISA
page 118
293
if you were at 33000 ft with an OAT of -45ºC what is the temperature deviation from ISA?
-45 - ( 15 - (33 x 2) ) = 6ºC
page 118
294
what is density ?
mass per unit volume of a substance
page 118
295
what is density altitude ?
is the pressure altitude corrected for temperature
page 118
296
what are the main influences on air density ?
- temperature
- pressure
- humidity
page 118
297
how does the variation of air density due to temperature effects an aircraft's performance ?
aircraft performance decreases
page 119
298
what density errors are commonly experiences ?
- altitude errors
- airspeed errors
page 119
299
what is static pressure ?
the pressure around us
page 119
300
what is dynamic pressure ?
is the movement of air molecules
- by movement of a body through the air
- air flowing over a stationary object
dynamic pressure = 1/2rho x V2
page 120
301
describe IAS
the measurement of dynamic pressure translated into speed
page 120
302
describe CAS
IAS corrected for instrument and pressure error
page 120
303
describe EAS
is the equivalent airspeed,
is CAS corrected for compresability error
page 121
304
describe TAS
is the true airspeed,
is EAS corrected for density error
page 121
305
describe ground speed
is the speed related to ground distance travelled
is TAS plus TW or minus HW
page 121
306
describe LSS
Local Speed of Sound
LSS = 38.94 sq root T
T in Kelvin = 273 + ºC
page 122
307
how does temperature effects LSS ?
as temperature decreases LSS decreases
page 122
308
describe Mach number ?
Mn = TAS/LSS
Mn becomes the speed reference at high altitudes passing 26000ft
page 122
309
what is the main influence on mach number ?
if LSS decreases Mn increases
page 123
310
what happens to the indicated Mn in a long range cruise as weight decrease at the same flight level ?
Mn decreases
as weight decreases to fly at the same TAS we need a lower Mn otherwise te same will increase our TAS
page 123
311
What happens the CAS and IAS if you descent at constant TAS ?
they both increase
page 124
312
what happens to your TAS if you climb at a constant CAS, IAS ?
TAS will increase
page 124
313
what happens to your Mn if you climb at a constant CAS, IAS ?
Mn increase
page 124
314
what happens to your CAS or IAS and TAS if you fly at constant CAS into a warmer area?
IAS CAS stay the same
TAS increases
page 124
315
if two aircraft are flying at two different flying levels at the same Mn, which aircraft has the highest TAS/CAS(IAS) ?
the one at the lower altitude
page 125
316
what happens to Mn and CAS or IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer at a constant TAS?
isothermal layer is a layer of constant temperature
Mn depends on temperature therefore it will remain constant.
CAS and IAS will decrease
pag 125
317
what happens to CAS or IAS if an aircraft descent through an isothermal layer at a constant TAS ?
they increase
page 125
318
what happens to CAS or IAS an Mn if an aircraft climbs at a constant TAS through and inversion layer ?
```
Mn decrease (if temp increases LSS increases, if LSS increases Mn decrease)
IAS CAS will decrease
```
page 126
319
what are the pressure flight instruments and how do they work ?
- ASI and MM
- ALT
- VSI
VSI and ALT measure the change in static pressure via static ports
ASI via the use of a pitot tube which measures the dynamic pressure by the difference of total pressure minus static pressure.
page 127
320
how does the ASI work?
the pitot tube measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure which is dynamic pressure
page 128
321
what are the ASI errors ?
- instrument error
- pressure error
- density error
- compressibility error
- manoeuvre error
- blocked pitot static system
page 128
322
how is VMO displayed on the ASI ?
a red/black striped pointer on the ASI
page 128
323
describe how a mach meter works ?
measures the airspeed relative to the speed of sound.
It's a combined ASI and Altimeter.
Mn = dynamic pressure/static pressure
page 128
324
what errors does a Mach Meter suffer from ?
- instrument error
- pressure error (position or configuration error)
- blocked pitot static system
page 129
325
what are the ASI/Mach meter indications and actions for a blocked pitot and/or static probe ?
Static line blockage:
- descent they will over read
- climb they will under read
Pitot line blockage:
- descent will under read
- climb will over read
page 130
326
how does a pressure altimeter work ?
it measures changes in static pressure
page 130
327
give the definitions of the following altimeter sub scale settings.
QNH: altitude above mean sea level
QFE: this zeros the altimeter on the airfield elevation datum
QFF: QNH for actual conditions not ISA
page 130
328
what are the altimeter errors ?
- instrument errors
- pressure errors
- time lag error
- barometric error
- temperature/density error
- blocked static port
page 130
329
what are the altimeter indications and actions for a blocked static port ?
show the altitude it got blocked at
page 131
330
giving a temperature deviation from ISA of 36ºC the pressure altimeter will over read, under read or remain constant and why ?
the altimeter will over read because the deviation is colder than ISA
page 132
331
what do you know about servo assisted altimeters ?
is more accurate because it doesn't rely on the mechanical but it's electrically conducted bar arrangement
page 132
332
what is the advantages of a servo assisted altimeter ?
reduce
- instrument error
- lag error
page 132
333
how does a VSI work ?
expresses the rate of change in static pressure as a rate of descent or climb
page 132
334
what errors does the VSI suffers from ?
- lag error
- pressure error (position error)
- manoeuvre error
page 133
335
what type of dial display does a VSI have ?
(explain gauge)
page 133
336
what to you know about an IVSI ?
the inertia of the balance weight on the other side of the needle enhances a quick response to change in altitude
page 133
337
what are the advantages of a IVSI ?
more reliable due to immediate display
page 133
338
what are the disadvantages of a IVSI ?
is that the balance weight is also effected by acceleration in a turn
page 133
339
what are the VSI indications and actions for a blocked static port ?
the VSI will show ZERO
page 133
340
how is air temperature measured ?
total head thermometer
page 134
341
what do you know about air data computers (ADC) ?
modern aircraft feed their static and pitot line into an ADC and this data calculates can be feed to other systems like
- AP
- FDS
- FMS
- GPWS
page 134
342
what are the gyro flight instruments ?
- DG
- AH
- turn and slip indicator or coordinator
page 135
343
what is a gyroscope ?
it's a body rotating freely in one or more direction that possess rigidity and precession
page 135
344
how does a gyroscope work ?
due to vacuum the gyro spins due to the rigidity the the gyro stays stable as the aircraft moves around it
page 135
345
what is gyroscopic wander ?
any movement away from its fixed direction is called wander which can cause inaccurate instrument readings
page 135
346
what is the gyroscope caging system and why is it used?
a caging system locks the gyroscope this is used to avoid toppling (stay rigid in space) once the aircraft is restarted
ex. AH
page 136
347
what is real wander of a gyroscope ?
occurs when the gyroscope's spin axis moves away from its alignment in space
page 136
348
describe the directional indicator instrument (DG) ?
it is a gyro that displays aircraft heading
- tied gyro
- rotates around earth horizontal axis
- two gimbals
- three planes of freedom
- the axis is aligned to true north
page 136
349
how to do correct for apparent wander ?
by periodically realigning it (every 10-15 min)
part 137
350
what it transport wander ?
if a DG is aligned to true north and it's moved east-west to another part of the globe it will be out of alignment
page 137
351
what errors does DG suffer ?
- system failure
- total wander errors
- ONUS (S.H.) and UNOS (N.H.)
page 137
352
what is the advantage of the DG over the magnetic compass ?
turning and acceleration errors
page 137
353
describe the air driven AH ?
primary attitude instrument that displays pitch and roll about the horizontal axis
- earth gyro
- rotates about vertical axis
- two gimbals
- three planes of freedom
- aligned to earth vertical
page 137
354
what errors do an AH experience ?
- turning errors
- acceleration errors
- real wander
page 138
355
what are the indications and actions for a failed AH ?
- low reading of the suction gauge
- possible warning flag on some instruments
page 138
356
describe the electrically driven AH ?
same principal as a air driven AH but it can spin faster and is more accurate because more rigid, and turning and accelerations errors are minimised
page 138
357
what is a servo driven attitude indicator ADI (remote AH) ?
is used in modern aircraft to display attitude informations calculated by the IRS.
the system is free of errors
page 138
358
describe the turn and slip (turn coordinator) indicator instrument ?
is two instrument combined:
- one measure turn
- one measure skid or skip
consist of:
- a rate gyroscope
- rotates around horizontal axis
- two panes of freedom (the gyro spin axis, yaw axis of gimbal)
- the gyro is aligned to the aircraft's lateral axis
page 140
359
describe the following turn and slip indicaton
if the ball is to the left use left rudder
if the ball is to the right use right rudder
```
Skid = too much rudder or too little bank
Slip = too little rudder or too much bank
```
page 140
360
what errors does the turn and slip indicator experience ?
- gyro system failure
- looping error (tilting)
- real wander
page 140
361
what is a turn coordinator ?
is an advanced development of the turn and slip indicator but is both sensitive to roll and yaw and it shows a turn as soon as the roll in begins
page 140
362
describe the earth's magnetic field ?
the earth act like a big magnet with north and south magnetic poles that are slightly offset from the geographic poles
page 142
363
describe the magnetic compass instrument ?
primary source of direction information.
it comprises of freely suspended horizontal magnet attached to a compass card that is enclosed in a liquid filled case.
the aircraft moves around the magnet.
page 142
364
what is magnet dip ?
a natural phenomenon caused by the vertical component of the magnetic field that causes the magnet to dip down.
is stronger getting closer to the poles and weaker getting further form the poles
page 143
365
explain compass swinging ?
is a procedure to check the accuracy of and to adjust an aircraft's magnetic compass
there are particular situations when this should be accomplished
page 143
366
describe the errors of magnetic compass ?
- accelerations/deceleration errors
- turning errors
page 143
367
describe the remote indicating compass ?
is a combination of DG and Magnetic Compass in a single instrument
page 143
368
describe the relative bearing indicator (RBI) instrument and how it works ?
the RBI is a simple ADF that display NDB navigation informations
page 144
369
describe the radio magnetic instruments (RMI) and how it works ?
is an advance development of the RBI can be used to display ADF or VOR navigation information
page 144
370
describe the omni bearing indicator instrument (OBI) ?
it is used by the pilot to select the required VOR radial.
CDI corse deviation indicator
page 145
371
describe the purpose built ILS indicator ?
it's an instrument that can show VOR or ILS depending on the frequency
page 145
372
describe the horizontal situation indicator HSI
the basis of the HSI is the remote indicating compass that displays VOR and ILS all on one instrument
page 146
373
describe a radio altimeter and how it works ?
it's an altimeter that uses radio waves to calculate height instead of pressure change.
the time taken for the reflected signal to return corresponds to its height.
it work from:
0 to 2500ft for continuous wave radar beam
50ft to 2500ft for pulse radar beam
page 146
374
at what height does the radio altimeter normally become active ?
2500ft
page 147
375
what does EFIS stand ?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
page 147
376
what is an EFIS ?
is fully integrated computer base digital nav system
page 147
377
what component make up a typical EFIS ?
- cathode ray tube
- EFIS control panel
- symbol generators
- E-ADI
- E-HSI
page 147
378
what is the advantages of an EFIS flight deck ?
same information in a clearer and more versatile manner
page 147
379
what is typically displayed on a EADI ?
(think of glass cockpit, is the digital AH)
page 148
380
at what height would you expect the rising runway symbol on an EADI to become active ?
usually 200ft radio altimeter but may vary
page 148
381
how is 0ft represented by the rising runway on the EADI ?
by the rising rwy symbol reaching the base of the aircraft symbol
page 148
382
what are the EHSI modes ?
- full VOR/ILS
- ful NAV
- expanded VOR/ILS (arc)
- expanded NAV (arc)
- MAP mode
- CTR mode
- PLAN
page 149
383
which EHSI modes can display the weather radar ?
- expanded VOR/ILS (arc)
- expanded NAV (arc)
- MAP mode
- CTR mode
page 149
384
what are the general EFIS color coding?
```
green = active or selected
white = present situation and scale
magenta = command infos
cyan = nonactive
red = warning
yellow = caution
black = off
```
page 149
385
what does HUD stand for ?
head up display (EADI)
page 149
386
what does HUGS stand for ?
head up guidance display (EADI)
page 149
387
what do you know about VHF communications ?
- are used for short communications
- they are line of sight
page 150
388
what is the range of a VHF signal ?
1.25 sq.root H1(in ft AMSL) + 1.25 sq.root H2(in ft AMSL)
H1 height of the transmitter
H2 height of the receiver
page 150
389
what factors effect the range of VHF communications ?
- transmission power
- frequency
- height
- obstructions
- fading
page 150
390
what do you know about HF communications ?
- long distance communications
- HF use predictable sky wave (ionosphere)
- the higher the frequency the greater is the range
page 150
391
how are HF communications effected at night (or winter) ?
at night the ionosphere rises compared to the day therefore you need a lower frequency to reach the same receiver distance. Typically half then daytime.
page 151
392
what factors effects the range of HF communications ?
- transmitter power
- frequency
- time of the day
- season
- location
- disturbance of the ionosphere
page 151
393
what is TCAS ?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System.
provide traffic information and manoeuvres guidance if the path between two planes is conflicting
page 152
394
how does the TCAS work ?
it will interrogate the SSR transponder of nearby planes to plot their position and relative velocity
```
TA = traffic advisory
RA = resolution advisory
```
page 152
395
what is a ACAS ?
a European Airborne Collision Avoidance System
page 153
396
what is an ADS-B ?
Automated Dependant Surveillance Broadcast similar to TCAS
page 153
397
what is GPWS and how it works ?
```
Ground Proximity Warning System
it's a central computer system that detects:
- excessive barometric rate of descent
- excessive terrain closure rate
- height loss after take off
- flaps or gear not selected for landing
- too low on ILS GS
- descending below approach minima
```
page 153
398
what is EGPWS ?
provides a greater level of detection than GPWS.
ex. terrain mapping
page 154
399
what are the inputs of GPWS ?
- RoD
- radio altimeter
- flap and gear position
- ILS GS
- approach minima
- throttle position
page 154
400
what are the various GPWS modes ?
page 155
401
what are the GPWS modes order of priority ?
page 155
402
what are the initial action required for a GPWS alert ?
the corrective response to warning
page 156
403
when can you over read a GPWS ?
- 1000ft vertical clear of clouds
- 1 km horizontal clear of clouds
- 8 km clear vis
- flying in daytime
- if not in danger
page 156
404
describe windshear warning ?
the GPWS will generate the windshear warning.
are active from the ground level to a height of 1500ft.
they require immediate go around at full thrust
page 156
405
what is the pilot's order of priority given a windshear, GPWS, and TCAS warning at the same time ?
1. windshear
2. GPWS
3. TCAS
page 156
406
what is the purpose of a FMS ?
it's to manage the aircraft performance and route navigation to achieve the optimum results
page 157
407
what are the FMS's three sources of input data?
- stored database
- pilot inputs
- other aircraft system
page 157
408
describe a typical FMS ?
the main section of the FMS is the FMC which is a dual system using dual FMC, and two CDU (control display units)
page 157
409
what are the LNAV and VNAV FMC functions ?
LNAV guides the aircraft into lateral navigation, is available from take off.
VNAV guides the aircraft into vertical navigation including climbing and descending.
page 158
410
describe an Auto Pilot system
flies the plane on its own
page 158
411
what is the purpose of an Auto Pilot system ?
to release work load form pilots, and to fly the planes better then a pilot
page 158
412
what work functions does an auto pilot achieve ?
- stabilising the aircraft
- manoeuvring the aircraft
page 158
413
how does the response of an auto pilot system compare with that of a pilot ?
quicker response and more accurate
page 159
414
explain the various auto pilot modes of operation ?
- heading
- L NAV
- VOR/LOC
- Altitude hold
- Vertical speed
- level change
- V NAV
- ILS
page 159
415
describe the flight director system ?
the FDS shows the aircraft attitude and manoeuvres to be set via bars over the EADI
page 160
416
what error does a flight director system have ?
- interpretation of FDS
- it's response are to quick for the pilot to catch up
page 160
417
describe and auto land system ?
it's a function of the auto pilot that can land the plane by it self
page 161
418
what is a multiplex auto land system ?
it's an auto pilots landing system that comprises of two or more independent autopilots that work together
part 161
419
what is a fail passive autopilot landing system ?
it's a dual system where one fails and the pilot has to take over to complete the landing
page 162
420
what is a fail operational autopilot landing system ?
it'a a three system where one fails and the other two carry out the landing
page 162
421
describe the Auto Throttle control system ?
are designed to control and maintain thrust and speed
page 162
422
how do you engage an auto throttle system ?
is engaged by a master switch on the MCP
page 163
423
how can you disconnect an auto throttle system and what indications are there ?
- the pilot can over read the AT by moving the thrust levers
- AT disengaged switch on thrust lever
- AT disengaged switch on MCP
- AT disengages automatically after touch down and in abnormal situations
page 163
424
what are TOGA switches ?
are located at the aft edge on the thrust levers and are used to set AT on take off or go around
page 163
425
explain the auto throttle operating control mode ?
- take off thrust
- go around thrust
- max continues thrust
- airspeed
airspeed and mach hold
page 164
426
how does the AP FDS, AT combine to control attitude and speed during TO, LDG, APP ?
page 164
427
what aircraft systems used hydraulic power ?
- landing gear
- brakes antiskid system
- steering
- flight controls (including yaw damper and spoilers)
- stairs
- doors
page 165
428
what are the advantages of hydraulic system over pneumatic system ?
- hydraulic fluid is incompressible and this makes the system respond instantly
- fluid leak are easier to detect then air pneumatic one
page 165
429
what are the advantages of a pneumatic system over a hydraulic system ?
- air weights less then fluid
- there is an free endless supply of it
page 165
430
what is a typical landing gear layout ?
tricycle
page 165
431
what is the purpose of retractable landing gear ?
reduce drag improves performance
page 166
432
how is the landing gear extended and retracted ?
via a gear lever
green = down and locked
red = up and locked
the gear is locked by mechanical locks.
for emergency dumping the gear is hold up by pressure so that the release of that pressure will dump the gear down in case of lever malfunction
page 166
433
what is nose wheel shimmy ?
is the left and right jerking of the front wheel due to the flexibility of tire sidewalls
page 166
434
what are the requirements of a nose wheel ?
- carry the aircraft weight
- mean of towing
- withstand shear loads
- castoring
- self-centering
- steering
- anti shimmy
435
what is tire creep ?
is the tendency of the tire to rotate around the wheel hub.
page 167
436
how is tire creep detected ?
is detected by a mark that is coincidental on the tire and wheel hub, if it moves so that it doesn't match up anymore tire creep is happening
page 167
437
what are fusible tire plugs ?
they are in the tubeless wheel hub and they melt under hight temperature to allow the tire plug to be blown out by the tire air pressure, to prevent to much pressure to built in the tire and let the air leak away.
avoids the tire from bursting
page 167
438
what are chimed tires ?
has a special sidewall construction that diverts the runway water to the side reducing the amount of water getting thrown into the engine
page 167
439
describe a typical breaking system ?
most use hydraulic fluid pressure to move friction brakes pads
page 167
440
how does an automatic brake system decelerates an aircraft ?
the control the amount of break pressure by controlling the metering valve .
usually monitors the reverse thrust and applies the autobrakes and a combined system
page 168
441
tire temperature before the take off, depends on what factors ?
- OAT
- aircraft weight
- taxi time
- amount of braking
page 168
442
why is it important to monitor pneumatic tire temperature prior to take off ?
an increase in temperature lead to an increase in tire pressure
page 169
443
what it is important to monitor brakes temperature ?
if the brakes overheat they lose efficiency
page 169
444
which brake get the hotter during a landing ?
with a crosswind, the downwind brakes
page 169
445
what is the purpose of anti skid system ?
is to sense when the wheels are locked.
wheel spin is required to maintain directional control and braking efficiency
page 169
446
how do antiskid system work ?
once it sense the wheel is not rotating it releases brakes pressure
page 170
447
what does an anti skid system protects against ?
- locked wheels
- wheel skid/slip
- acqua planing
- zero brake pressure at touch down
page 170
448
how is aircraft cabin pressure measured ?
by differential pressure which is the difference between outside and inside pressure
page 170
449
how is the cabin pressure control ?
via cabin outflow valve
page 170
450
at what cabin altitude should a pilot go on oxygen ?
10000ft
page 171
451
what oxygen supply is delivered when selected to normal ? (pilot mask)
a mixture of oxygen and cabin air on demands
page 171
452
why and when should a pilot use 100% oxygen on demand ?
in case a life support reasons
loss of decompression
page 171
453
when do you use emergency 100% oxygen ?
- life support above 34000ft
- hypoxia
- smoke or other gases
page 171
454
what indications are there of a discharged crew oxygen bottle as a result of excess pressure ?
- a green disk is blown out on the aircraft fuselage
- oxygen pressure gauge will show below normal or zero
page 171
455
at what cabin altitude should pax go on oxygen ?
14000 ft
page 171
456
how is the oxygen pax system activated ?
manually by the flight crew
| automatically by a barometric pressure controller that sense a 14000ft cabin altitude
457
prior to take of what are the oxygen requirement for a flight ?
```
crew = 15-20min descent + rest of the flight
pax = 15-20min descent + 10% of rest of the flight
```
page 172
458
what elements are required for a fire ?
- oxygen
- combustible material (ex.fuel)
- ignition source (ex.heat)
page 172
459
what is the most most practical way to eliminate a fire ?
remove its oxygen supply
page 172
460
what type of extinguisher should be used for electrical and flammable fires normally found in the cockpit ?
BCF is a liquified gas agent that vaporises on deployment
page 172
461
what colour container is BCF stored in ?
red
page 172
462
what it the greatest contamination of fuel ?
water
page 172
463
what steps can be taken to safeguard against water contamination ?
- water drain in fuel tanks
- fuel heater (heat the fuel and evaporate water)
- atmosphere exclusion in the fuel tanks
page 172
464
what is specific gravity ?
is the weight of the unit volume of a substance compared to the same volume of water, under same temp and press
page 173
465
what affects the specific gravity of a substance ?
if air temperature increases the SG decreases
page 173
466
how is fuel measured ?
in terms of mass (kg)
page 173
467
convert fuel weight to volume
if SG 0.8
WT (kg) / 0.8 = volume in liters
page 173
468
why is fuel measured in terms of mass(weight) rather than its volume ?
for mass and balance calculation where mass(weight) is needed. plus volume is effected by temperature
page 174
469
what precautions should be taken before and during after refuelling ?
- establish a safe refuelling zone
- earth the aircraft
page 174
470
what is a deicing system ?
a system where ice is allowed to built up on a surface and then removed (ex.pneumatic leading edge boots)
page 174
471
what is an anti icing system ?
a system where ice is prevented from building up
page 175
472
what is the purpose of cockpit window heating ?
to reinforce the windshield and prevent it from braking in case of bird strike
page 175
473
what is electricity ?
the movement of electrons that produces power
page 175
474
what is a Volt a measure of ?
Electrical Potential (EMF electromotive force)
the energy that could be released if electric current is allow to flow
page 175
475
what does a voltmeter gauge shows ?
the number of volts produce by an electrical source
page 175
476
what is an Ampere a measure of ?
flow rate of electrical charge
page 176
477
what does an ammeter show ?
the number of amperes in a electrical circuit
page 176
478
what is an Ohm a measure of ?
unit of electrical resistance
page 176
479
what is a Watt a measure of ?
unit of electrical power
Watts = volts x amps
page 176
480
what does a watt meter shows ?
the number of watts being consumed
page 176
481
what is a Series Circuit ?
one circuit path
page 176
482
what is a Parallel Circuit ?
there are two or more alternative path in parallel that reunite
page 177
483
what is the purpose of a fuse ?
piece of wire with a low melting point that burns when an higher value that its ampere rating is placed on it, thus protecting the electrical load from power surge
page 177
484
how many spare fuses should be carried on an aircraft ?
minimum of 10% of total
page 177
485
what are circuit breakers ?
they are thermal devices that open the circuit when they experience an overload
page 177
486
what are non-trip-free circuit breakers ?
after tripping they can be pushed back in to complete the circuit
page 177
487
what are trip-free circuit breakers ?
they cannot be pushed back in to complete the circuit after tripping
page 177
488
what is DC electrical power ?
is Direct Current that flows in only one direction
page 178
489
what are and aircraft typical sources of dc electrical power
- DC generator
- Battery
- ground dc supply (ground battery)
- rectifier (AC to DC)
page 178
490
how does a battery create electrical energy ?
due to chemical action that separates the electrons from from atoms
page 178
491
what is a primary cell battery ?
is a battery that cannot be recharged
page 178
492
what is a secondary cell battery ?
is a battery that can be recharged
page 178
493
what is alternating current AC ?
continuously reverses its direction of flow in an electric circuit
page 178
494
what advantages does AC has over DC ?
- simpler
- better power to weight ratio
- voltage can be converted to higher or lower value (transformer)
- dc can be obtain via a rectifier
- more reliable
page 179
495
what are a typical aircraft source of AC power ?
- AC generator
- Inverter (DC to AC)
- ground AC supply
- transformer (change AC voltage level)
page 179
496
what is a transformer ?
changes AC voltage level
page 179
497
what do constant speed drive (CSD) unit achieve ?
maintain the AC frequency output of an alternator (400Hz)
page 180
498
how does a basic CSD work ?
consist of an engine driven hydraulic pump that drives a hydraulic motor which itself drives the alternator
page 180
499
when can you disconnect and reconnect a CSD unit ?
can be disconnected at any time but reconnection can only be done on the ground
age 180
500
what are the basic parameters of aircraft electrical system ?
- no paralleling of the AC source of power
- all generator bus source have to manually connected via a switch
page 181
501
what are the following aircraft weight definitions ?
basic weight = the weight of empty aircraft + unusual fuel and oil
variable load = weight of crew + crew bags + catering
DOM = basic empty weight + variable load
payload = pax or cargo
ramp weight = TOW + fuel for start and taxi
MTOW = max take of weight
MLW = max landing weight
page 183
502
what factors determine the loading of an aircraft ?
weight and balance
page 184
503
what's TORA ?
usable length of runway available suitable for the ground run
page 185
504
what's TORR ?
the measure run required to the unstick speed Vr + 1/3 of airborne distance to reach screen height + 15% safety margin
page 185
505
what is the runway clearway ?
is the length of an obstacle free area which can be used by an aircraft for the initial climb out
page 185
506
what is the TODA ?
is the length of the runway + clearway available
page 185
507
what is the TODR ?
distance required to accelerate to Vr and climb to screen height at a speed not less than VTOSS or V2
page 186
508
what is screen height ?
is the minimum height to be achieved before the end of the clearway (should engine failure occur on take off)
page 186
509
how high is the screen height for propeller and jet aircraft ?
```
jet 35ft (dry) 15ft (wet)
prop 50ft
```
jet aircraft are to heavy to make prop height with same distance so needed to be lowered
page 186
510
what is the runway stopway ?
it's an area at the end of the runway used for an aircraft to stop in case of rejected take off
page 187
511
what is the emergency distance available/ ASDA ?
TORA + stopway available
page 187
512
what is the emergency distance required ?
distance required to accelerate to V1 at which point an engine failure is assumed to have occurred
page 187
513
explain balance and unbalanced field
exist when TODA = ASDA
page 188
514
what is the purpose of using balance field calculation ?
to optimise the V2 climb performance with a correct V1//Vr speed with a single performance calculation
page 188
515
how can a stopway extend beyond the clearway ?
in case the length of the clearway is limited by an obstruction
page 188
516
what is the significance of the 40 to 100 kt calls during the take off ?
is used to check the requirements that must be established by certain speed called
page 189
517
what is VMU speed ?
minimum unstick speed at which is possible to get airborne all engine operative
page 189
518
what is critical speed ?
is the lowest speed at which a pilot is able to keep is heading after an engine failure. (VMCA,VMCG)
page 189
519
what is VCMG speed ?
minimum control speed on the ground
VMCG need to be lower than V1 to ensure directional control of the aircraft after the critical engine has failed, once a decision has been made to reject the take off before the latest decision speed is reached
page 189
520
what is V1 speed ?
decision speed at which a decision to abort or continue the take off has to be already made
page 189
521
what is a range of V1 speed ?
when the planned TOW is not field length limited the minimum V1 speed in the range is still restricted by VMGC, and the maximum V1 is still restricted by VMBE
page 190
522
how does weight effect V1 speed ?
if the field length is limiting the greater the weight the lower is V1.
if the field length is not limiting the greater the weight the higher is V1
page 190
523
what is the difference between a dry V1 and wet V1 ?
dry V1 is the normal decision speed
wet V1 improves the stopping capabilities back to dry conditions but with a reduce screen height
Wet V1 is a LOWER speed than Dry V1
page 190
524
how does a contaminated runway (ice and rain) affect distance and V1 speed ?
TORR is increased
the normal dry V1 offers the best compromise
page 191
525
how does screen height change with a wet V1 ?
is reduced
page 191
526
what is VMBE speed ?
maximum brake energy speed is the maximum speed on the ground from which a stop can be accomplished with the energy capabilities of the brakes
page 191
527
what do you do if V1 is greater than VMBE ?
take off weight has to be reduced
page 192
528
what is Vr speed ?
rotation speed or unstick speed to achieve V2 at screen height.
even with engine failure Vr cannot be less than 1.05VMCA or 1.1 VMU
page 192
529
what is the relationship of V1 and Vr ?
Vr can never be less then V1
page 192
530
what is Vs speed ?
stall speed also is the reference speed for V2 and Vref
page 192
531
what is Va speed ?
manoeuvring speed, max elevator deflection
page 192
532
what is VMCA speed ?
minimum control speed when airborne after engine failure
page 192
533
how would you teach a student about VMCG/A ?
they are the minimum speed to don't loss control after one engine has failed
page 192
534
how does VMCG/A varies with CoG position ?
a aft position required an higher VMCG/A cause to the moment arm to the rudder will be shorter.
forward position is vice versa
page 195
535
if VMCG is limited for the weight of an aircraft what can you do?
use reduce take off thrust
so that any off center engine loss during take off run has a reduced asymmetrical thrust imballance
page 195
536
what is the relationship between VMCG and V1 ?
V1 cannot be less than VMCG
page 195
537
if you had an engine failure between V1 and Vr and you had a max crosswind, which engine would be the best to lose ?
upwind engine
page 195
538
what is V2 speed ?
V2 is VTOSS to be achieved at screen height even with one engine failure
V2 cannot be less than Vs x 1.2 and VMCA x 1.1
page 196
539
what is the relationship between Vs and V2 ?
V2 cannot be less than Vs x 1.2
page 196
540
what is the difference between VMCA and V2 ?
V2 cannot be less than VMCA x 1.1
page 196
541
what is V3 speed ?
is the all engine operative take off climb speed the aircraft will achieve at screen height
page 196
542
what is V4 speed ?
is the all engine operative take off climb speed the aircraft will achieve at 400ft
page 196
543
what are the main variables that affect an aircraft take off and landing performance ?
- weight
- flap settings
- pressure altitude
- density altitude
- humidity
- wind
- runway surface, slope, length
page 196
544
how does aircraft weight affects take off performance ?
if weight increases take off performance decreases
page 197
545
how does the use of flaps affects aircraft performance ?
page 197
546
how does pressure altitude affects take off performance ?
high pressure altitude decrease take off performance
and vice versa
page 198
547
how does density altitude affects take off performance ?
high density altitude decreases take off performance and vice versa
page 198
548
how does humidity affects take off performance ?
high humidity decreases take off performance
page 199
549
how does wind affects the take off performance ?
HW increased take off performance
TW decreases take off performance
page 199
550
what are the recommended adjustments to HW and TW component when calculating the take off and landing field performance ?
not more than 50% of report HW
not less than 150% of reported TW
should be used to calculate take off and landing performance
page 200
551
what are the crosswind limitation on an aircraft ?
check aircraft manual
page 200
552
how does the runway length, surface, slope affects take off performance ?
- length can restrict take off weight
- surface can increase or reduce the take off and landing distance per weight
- slope can increase or reduce the take off and landing distance per weight
page 200
553
when are you not permitted to take off from a wet runway ?
- if the antiskid is not operative
- if standing water is too much
- type restrictions
page 200
554
describe field length limits
- all engine operative runway length
- ASDA
- one engine inoperative runway length
page 201
555
descrive the weight, altitude and temperature limits
they can all limit the aircraft weight
page 201
556
what guaranteed altitude/height would you be able to achieve at MTOW WAT limited conditions with one engine inoperative ?
the circuit height
page 201
557
what is an assumed/flexible temperature ?
is a performance calculation use to find the EPR for flex thrust
page 201
558
describe tire speed limits
restrict the aircraft maximum take off weight to protect tires from blowing out on take off roll
page 203
559
describe brakes energy limits
restrict the aircraft maximum take off weight to protect brakes from being effective
page 203
560
how are reverse thrust, antiskid, and braking applied to stopping distance ?
- reverse thrust is not applied to the ASDA calculation but 10% to landing distance in case of reverse malfunction
- antiskid applied to TOD and LD
- braking applied to ASDA and LDR
page 203
561
describe the difference between net and gross flight path performance ?
- the gross performance is the average performance that a fleet of aircraft should achieve.
- the net performance is the gross performance diminished to allow for various contingency
page 203
562
describe the departure profile segments 1 to 4
- first segment: from the reference point (35 ft) to the point where landing gear is retracted at V2
- second segment: from first segment's end to 400ft or 1000ft AGLS (maximum) at V2
- third segment: starts at the end of second segment where levelling off and accelerating to clean up the plane
- forth segment: from the the third segment level off height to 1500ft or more with flaps up and max continues thrust
page 204
563
what is climb gradient ?
change in height divided by horizontal distance travelled
page 204
564
describe the net take off flight path
is the true distance versus the horizontal distance travelled
pag 204
565
what is the typical jet take off technique and the various flight path options ?
think about segments
page 204
566
what does it mean if a take off weight is limited by an obstacle in the second segment ?
it means that the weight has to be reduce to clean an obstacle in the second segment being able to fly at V2
page 205
567
what can you do if an aircraft is limited by a close in obstacle in the second departure profile segment ?
- increase flaps
- reduce take off weight
- increase V2 climb
- max angle climb profile
page 205
568
what is an increased V2 ?
is a technique to improve and aircraft climb gradient.
more speed egual more lift
page 206
569
when is an increased V2 climb profile used ?
- in case of an obstacle in the second segment
- to increase take off weight
page 206
570
what can you do if an aircraft is limited by a distant obstacle in the third departure profile segment ?
- extend V2 climb profile technique
- reduce take off weight
- climbing turns to avoid the obstacles
page 206
571
what is an extended V2 climb ?
one in which the aircraft second segment climb is either
- continued to the highest possible level off height, or
- continued to an unlimited height with max continuous thrust
page 207
572
why is an extended V2 climb used ?
used to clear the obstacle by the third segment so that a normal acceleration can be achieved
page 207
573
describe a maximum angle climb profile (Vx)
| describe Vx
Vx is the steepest angle or highest climb gradient
page 207
574
describe the minimum rate climb profile (Vy)
| describe Vy
best rate of climb
page 207
575
describe the cruise climb profile
it's a compromise between the best en route speed profile and the best climb profile
page 207
576
what climb departure uses the least trip fuel ?
Vy cause it reaches the optimum altitude as quickly as possible.
The aircraft will spend more time at its optimum altitude
page 207
577
a reduce power climb uses more or less trip fuel and why ?
more trip fuel cause it will extend the time spent at an altitude lower than the optimum altitude
page 208
578
a derated take off will use less or more trip fuel and why ?
more trip fuel cause it will take longer to reach to optimum altitude
page 208
579
what is VRA/MRA ? (VB)
VRA = rough air speed or (VB) turbulence penetration speed
page 208
580
what is VMO/MMO ?
is the maximum operating speed
page 209
581
what is VNO speed ?
is the normal operation speed
page 209
582
what id VDF/MDF speed ?
maximum flight dividing speed for a jet aircraft established during trial
page 209
583
what is VNE speed ?
never exceed speed
page 209
584
what is the absolute ceiling ?
the maximum attainable attitude where performance decrease and plane cannot climb any higher.
also where Mach Buffet and Prestall Buffet occur at the same time. COFFIN CORNER
page 209
585
what is a maximum service ceiling ?
en-route maximum operating altitude with a safety margin from absolute ceiling
page 209
586
define maximum endurance and range with reference to the drag curve.
```
endurance = VIMD minimum drag speed
range = slightly higher above VIMD
```
page 209
587
what is the difference between maximum range cruise (MRC) and long range cruise (LRC) ?
```
MRC = maximum milage is obtained
LRC = is a speed slightly higher than MRC and requires a speed reduction and weight decreases due to fuel burn
```
page 210
588
how is range increased when flying into a head wind ?
we want to spend less time as possible into wind and that is why speed in increased. with increased speed to spend less time into wind, the less time we are effected by the wind the more Range we gain.
page 210
589
a flight carried out below its optimal altitude has what results on jet performance ?
it uses more fuel but it takes less time to complete the trip when flying at constant mach number
page 211
590
what is a cruise (step) climb ?
as the aircraft loses weight due to fuel burn it can fly at higher altitude
page 212
591
what are the normal route operating performance limitations for an aircraft ?
- en route terrain clearance
- max range limit
- ETOPS (extended twin ops)
page 212
592
explain a typical fuel plan for a trip ?
fuel for:
- take off and climb
- en route
- descent
- contingency
- alternate
- approach
- holding
page 213
593
what is island holding fuel, and when is it used ?
is a quantity of fuel uplifted where there is no diversion option and there is a possible delay
page 213
594
explain fuel howgozit ?
is a comparison of the actual fuel remaining against the planned fuel remaining along the flight path
page 213
595
what is the critical point ?
distance to CP = distance x GS HOME
-------------------------------
GS OUT + GS HOME
page 213
596
how does the wind affects the position of the critical point ?
the critical point moves into wind
page 214
597
what is the most important diversion question to ask in an emergency ?
which aerodrome is the quickest to get to?
page 214
598
what is the point of no return PNR ?
the last point enroute which is possible to turn back
PNR = endurance( hours) x GS HOME
---------------------------------------------
GS OUT + GS HOME
page 214
599
where are you likely to need a PNR ?
especially over large water areas
page 214
600
what is the landing distance available LDA ?
is the distance available for landing.
50ft above the surface of the runway threshold height
page 215
601
what is landing distance required LDR ?
the point from where the aircraft is 50ft over the runway to where it stops
page 215
602
what distance along the runway is the runway touch down aiming point ?
300m on a 3º glide, marker board markers
page 215
603
what is the height of te aircraft over the runway threshold ?
50ft but large aircraft may be less due to gear
page 215
604
what is VMCL speed ?
minimum control speed for a multi engine plane in approach and landing configuration
page 215
605
what is VAT/Vref speed ?
VAT is velocity at threshold speed
Vref velocity reference speed
is the target approach threshold speed above the fence height for a specified falp setting
VAT/Vref = 1.3 Vs in the landing configuration
page 216
606
how does a fast approach speed affects landing performance ?
the landing distance required will exceed the one calculated
page 216
607
how does aircraft weight affects landing performance ?
increases landing distance
page 216
608
how does the use of flaps affects landing performance ?
increased flap settings decrease the landing distance required
page 217
609
how does pressure altitude affects landing performance ?
high pressure altitude will decrease landing performance increasing landing distance required
page 217
610
how does air density (rho)/density altitude (pressure altitude and temperature) affects the landing performance ?
an increased in density altitude decreases an aircraft performance which results in an increased LDR
page 217
611
how does humidity affects landing performance ?
high humidity decrease air density therefore reduces aircraft performance and increases LDR
218
612
how does wind affect landing performance ?
```
HW = reduces LDR
TW = increases LDR
```
page 218
613
how does the runway length, surface, performance affect landing performance ?
```
Length = restricts max weight
Surface = low friction increases LDR
Slope = downslope increases LDR
```
page 218
614
what is RLW ?
restricted landing weight, is the max landing weight for runway length
page 219
615
what factors are taken into account on restricted landing weight ?
- engine out overshoot
- performance
- weight
- altitude
- pressure
- runway length
- conditions
page 219
616
what is an isobar ?
is a line over a chart that connects point of same pressure
page 220
617
what is an isotherm ?
is a line over a chart that connects point of same temperature
page 220
618
what is heat ?
is a form of energy measured in calories
page 221
619
what provides the earth's heat energy ?
the sun via solar radiation
the short wave radiation from the sun are absorbed by the ground heating it up (insulation). Energy is then re-radiated out from the ground as long wave, it is this radiations that heat up the lower atmosphere
page 221
620
what are the different ways of transferring heat energy into the atmosphere ?
- radiation
- conduction
- convection
page 222
621
how does cloud cover affects the heating of the earth's surface ?
by day = stops the incoming solar radiations
by night = traps the heat of the lower atmosphere
page 222
622
what is specific heat capacity ?
is the capability to hold heat
page 222
623
what is latent heat ?
is the heat energy absorbed or released when water changes from one state to another
page 222
624
what is temperature ?
temperature is measure of molecule agitation in a substance
page 223
625
what factors determine the temperature at the earth's surface ?
(why is it hot at the tropics and cold at the poles ?)
- latitude: tropics are more direct to the sun radiations than poles
- seasons : the earth gets further in winter and closer in summer, to the sun
- time: of the day
page 223
626
what is the difference between Celsius and Fahrenheit ?
Celsius: is based on the freezing and boiling temperature of water at 0ºC and 100ºC
Fahrenheit: same but 32ºF and 212ºF
page 224
627
what is the formula to convert C and F ?
```
F = 9/5 (C + 32)
C = 5/9 (F - 32)
```
page 224
628
describe OAT
ambient outside air temperature
page 224
629
describe SAT
ambient static air temperature
page 224
630
describe TAT
is the total air pressure
TAT is higher than OAT whenever there is a airflow into the temperature probe (heating error)
page 224
631
how does a change in the air temperature affect an aircraft's flight level ?
- an higher than ISA air temperature makes the air less dense. actual flight will be higher than the pressure level red by the altimeter
- a lower than ISA air temperature makes the air denser. actual flight will be lower than the pressure level red by the altimeter
page 225
632
what is a temperature inversion layer ?
a layer where the temperature raises instead of decreasing
page 225
633
what is an isothermal layer ?
a layer where the temperature is constant
page 226
634
what is the adiabatic process ?
is a process where heat is neither added nor released but the expansion or compression of a gas changes is temperature
page 226
635
what is ELR ?
Environmental Lapse Rate = 2ºC x 1000ft
page 226
636
what is DALR ?
Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (Unsaturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) = 3ºC x 1000ft
page 227
637
what is SALR ?
Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate = 1.5ºC x 1000ft
it commences at a height where a parcel of air temperature is reduced to its dew point temperature. above this point it will start to condense into liquid form ex.cloud
page 227
638
explain humidity and relative humidity
- humidity is the amount of water vapour into a parcel of air
- relative humidity is the percentage of the content of water vapour into a parcel of air
page 227
639
how does air temperature effects relative humidity ?
- if temperature increases the parcel of air expands therefore the amount of water compared to the size of the parcel of air is reduced.
- if the temperature decreases the parcel of air shrinks therefore the amount of water compared to the size of the parcel of air is increased.
page 227
640
what is dew point ?
is the temperature where a parcel of air becomes saturated
page 227
641
describe how clouds are formed ?
- moisture in the air
- a lifting action : convection, turbulence, frontal, orographic
- adiabatic cooling of the raising air
page 228
642
how is the height of a cloud base determined ?
cloud base height(ft) = surface temp - dew point
------------------------------------- x 1000
3º(DALR)
when the surrounding temperature is the same as or warmer than the temperature inside the cloud, then the air in the cloud will become stable and stop rising. limiting the height of the cloud top.
page 228
643
why do cumulus clouds have flat bases and round tops ?
flat bases = due to the uniform decrease in temperature
round tops = due to the uneven decrease in ELR at different magnitude within the cloud due to currents of rising air
page 229
644
how are cloud types classified /
- cirriform or fibrous
- cumuliform
- stratiform
- nimbus
- cirro = high level clouds 16500ft to 20000ft
- alto = medium level clouds above 6500
- low level clouds below 6500
page 229
645
if cumulus clouds were present in the morning what would you expect later ?
CB
page 230
646
describe the formation of mountain lenticular clouds ?
airflow rises over mountains due to orographic lifting and cools adiabatically.
stable air = stratus clouds
unstable air = cumulus clouds
also , rotor clouds may be present on the lee side
page 230
647
what is mist and fog ?
parcels of low level suspend water droplets in contact with the ground
page 231
648
what are the different types of fog ?
- radiation fog
- advection fog
- frontal fog
page 231
649
how are the different type of fog formed ?
- radiation fog = the ground loses heat that condenses
conditions: cloudless night, light wind, moist air
- advection fog = warm and moist air flows over a cold surface (from water to land at night, or Sea Smoke in the reverse condition)
- frontal fog = warm occludent front
page 231
650
what is dew and how is it formed ?
is a water cover over the ground that is formed when:
- cloudless night
- moist air
- light winds
page 232
651
what is frost and how is it formed ?
is frozen water cover, it forms like dew but freezes but to ground being at subzero temperature
page 232
652
describe the formation of a thunderstorm
four conditions:
- high moisture content in the air
- a trigger lifting action
- adiabatic cooling of the rising air
- a highly unstable atmosphere
3 stages:
- developing stage = up draught move air aloft that start to condensate
- mature stage = water drops start to fall with associated down draught
dissipating stage = last showers
page 233
653
why are thunderstorm an hazard to aviation ?
- severe windshear
- severe turbulence
- severe icing
- airframe structural damage
- reduced visibility
- lightning strikes
- radio comm and nav interference
page 234
654
when is lightning most likely to occur ?
OAT +10º to -10º
page 234
655
what is wind ?
is the horizontal movement of air
page 234
656
how is wind described or expressed ?
wind direction and wind strength
page 235
657
what is wind velocity ?
speed at with wind moves expressed in knots
page 235
658
describe a veering and backing wind ?
```
veering = clockwise change (souther hemisphere)
backing = anticlockwise change (northern hemisphere)
```
page 235
659
what is Buys Ballot's law ?
northern hemisphere = if you put your back to the wind and raise your left harm you will point at the low pressure (temperature).
southern hemisphere = vice versa
page 235
660
what is the pressure gradient force ?
is the natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance
page 235
661
what is the coriolis force or geostrofic force ?
the air that flows from high to low pressure system is deflected either left or right due to the spinning of the earth
northern h. = right
southern h. = left
page 236
662
what is the geostrophic wind ?
wind parallel to the isobars with a low pressure system to its left. it's found at 2000ft and above. is created when the pressure gradient force and the coriolis forced are in balance
is straight W to E
page 236
663
what a gradient wind ?
is very similar to a geostrophic wind but it's able to curve around the isobars
page 236
664
describe upper winds
upper winds are determined by the Thermal Gradient.
A difference in temperature between two mass of air will also cause a difference in pressure that creates a wind parallel to the isobars
In the Northern Hemisphere the Thermal Gradient is generally N/S (north cold, south warm) and therefore the Upper Winds are generally Westerly in direction, with the highest wind speed where the thermal gradient is the greatest (jet streams)
page 236
665
what is a thermal wind and how is it generated ?
are generated by a difference in temperature between two columns of air over large areas and great upper heights
page 237
666
what is a Jetstream ?
narrow bands of high speed, high altitude thermal winds found in the tropopause or stratosphere characterised by strong vertical and/or lateral windshear (CAT).
Their speed is directional proportional to thermal gradient.
to be called jetstream:
- speed must be greater than 60kt
- 1500 nm long
- 200 nm wide
- 1200 ft high
page 237
667
where do you find jetstreams ?
polar jetstream = 60ºN or S at 25000ft, westerly direction
subtropical jetstream = 20to30ºN or S at 45000ft, westerly
easterly equatorial jetstream = 20ºN to 20ºS at 65000ft
page 237
668
where are CAT found ?
warm air = level with or just above the jetstream core
cold (polar) air = on the side of the jetstream
page 238
669
describe the characteristics of a surface wind ?
at the surface the wind weakens in strength and backs in direction in the Northern H. and veers in the Southern H.
page 238
670
describe the diurnal variation of the surface wind
by day = the day surface wind is stronger therefore it loses less speed and backs only slightly
by night = the night surface wind is weaker and loses more speed and backs significantly
page 239
671
how does the wind (direction and speed) change with height ?
northern h. = increases in speed and veers
southern h. = increases in speed and backs
page 239
672
what are the approximate changes in wind direction and speed compared with the free air 2000ft gradient wind?
northern h. = on the ground it back, in the air it veer
southern h. = on the ground it veers, in the air it backs
page 239
673
why is the surface wind important to pilots ?
cause of the effects it has on take off and landing
page 240
674
what are trade winds ?
are surface wind of 15kt that can extend up to 10000ft they blow in the subtropical high and convergent into ITCZ.
N.H. = NE
S.H. = SE
page 241
675
explain land/sea breezes, especially in connection with coastal airports
a a product of surface heating and atmospheric convection currents that produce small local airflow circulation cells
sea breeze = they occur during daytime when land heats up quicker than sea
land breeze = they occur during nighttime when land cools down quicker than sea
page 241
676
what is the Fohn wind effect ?
it's when air cools as is rising over high ground, where it will lose the moist content, form a cloud with precipitation and come on the other side warm and dry
Fohn wind is the dry warm wind that blows on the lee side
page 242
677
what is katabatic/anabatic wind ?
```
katabatic = a wind that blows down a hill
anabatic = a wind that blows up hill
```
page 242
678
what is an air mass ?
is a large parcel of air with similar temperature and pressure throughout
page 243
679
what is a pressure system ?
is a circulating air mass
(a low pressure system will have more than one mass)
page 243
680
describe the characteristic of a low pressure system
air converges at the bottom, rises up, and diverts at the top
- the pressure drops as you move towards the centre
- spins anticlockwise in the NH
- are more concentrated
- move faster
- shorter life span
page 243
681
what is the wind direction around a low pressure system ?
NH anticlockwise
SH clockwise
page 244
682
what are the different types of depression ?
- frontal
- thermal
- tropical storm
- orographic
page 244
683
describe the weather associated with a depression ?
- unstable air
- cumulus clouds
- low vis
- moderate to strong winds
- frontal weather
page 244
684
what is a through ?
it a line of low pressure systems
page 245
685
what drift would you experience when when flying from a high to low pressure system ?
right drift in the NH
left drift in the SH
page 245
686
describe the characteristics of a high pressure system ?
air converges at the top, sinks down and diverges ant the bottom
- weak pressure gradient, wide isobars
- wind is clockwise in the NH
- usually only one air mass
- greater extent but weaker
- move slowly
page 246
687
what is the wind direction around a high pressure system ?
clockwise in NH
anticlockwise SH
page 247
688
describe the weather associated with a high pressure system
- clear upper sky with little of no clouds
- stable air (stratus)
- light winds
- possible low vis at low level
page 247
689
what is a ridge ?
it's a line of high pressure systems
page 247
690
what drift would you experienced when flying from a low to a high pressure system ?
left drift NH
right drift SE
page 248
691
describe the airflow between a low and a high pressure system
page 248
692
how does a change in pressure effects an aircraft flight level ?
from high to low beware below
from low to to high you are up in the sky
page 249
693
what is a front ?
is a boundary between two air masses
page 249
694
what is frontal activity ?
is the interaction of at least 2 air masses
page 249
695
how are frontal depression developed ?
when two air mass meet but do not mix together
page 249
696
what is a warm front ?
it's a front between two air masses where the mass at the back is warm and the one at the front is cold.
the warm air mass slides over the cold air mass.
up to 600 nm wide
page 249
697
describe the characteristics and weather common to a passage of a warm front
as the warm front approaches:
- lowering cloud base
- poor vis
- pressure drops
as the front passes:
- temperature rises
- pressure stops falling or rises
- low level stratus
- wind veers
- good vis
page 250
698
what is a cold front ?
a boundary between two air masses where the one at the back is cold and the one at the front is warm.
the cold air mass slides under the warm one.
a band of 30 to 50 nm
page 251
699
why does a warm front move slower than a cold front ?
because the warm front uses a lot of energy when the warm air tries to climb over the cold air mass
page 251
700
describe the characteristics and weather common to a passage of a cold front
as the cold front approaches:
- cumulus and CB clouds
- poor vis
- pressure falls
as the front passes:
- temperature drops
- clear sky
- good vis
- wind veers
- pressure stops falling
page 252
701
what is an occludent front ?
a combination of both cold and warm front.
it's where the cold front moves quicker than we warm front and will catch up to it
Cold occlusion – air mass overtaking warm front is colder than cold air ahead of warm front and plows underneath both air masses.
Warm occlusion – air mass overtaking warm front is not as cold as cold air ahead of warm front and therefore rides over it whilst lifting the warm air.
page 252
702
what is turbulence ?
is the eddy motion of the atmosphere
vertical gust:
- convection turbulence = caused by ground heating
- orographic turbulence = caused by wind and terrain
horizontal gust:
- jetstreams
- wake turbulence
page 253
703
what causes surface turbulence ?
caused by surface wind being blown over and around surface obstacle
page 254
704
what is windshear ?
is any variation of wind speed and/or wind direction from place to place including updraught and downdraught
page 254
705
where do you find windshear ?
low lever windshear = below 3000ft
- CAT
- frontal passage
- microburst
medium high lever windshear
- CAT in form of jetstreams
- frontal passage
page 254
706
how is windshear detected ?
- good interpretation of weather
- aerodrome windshear measuring equipment
- windshear warning system in GPWS
page 255
707
how does windshear affects an aircraft ?
- affects the lift capability
- the dynamic speed is reduced
- downdraft increases aircraft weight
- runway overshoot or undershoot
during an approach for landing:
- if HW increases, performance increases, will Overshoot
- if HW decreases, performance decreases, will Undershoot
page 255
708
what is a microburst ?
is a severe downdraft
page 256
709
where do you find microbursts ?
are found underneath cumulonimbus clouds and thunderstorms
page 256
710
what do you know about microburst ?
- they last not more then 10min
- most severe can be 3000ft/m downdraft at 100kt
updrafts are on the side of the cloud(inside the cloud), they reach the top and converge together sinking down as downdraft in the centre of the cloud and cause a microburst
page 256
711
what identifies (are the indications of) a microburst ?
- mature cumulonimbus clouds
- roll clouds around a CB
- virga
- flight path and IAS fluctuations
- wind direction and speed changes
page 257
712
how does a microburst affect an aircraft ?
initially:
- updraft
- increasing HW causes the nose to rise
- IAS rises
- RoD reduces
```
central area:
the updraft becomes a downdraft = Windshear Reversal
- HW reduces, nose falls
- IAS falls
- RoD increases
```
continuing the approach:
- TW increases
- IAS continues to fall
- RoD continues to increase
"always avoid microburst areas"
page 358
713
what is the definition of wind gust factor ?
how much wind speed change you can expect in varying wind conditions.
calculation:
a wind gusting from 15 to 25 with a mean of 20 kt will have a gust factor of : 0.5
25-15 = 10
10/20 = 0.5
page 259
714
what do lenticular clouds indicate ?
- mountain waves
- CAT
- high speed upper level wind
page 259
715
what is CAT and give an example ?
```
Clear Air Turbulance
ex.
1. low level CAT:
- temperature inversion
- difference between surface wind and gradient wind
- land/sea breeze
- terrain generated winds
2. jetstreams
3. fronts
4. thunderstorms
5. wake turbulence
```
page 260
716
can you detect CAT ?
is one of the hardest forms of turbulence to detect.
CAT is a form of windshear therefore needs to look out for situations that create windshear.
a large rapid fluctuation in TAT (+-10ºC) is a good indication of CAT
page 260
717
what is wake turbulence ?
are turbulence created due to disturbed airflow
wing tip vortices
page 260
718
what is icing ?
the change of water state to solid
page 261
719
what is sublimation ?
water turns straight into ice, this happens when the dewpoint or actual temperature is less than 0ºC. the usual result is Hoar Frost
page 261
720
what are supercooled water droplets ?
their temperature is well below 0ºC which will freeze at contact with a cold surface.
it doesn't actually freeze straight away it will be washed back along the cold aircraft surface and become ice.
page 262
721
what conditions present an icy risk ?
+10ºC and -45ºC
page 262
722
what hazards to aviation does icing cause ?
- adverse aerodynamic performance effect
- control surface effect
- increases aircraft weight
- reduce engine power if ice builds near the air inlet
- vent blockage
- degraded nav and radio comm if ice builds on aerial
page 262
723
what is carburetor icing ?
ice can form in the carburator, especially in the venturi shape part where temperature can drop by 25ºC, and around the throttle valve
page 264
724
what is atmospheric/ meteorological visibility ?
the greatest horizontal distance
page 264
725
what conditions reduce visibility ?
stable air where the moisture and contamination in the air remains in situ (dust, pollen, etc)
page 264
726
what is the most important visibility to the pilot
ground, Slant Visibility
page 265
727
how is visibility reported ?
from:
- meteo reports
- RVR
page 265
728
what is smog and how is it formed ?
smoke + air contamination
page 265
729
what is the thermal equator ?
is the position of the maximum thermal temperature around the earth's surface
summer = moves toward the pole due to the greater heating experienced at higher latitude
the thermal equator is more coincidental to the actual equator over the sea than over land
page 266
730
what is the ITCZ ?
is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator
page 266
731
what are tropical revolving storm ?
TRS are deep, intense depression found in equatorial regions around the ITCZ
```
cyclones = indian and pacific ocean
hurricanes = Caribbean
typhoons = china sea
```
TRS take they energy from water vapour.
Water has to be at least 27ºC which happens after a long hot summer. That's why they don't form over cold sea and die out when over cold sea or land.
TRS do not form at the equator because the Coriolis effect is Zero, so they form 5º to 20º of latitude.
page 267
732
what is the primary meaning of preflight meteorological forecast briefing for aircrew ?
using facilities available to pilot
page 267
733
what is an AIRMET ?
recorded telephone forecast for a particular area
page 267
734
what is a meteorological report ?
an observation of the weather at the time of the report
page 267
735
what are the common aviation meteorologica report ?
- METAR, SIGMET, SPECI
- ATIS
VOLMET (inflight report)
page 268
736
what are METARS ?
a snapshot of conditions at the time, compiled every 30 min
they include =
- w/v
- vis
- precipitation
- cloud
- temperature
- dew point
- pressure (QNH)
page 268
737
describe the following METAR
page 268
738
what does Trend mean in a meteorological report ?
is a forecast of any significant weather changes expected in the next 2 hours after the time of report
also known as Landing Forecast
page 269
739
what is a SIGMET ?
report that advises of significant weather conditions
page 269
740
what is a SPECI ?
report issued whenever a critical meteorological conditions exist
page 269
741
what inflight weather report can you access ?
- flight info services or ATC
- VOLMET
- ATIS
page 269
742
what is an ATIS ?
Automatic Terminal Information Service pre recorder to reduce workload on ATC
page 269
743
what is a VOLMET ?
is a continuous broadcast on a VHF/HF frequency that includes:
- actual weather report
- landing forecast (trend)
- a SIGMET (if any)
page 270
744
what is a meteorologic forecast ?
it's prediction
page 270
745
what are the common types of aviation forecast ?
- Area Forecast
- TAF and Trend
- Special Forecast
page 270
746
what is a TAF ?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
usually issued for 9 hours period and updated every 3 hours
page 270
747
decode the following TAF ?
page 271
748
what is a special forecast, and when is it requested ?
meteo forecast for flights over long routes outside the coverage of the local countries' area forecast
page 271
749
what is the definition of BECMG is a forecast ?
it indicates a permanent change in the forecast which will start to happen during the specified period
page 271
750
what is the definition of Tempo in a forecast ?
temporary variation in the general forecasted weather lasting less then 1 hour
page 271
751
what is the definition of INTER in a forecast ?
temporary variation in the general forecasted weather lasting up to 30 min
page 272
752
what is the definition of GRADU is a forecast ?
gradual change to a different weather
page 272
753
what is the definition of RAPID in a forecast ?
rapid change less then 30 min
page 272
754
what is the definition of PROB ?
probability of weather change
page 272
755
what is the definition of CAVOK ?
- vis equal or greater then 10km
- no clouds below 5000ft or below the highest MSA, and no CB at any altitude
- no precipitations
"CAVOK does not mean clear blue sky"
page 272
756
what are NOTAMS, and how are they distributed ?
they contain informations about :
- facilities
- service
- procedures
- hazards
page 273
757
when must you file a flight plane ?
- IFR
- SVFR
- VFR in CTR
page 273
758
what is ETOPS ?
Extended Twin Operations
it's an approval to fly more than 60 min away from alternate considering the event of one engine failure
ETOPS to cross Pacific Ocean is 180min
page 274
759
what is an adequate/suitable aerodrome, especially in regards to ETOPS diversion/alternate aerodrome ?
page 274
760
what are the various ETOPS category ?
from 60 to 180 min
page 274
761
what is OCH/A ?
Obstacles Clearance Height above aerodrome level
page 274
762
what is the minimum height/altitude rule ?
IFR = 1000ft above the highest terrain within 5 nm
ICAO increased it to 2000ft
page 275
763
what lightning designations are on air navigation obstacles ?
obstacles greater than 150m = high intensity flashing white light, day and night
obstacles less than 150m but higher than 100m = medium intensity flashing red light by night
page 275
764
what is MSA ?
Minimum Sector Altitude which provides 1000ft vertical distance within 25nm
page 275
765
what is MEA ?
Minimum EnRoute Altitude, is the safe altitude within the airway (5nm each side from centreline)
page 276
766
what are the IFR flight levels ?
0º to 179º is odd
181º to 359º is even
up to FL290 is 1000ft difference the it becomes 2000ft
RVSM start from FL290 and keep the 1000ft
page 276
767
what pressure settings are Flight Levels based on ?
1013
page 277
768
why are flight level intervals increased to 2000ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace ?
because of increased altimeter error due to the even lower air density
page 277
769
what is the lowest usable FL ?
it has to be at least 500ft over the absolute minimum altitude
page 277
770
what are the two quantities known as weather minima ?
- DA or MDA
- RVR
page 277
771
what is DA or MDA ?
```
DA = the wheel hight at which a go around must be initiated if decided not to land
MDA = minimum descent altitude
```
page 277
772
how is a DH or MDA calculated for a precision approach ?
- take the higher OCH
- add 50ft if not suffering from PEC
page 278
773
how is an MDA calculated for a precision approach ?
take in account OCH
page 278
774
what is RVR ?
Runway Visual Range, is an highly accurate instrument derived visibility measurement that represents the range at which the runway high intensity lights can be seen in the direction of landing along the runway
RVR are measured at three points along the runway:
- touchdown point
- midpoint
- endpoint
page 278
775
how is RVR reported ?
- touchdown zone
- midpoint
- stop end
whenever it is detected to be less then 1500m
midpoint and stop end are only mention if they are either less then:
- touchdown point, or
- 800m, or
- 400m
page 279
776
give the definitions of radar control, advisory and information centre
```
control = all type of radar whenever is available
advisory = traffic info, advisory avoidance
information = traffic info only
```
page 279
777
what is radar vectoring ?
when radar control passes to an aircraft an heading to steer
page 180
778
what is the standard circuit direction ?
left
page 280
779
what does HST mean on a airfield runway chart ?
high speed turn off a runway
page 280
780
what is rate 1,2,3 turn ?
rate 1 = 180º per min
rate 2 = 360º per min
rate 3 = 540º per min
page 280
781
what is the altitude effect on wind direction and speed ?
slows down getting closer to the ground and back in NH
page 281
782
what is the night effect on wind direction and speed ?
decreases more in speed and backs more in NH
page 281
783
what does it mean if you have a port wind in the NH ?
that you are flying towards a low pressure system
page 281
784
why is the correct rotation rate important especially on large jet ?
ensures the aircraft leaves the ground at the correct distance
page 281
785
what causes the noise from jet aircraft ?
shear effect of the air
page 281
786
describe a typical noise abatement technique
- flex take off thrust
- off the ground asap
page 282
787
why on a short sector would you climb to FL330 ?
better SFC
page 282
788
what is the glide distance for an aircraft at 30000ft?
page 282
789
why does an aircraft descent quicker when is lighter ?
because an aircraft is restricted to a maximum speed during a descent, therefore a heavy aircraft will have to maintain a lower RoD to don't overspeed
page 283
790
what visual clue should you look for at landing ?
3º glide patch, PAPI, VASI
page 283
791
how do you calculate HW,TW and XW ?
chart page 284
792
how to you fly a crosswind approach and landing, yaw or wing down ?
follow company policy
page 284
793
which is the most difficult landing a left or right XW ?
left in NH
right in SH
page 284
794
how do you correct for a high sink rate on approach ?
increase thrust
page 285
795
what are the wind gust correction applied to the approach speed ?
ex. Vref 120kt, HW 20ktG28kt
120 + 10 (1/2 stable wind) + 8(gust value)=138kt
at the MCC course was:
120 + 5 + 14(1/2 gust factor) = 139
page 286
796
why is it important not to lose speed on the approach ?
to don't lose lift, especially when getting closer to the ground
page 286
797
what is ground effect and how is it caused?
is the cushioning of the aircraft over the air between it and the ground during flare
page 286
798
how does ground effect affect landing distance ?
increases landing distance
page 287
799
what is the most efficient for stopping at high speed ?
reverse thrust
page 287
800
why should you not use reverse thrust at low speed ?
to don't get contaminations into the engine and make the engine breath its own exhaust gas
page 287
801
can you use reverse thrust in flight ?
No
page 288
802
what selection will give you TOGA ?
depends on aircraft type
B737 pressing the TOGA switches on the thrust levers
page 288
803
what is a typical engine fire drill ?
page 288
804
what are the ICAO aircraft category weight definitions ?
H 136000kg
M 7000kg 136000kg
L below 7000kg
page 288
805
what are the ICAO final approach separation minima ?
```
H-H 4nm
H-M 5nm
H-L 6nm
M-H 3nm
M-M 3nm
M-L 5nm
L-H 3nm
L-M 3nm
L-L 3nm
```
page 289
806
how do you avoid wake turbulence ?
- separation minima
- alteration to the flight path
- knowing how the wake turbulence move
page 290
807
what are SIDs ?
Standard Instrument Departures
page 291
808
what are STARs ?
Standard Instrument Arrivals
page 292
809
what is an holding procedures ?
awaiting procedure
page 292
810
what is the standard holding pattern direction ?
right head
page 292
811
what are the 3 entry procedure into a holding patter ?
sector 1 entry (110º)= parallel entry
sector 2 entry (70º)= tear drop (30º off inbound radial)
sector 3 entry (180º= direct entry
page 293
812
what rate of turn should you use in an holding patter ?
rate 1
page 296
813
how do you time a holding pattern ?
up to 14000ft = 1 minute outbound
| above 14000ft = 1 1/2 minute outbound
814
what doe it mean to be cleared for the approach ?
that you are cleared for the complete approach
| you are not cleared for landing
page 296
815
when can you descent during a NDB approach ?
- when at the define procedure descent point
- maintain +-5º
page 297
816
how is MAP defined on a NDB approach ?
it's a fix to where you have to fly to before you can start a miss approach
page 297
817
on an ILS approach when can you descent on the glide path ?
- when cleared
- when established
page 297
818
what are the visual and aural indications of ILS marker beacons ?
outer marker = blue = O (morse code)
middle marker = amber = C instead of M cause too similar to O (morse code)
inner marker = white = I (morse code)
page 297
819
how can you calculate the distance from the threshold at which you would intercept the glide path ?
height x 3º + 10% = distance
page 298
820
how do you calculate glide slope is an approach is only given as a gradient ?
GSº = gradient% x 0.57
page 298
821
how can you calculate the approximate rate of descent for a 3º glide slope ?
ground speed x 5 = RoD
page 298
822
what are the CAT I, II,III ILS ICAO approach limits ?
```
CAT I = DH not less then 200ft
CAT II = DH 200ft not lower than 100ft
CAT IIIa = DH 100ft not lower than 50ft
CAT IIIb = DH less then 50 ft
CAT IIIc = DH 0ft
```
page 298
823
what are the CAT I, II,III ILS ICAO RVR approach limits ?
CAT I = at least 550m touch down or vis 800m
CAT II = at least 300m touch down, 150m midpoint
CAT IIIa = at least 200m touch down, 150m midpoint
CAT IIIb = at least 50m touch down
CAT IIIc = at least 50 m touch down, 0m midpoint
page 298
824
describe the requirements for a CAT II and III approach ?
- pilots have to be endorsed
- equipment is certified
- weather minima
page 299
825
what do you know about CAT II and III procedures ?
they are low visibility procedures
page 299
826
what is the final approach fix FAF ?
denotes the start of the final approach segment
page 300
827
what is alert height ?
is a specific radio height where if a failure occurs during CAT II and III approach , the fail operational system will carry a go around
page 300
828
what is MABH ?
minimum approach break off height, is the lowest height of the wheels above the ground where if a go around was initiated wheels will not touch the ground
page 300
829
describe the SRA non precision approach ?
a radar controller can provide tracking guidance and height information down to final approach
radar knows lateral position not vertical position
page 301
830
what are the minima for SRA procedures ?
SRA 1/2 NM = 250FT MDH
SRA 1 NM = 300FT MDH
SRA 2 NM = 350FT MDH
page 301
831
describe a PAR approach system
similar to SRA but also with vertical guidance
page 301
832
what is the minimum for a PAR procedure ?
200 MDH
page 302
833
what is a DME arc procedure ?
a procedure following a DME arc distance
page 302
834
what is a procedure turn and when is it used ?
45º/180º
80º/260º
page 302
835
what is a tear drop and when is it used ?
180º turn to intercept opposite radial
page 303
836
can you extend the outbound leg of an holding pattern as a base tunr ?
Yes
page 303
837
what are the emergency radio frequencies ?
121.50 and 243.00 VHF
page 304
838
what are the ICAO transponder codes ?
```
0000 = mode C malfunction
7700 = emergency
7600 = radio failure
7500 = hijacking
7000 = VFR
2000 = IFR
0033 = parachuting
```
page 305
839
what informations must be included in a IFR position report ?
- a/c identification
- position and time
- level
- next position
page 305
840
what is a MayDay call and when is it used ?
immediate danger
page 305
841
what is a Pan Pan call and when is it used ?
urgency
page 305
842
what is the procedure for a two way comm failure ?
- continue your flight in accordance to flight plan or last assigned ATC lever
- plan to arrived at estimated ETA
- commence your descent within 10 min
page 306
843
when fling over or even landing at a foreign state whose air law do you abide to ?
the country i am landing on
page 306
844
who's ultimate responsibility is to avoid any type of traffic collision ?
the PIC
page 307
845
what does a constant relative bearing of another aircraft at the same altitude mean ?
collison risk
page 307
846
with two aircraft converging in the air which one must give way and how ?
the one that has the other one on its right by turning both to the right
page 307
847
what actions should be taken if two planes are approaching head on ?
both turn right
page 307
848
how would you overtake another aircraft ?
by keeping right of it
page 308
849
who has right of way over the overtaking manoeuvre ?
the overtaken plane
page 308
850
who has right of way on the ground ?
same as sky
planes taking off and landing have right of way
page 308
851
what is the order of priority for all vehicles landing ?
- a/c landing
- a/c taking off
- vehicles towing a/c
- a/c taxing
page 308
852
who has the right of way between a landing aircraft and an aircraft on the ground ?
the landing aircraft
page 309
853
describe the aircraft navigation's and anti collision light
- right = green 110º
- left = red 110º
- a steady white nav tail light 140º
- white strobe lights position on both wing tips
- red beacon light on tail
page 309
854
when should the anti collision and navigation lights be switch on ?
anti collision light = whenever and engine is running by day or night
nav lights = at night
page 310
855
what actions should be taken for filed navigation and anti collision light ?
at night:
- on the ground = aircraft cannot dispatch
- in flight = land asap unless advised different by ATC
at day:
both on the ground or in flight keep flying
page 310
856
describe the aeronautical light beacons at airfields ?
identification beacon = for identification and bearing
- flashes a two letter morse
- green
aerodrome beacon
- flashes an alternating signalas homing indication
- white
page 310
857
describe a typical approach lighting arrangement for an ILS ?
page 311
858
describe a typical runway lighting arrangements ?
runway centre lights = white
runway edge lights = white
touch down zone = white during the first 900m
threshold = green
runway centre lights and runway edge lights change over the last 600m to red/white (caution zone) then over the last 300m they change to red
page 312
859
what do you need to see to continue at the MDH for a non precision approach ?
at least one of the following
page 312
860
what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CATI approach ?
same least as non precision approach
page 312
861
what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CAT II approach ?
less restrictive cause more precise then CAT I
- approach light centreline
- touch down zone light
- runway centre lights
- runway edge lights
page 313
862
what do you need to see to continue at DH for a CAT III approach ?
less restrictive than CAT II
- approach light centreline
- touch down zone light
- runway centre lights
page 313
863
what are VASI lights ?
Visual Approach Slope Indicator
can be 2 or 3 light bars on the side of the runway that give an indication of your position on the glide path
page 314
864
what are PAPI lights/
Precision Approach Path Indicator similar to VASI
page 314
865
what does alternate red and white edge centreline lights on a runway indicate ?
US 600m to the end of the runway
UK 900 to the end of the runway
page 315
866
what does red only edge centreline lights on a runway indicate ?
the last 300m of the runway
page 315
867
describe the two types of taxiway lighting system
- one line of green taxi centreline lights
- two lines of blue taxiway edge lights
page 315
868
what does two or more white crosses displayed on a runway or taxiway indicate ?
surface is unfit aerea is closed
page 315
869
describe the usual runway holding runway markings
on the runway side they are broken yellow right next to a straight yellow line on the side of the taxiway
page 315
870
describe the CAT II and III runway holding runway markings
are more further back then CAT I yet they have the same restrictions
page 315
871
should you report any hazardous flight conditions ?
yes, the PIC would do so
page 316
872
when must the pilots be at the aircraft's control ?
- one pilot at all times
- during take off and landing
- transition to 10000ft
- ToD
page 316
873
describe flight technique in moderate/severe wether/turbulent rought air
- do not take off and land in this area
- avoid these areas in flight
- ignition on
- autopilot on
- select rough air speed
- etc
page 317
874
how do you use weather radar informations ?
as a mean of circumnavigating
- below 30000ft avoid cells by 10/15nm
- above 30000ft avoid cells by 15/20nm
page 318
875
what effect does windshear have during an approach for landing ?
during an approach for landing:
- if HW increases (or TW decreases)performance increases, aircraft will Overshoot
- if HW decreases (or TW increases) performance decreases, aircraft will Undershoot
page 319
876
what indications should you loo for if windshear is expected ?
look for airspeed, temperature and lift trend
page 319
877
how would you fly an approach if you suspect windshear ?
- increase approach speed to compensate for loss of energy
page 319
878
what is the recovery technique for windshear ?
- power
- pitch
to regain flight path
879
you are flying an approach and you experience rain on the windscreen. what should you be cautious of, or what is the biggest hazard in heavy rain on final approach ?
microburst
page 320
880
how would you fly an approach if you suspect a microburst ?
you should not attempt the approach into an area where a microburst is reported or likely.
HOLD for 10/15 min !!!
page 320
881
what is aquaplaning ?
is the phenomenon of tyres skating (not rotating) over the runway surface over a thin film of water
page 321
882
what are the three types of aquaplaning ?
- dynamic = tyres are lift on top of water
- viscous = likely on touch down zone
- reverted rubber = the steam caused by the tyre temperature prevents the tyre from contacting the ground
page 321
883
how do you calculate the aquaplaning speed ?
9 x sq.root of tyre pressure in pound for TO
7.5 x sq.root of tyre pressure in pound for LDG
page 321
884
how do you control an aquaplane ?
antiskid system that releases brakes if it senses a skid
page 322
885
initially on a wet runway what is the most effective means of stopping ?
thrust reverse
page 322
886
what considerations should you take for taking off in icing conditions ?
- deice the plane
- engine antiice switch on
page 322
887
what are the two main types of anti icing fluids used for deicing on the ground ?
type I fluid = they provide limited protection
type II fluid = better hold over time
hold over time depends upon =
- type of snow
- wet or dry snow
- airframe temperature
- OAT
- amount of precipitation
page 323
888
describe the in flight precautions for icing conditions
- avoid icing conditions
- keep probe heating
- visually check for ice build up
- monitor air temp
page 324
889
in what conditions would you expect icing and when should you turn on the engine anti icing ?
on the ground = when OAT is +10º or lower with visible moister
in flight =
- during climb and cruise: TOT is between +10º and -40º with visible moisture
- during descent : TAT is below +10º with visible moisture
note: temperatures below -40º don't pose a threat because crystals don't have no liquid state that can stick to the plane
page 325
890
when would you expect carburator icing in a piston engine ?
carby icing = -10º to +30º with a high humidity or visible moisture in the air
throttle icing = +10º to +15º with a relative humidity greater than 40%
page 325
891
what actions should you take to prevent or remove carburator/throttle icing ?
carburator heat on
page 325
892
what are the hazards associated with flying in a region of volcanic ash ?
engine flame out, because the engine is getting starved of air
due to =
- ash built up on fan and compressor blades which upsets the airflow through the engine
- ash deprive the combustion chamber of the air required
page 326
893
what procedures would you adopt when flying in a region of volcanic ash ?
- 180º turn
- if in it select high bleed system on
- APU on if necessary to help the engine to restart
page 326
894
what is a visual whitening effect ?
a white surface can distort a person;s visual depth
page 331
895
what is hypoxia ?
the lack of oxygen or better the decreasing of oxygen pressure that can reach the lungs
page 327
896
what is hyperventilation ?
too much oxygen breathing
page 328
897
what is visual empty field myopia ?
when flying over water, sheet of cloud or at night your eyes focus to 1 m of distance ahead
page 332
898
what is visual black hole effect ?
when the runway is the darkness and gives the illusion of begin higher
page 332
899
what is the nighttime visual effect ?
empty field myopia at night
page 322
900
how long can you not flying after scuba diving ?
12 hrs with compressed air
24 hrs with compressed air below 30ft
page 322
901
what is risky shift ?
the tendency of a group to take risks
page 322
902
how long should you wait before flying after consuming alcohol ?
8 hrs
page 333
903
how to calculate the stall speed ?
Stall Speed = [2*Weight / (Clmax*1.225*WingArea)]
