Avionics Flashcards
1
Q
Describe the Modular Avionics Units (MAU’s).
A
They’re the main computers and processors that control most of the avionics related applications on the aircraft.
2
Q
Describe the function of the Touch Control Steering (TCS) button.
A
When pressed and held, it momentarily interrupts the autopilot.
3
Q
Which display units (DU’s) are referred to as Multifunction Displays (MFD’s)?
A
DU #2 and #3
4
Q
Which DU can be failed for dispatch?
A
DU #3
5
Q
What limitation is placed on use of the switches located on the DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL panel?
A
They’re for ground use only (i.e. for MEL dispatch ability)
6
Q
What’s the primary purpose of the SMC?
A
To display the Standby Flight Display (SFD)
7
Q
Name some occasions when the SFD is automatically displayed.
A
For loss of: P FD, U nusual attitudes, B reak power transfer, I nstrument comparison issues, S FD failures (either)
8
Q
Can you dispatch with failure of a cursor control device (CCD)?
A
Yes, you can dispatch with failure of one or both CCD’s.
9
Q
What part of the displays is the cursor restricted from entering?
A
ADIs; otherwise, it can move anywhere in a display window on its associated DU’s. It’s further restricted with SVS.
10
Q
What happens if both cursors are selected to the same DU?
A
The last cursor wins and the first cursor is removed from the display.
11
Q
What’s the purpose of the guidance panel (GP)?
A
It provides most of the controls for operation of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).
12
Q
An ATC cleared altitude should always be set into the GP preselect window by whom?
A
Pilot monitoring
13
Q
Name some functions of the MCDU.
A
Calculates lateral and vertical navigation guidance for display and coupling to the Flight Guidance System, develops composite position using multiple sensor inputs, calculates all performance information, and provides radio and SSPC interface. Remember four (4) major functions: navigation, performance, radio and SSPC interface.
14
Q
What does RAAS stand for?
A
Runway Awareness and Advisory System; runway advisories can be inhibited by depressing RAAS INHIBIT switch
15
Q
What’s the source of information to the DU’s?
A
Three (3) MAU’s, three (3) MCDU’s and other sensors
16
Q
How can a default value be restored on the MCDU during the performance initialization?
A
Generally by using the DELETE function on the appropriate line
17
Q
How are pilot entries generally displayed on the MCDU?
A
Large characters
18
Q
How are configuration mismatches indicated on the MCDU?
A
In inverse video (i.e. highlighted)
19
Q
Name some functions controlled and monitored from the UTIL menu of the SMC.
A
Tire pressure display, the semi-mode CPCS controller, a refuel controller which also continuously displays fuel quantity, engine oil display, and hydraulic fluid quantity display
20
Q
The line select adjacent to the CAS/MACH display on the PFD ADI menu toggles the airspeed tape between calibrated airspeed and mach number only when the aircraft is above what altitude?
A
25,000 feet. When LSK is pressed, the CAS/MACH display does not box. The only annunciation is the change of display units in the airspeed tape.
21
Q
What’s the primary symbol used to control the aircraft with the HUD?
A
Flight Path Vector (FPV): displayed as a green circle with one green line on top and one on each side of the circle. It represents where the mass of the airplane is going. Note: caged FPV is open on the bottom.
22
Q
What is a lateral discontinuity?
A
A lateral gap in the flight plan
23
Q
How do you know if a chart is geo-referenced?
A
A white or green aircraft icon appears in the right corner of the chart’s title bar which enables the aircraft’s actual position (displayed as a green airplane symbol) to be displayed
24
Q
While checking the SENSOR page of the SMC, what selection would you expect to see for FGC and AT?
A
During power up, the FGC and AT alternates between 1 and 2 every flight.
25
What does an amber MAG2 indicate on both PFD’s?
It alerts the crew that both pilots are using the same source for heading information: in this case, IRS #2.
26
What does an amber RA2 indicate on both PFD’s?
It alerts the crew that both pilots’ flight instruments are receiving radio altimeter data from the same source (i.e. on sensor page of SMC)
27
What’s it mean when ALT is boxed in cyan on the ENG ALT CTRL page of the SMC?
It indicates the engine is operating in the alternate control mode (i.e. engine computer controlling the speed of LP)
28
When are V speeds displayed with an asterisk on the FLT REF page of the SMC?
Once the FMS receives the necessary data for computation. When all FMS parameters for takeoff are met, the speeds displayed on the SMC automatically box, the asterisks are removed and the speeds are displayed on both PFD airspeed tapes.
29
How does the FMS compute VREF speed?
It’s based solely on flap handle position, current aircraft weight and altitude
30
What does it mean to preview a course?
The PREVIEW prompt on the SMC enables the crew to select a short range NAV source for display on the HSI even though FMS (long range navigation) is still the active nav source.
31
What do the top “T” and bottom inverted “T” represent on the combiner during the HUD test?
Upper and lower limit of data displayed on the HUD
32
What’s the normal display location of primary engine instruments and CAS?
When the 2/3 window format is selected for DU2 and DU3, primary engine instrument information is always displayed in the upper 1/6 window on DU2. CAS information is normally displayed in the upper 1/6 window on DU3.
33
What’s the restriction on selection of full windows on DU2 and DU3?
The full window cannot be selected on both DU2 and DU3 at the same time.
34
What’s the source of HUD symbols?
HUD computer
35
What’s the source of the EVS image?
The EVS camera, unlike the HUD, uses infrared technology and is optimized to detect runway lighting.
36
How should the cloth cover be removed from the combiner?
Rockwell Collins recommends removing the cloth cover after the combiner is moved to the operating position. In like fashion, they recommend reattaching the cloth cover before moving the combiner to the stow position.
37
How would you know that you haven’t placed the combiner in the correct operating position?
An “ALIGN HUD” message appears on the combiner display. If this occurs, carefully reposition the combiner glass and allow it to snap into the detents. Don’t use the HUD if the “ALIGN HUD” message continues to be displayed.
38
Why does the combiner have a breakaway position?
It’s a safety feature that allows the combiner glass to rotate toward the windscreen with head impact and lock in place during a sudden deceleration of the aircraft. This minimizes head injury.
39
What is NUC?
NUC stands for Non-Uniformity Correction. It’s a calibration process that results in a cleaner picture and occurs during camera power-up, flaps selected from 0° to 10°, or manual NUC selected.
40
How do you know when the EVS image is available for display?
After camera cool down, the system performs a NUC check, then FLIR flashes on the combiner and goes steady or EVS A, H, or L is displayed. If aircraft is cold or hot soaked, cool down may take up to 35 minutes.
41
HUD symbols are described as being either conformal or non-conformal. What’s the difference?
A conformal symbol has a real-world counterpart (e.g. the horizon line represents the horizon degree for degree).The altitude dial is considered non-conformal since it doesn’t represent anything in the real world.
42
What does the Aircraft Reference symbol (or Boresight symbol) represent on the HUD?
The projected centerline of the aircraft (boresight)
43
Why does the horizon line flash on the HUD at nose high and nose low attitudes?
To indicate that it’s no longer conformal
44
What’s the difference between the uncaged and caged modes on the HUD?
In the UNCAGED mode, the FPV is free to roam horizontally and vertically. In the CAGED mode, the FPV is free to move vertically; however, it’s locked in the horizontal center. This is necessary to keep the FPV from drifting off the lateral
limits of the combiner in high cross winds. In the CAGED mode, the FPV indicates the plane’s heading and the ghost FPV represents your track. In the UNCAGED mode, the boresight represents your heading and the FPV represents your track.
45
Describe the three (3) different levels of EVS camera gain.
AUTO, H for high, and L for low. Select AUTO if you want the camera to automatically adjust the gain, H for low visibility, and L for night VMC or day with smog. Indications of your selection appear on the upper left portion of the combiner: EVS A for AUTO, EVS H for high, or EVS L for low.
46
Describe operation of the EVS WSHLD HT switch.
When selected, the switchlight indicates blue ON and two minutes of continuous heating is provided to the EVS windshield. Otherwise, operation is automatic if the aircraft is airborne and cowl anti-ice is ON.
47
How is heat depicted on the EVS image?
Hotter items from the IR camera are depicted on the FLIR synoptic video page as lighter while items with less heat are depicted as darker
48
Describe some factors that affect EVS performance.
Thick clouds, thermal crossover, blooming, and misalignment
49
How can you increase your chances of seeing approach and runway lights with EVS in low visibility?
Make sure the lights are set to full bright prior to commencing the approach and select high gain
50
What are the requirements for descending below DA with EVS?
You need EVS lights to descend below DA and you need visual cues without the aid of EVS at 100 ft above TDZE in order to continue and land.
51
Flight director or autopilot with vertical guidance, either ILS or FMS vertical path, is required for all IMC EVS approaches. How do you determine if an obstacle-free path is present?
An obstacle-free path is present if runway is served by an approach to a Decision Altitude (DA).
52
At what altitude does the airport symbol normally appear on the HUD?
2000’ above airport
53
When does the runway symbol replace the airport symbol?
At 350 ft RA, the runway symbol joins the airport symbol and at 325 ft RA, the airport symbol disappears. The runway symbol is removed from the display at 60ft RA.
54
When does the flare cue appear?
Flare cues appear at 100 ft and move upward as the aircraft approaches the ground and provides flare guidance.
55
What is provided on the HUD unusual attitude display to prevent you from over stressing the aircraft during the recovery?
G-load digital readout
56
What is RNP?
Required nav performance is the accuracy in NM required for navigation in the area the aircraft is flying and affects CDI sensitivity (i.e. lower RNP equates to greater CDI sensitivity).
57
What is EPU?
Estimated position uncertainty is the calculated estimate of accuracy of navigation equipment aboard the aircraft. If EPU exceeds RNP, the numbers are highlighted by a cautionary amber overlay and the CDI needle turns amber.
58
What does the magenta dashed line extending from the nose of the aircraft to the compass arc represent on the map display?
Actual track from the IRS
59
The alerting function is performed by the monitor warning function (MWF) installed within the MAU. How is this labeled on the SMC?
FWC for Fault Warning Computer
60
How are CAS messages arranged?
Chronologically: most recent at the top
61
What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display?
Blue and amber messages can be scrolled: red cannot
62
Describe what happens when a red or amber message becomes active.
The message is displayed in inverse video (or highlighted) on the CAS display, an aural alert is sounded (i.e. three chimes for red or two for amber), and the respective annunciator on the master warning panel is illuminated (i.e. red W for red or amber C for amber). When the annunciator/button is pushed on the master warning panel, the annunciator extinguishes, the tone is silenced, and the message is displayed normally on the CAS display. If there are red messages already on the CAS display when a new red message becomes active, the new message is put at the top of the red message stack. If there are amber messages already on the CAS display when a new amber message becomes active, the new message is put at the top of the amber message stack.
63
Describe what happens when a blue message becomes active.
The blue message flashes for five (5) seconds on the CAS display and then displays normally, and the blue message aural alert is sounded (one chime). No pilot action is required to acknowledge blue messages: you get one (1) chime only. If there are blue messages already on the CAS display when a new blue message becomes active, the new message is displayed at the top of the blue message stack.
64
What’s the difference between the meaning of a red and amber CAS message?
Red relates to injury or loss of life; amber relates to damage to or loss of equipment.
65
What color CAS message means DO NOT DISPATCH?
Amber
66
Depressing the GPWS ORIDE switch on either Master Warning panel inhibits all GPWS aural warnings and cautions except for what?
Windshear
67
In what kind of situation would you depress the GPWS ORIDE switch?
Used to inhibit GPWS alerts while flying a day VFR approach in areas of high terrain
68
What callouts are inhibited with selection of the RAD ALT switch?
GPWS Mode 6 advisory callouts of altitudes during approach and landing except for “minimums” and “bank angle”
69
If you were intentionally flying below the ILS glide slope, how could you inhibit below glide slope callouts?
Depress the amber BELOW GS / cyan GS INHIBIT switch on Master Warning panel
70
When the INHIBIT switch is depressed, which aural tones are inhibited?
Aural tones for most amber and blue CAS messages
71
When is INHIBIT automatically deselected?
On takeoff or go-around at 400 feet AGL if the landing gear is retracted. After landing, it remains selected until shutdown unless manually cancelled.
72
When would the pilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU#2?
Failure of DU #1 (or its respective AGM)
73
When would the copilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #3?
Failure of DU #4 (or its respective AGM)
74
Describe AGM assignments.
AGM #1 controls the data and graphics displays for DU #1.
AGM #2 controls the data and graphics displays for DU #2.
AGM #3 controls the data and graphics displays for DU #3.
AGM #4 controls the data and graphics displays for DU #4.
75
What would a big red X indicate on a DU?
Loss of data (i.e. failure of associated AGM)
76
What would be indicated if a DU had a black display?
DU has failed or is unpowered
77
What’s the purpose of the DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL switches?
Intended to allow the aircraft to dispatch with a single AGM failed
78
With the airplane on the ground, if AGM 1, 2 or 4 fails, selecting the corresponding DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL switch to the ALT position causes what to occur?
DU 3 will “Red X” and the DU associated with the failed AGM receives graphics through AGM primary, secondary, and tertiary bus architecture from one of the remaining AGM’s.
79
What happens if a DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL switch is selected to OFF on the ground?
Power is removed from the DU and the display turns black.
80
What happens if a DISPLAY SYSTEM CONTROL switch is selected to OFF during flight?
Nothing
81
Which of the displays are considered most important?
In terms of hierarchy, PFD’s are considered most important followed by the engine instrument display and CAS.
82
If DU1 fails and is subsequently regained by performing the Display Unit (DU) Failure procedure in the QRH, the PFD comes back on DU1 and also remains displayed on DU2. How can you unlatch the display and regain your MAP or synoptic?
In flight, you’ll need to hold the SMC “2/3” selection switch capsule in the depressed position for three (3) seconds
83
With DU #2 and #3 failed, how would you replace one PFD with a synoptic page?
You’d have to first unlatch the DU’s by pressing and holding the 2/3 button on the SMC for three seconds: then select the MAP button on the side you want the synoptic page followed by selection of a synoptic.
84
What happens when the pilot engages the autopilot with the AP switch on the Guidance Panel?
One channel of the autopilot is connected to autopilot system servos that move the control wheel and column in much the same way as the pilot.
85
What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement?
Three (3) tone chime (low – high – low)
86
The autopilot is fail operational or fail passive. What does that mean?
If one fails, it automatically switches to the other
87
What happens when the PFD CMD button is pressed to change which PFD is coupled to the FGC?
All lateral and vertical modes are cancelled except for PIT and ROL, and will have to be re-engaged as desired by the flight crew. Though all lateral and vertical modes are cancelled, the autopilot will not disengage.
88
When engaged on an ILS approach and below 1200 feet RA, both green triangles are illuminated on the PFD CMD switch. What does this mean?
Both navigation receivers’ data is being averaged by the FGC.
89
Describe the methodology behind flight mode annunciations on the PFD.
In all cases, a green mode annunciation (right side of mode window) indicates the particular mode is engaged, while a white mode annunciation (left side of mode window) indicates the particular mode is armed only. Whenever a mode transitions from armed to engaged, that mode is surrounded by a green box for five (5) seconds to alert the crew that a mode has been engaged.
90
What must the source of navigation be when selecting VNAV?
Since all VNAV vertical modes are based on FMS altitude and/or constraints, FMS must be the selected NAV source.
91
What is FLCH mode?
In all cases FLCH modes are speed hold modes (IAS or MACH), meaning the aircraft changes pitch as required to maintain whatever speed is being displayed in the GP’s speed window.
92
How does the climb or descent rate vary with FLCH?
It varies depending on whether the altitude change is less than or greater than 6,000 feet (i.e. less than 6,000 feet uses a throttle setting proportional to the amount of climb or descent, and greater than 6,000 feet uses full power or idle).
93
What’s the recommended technique when given a heading?
Sync the heading knob, select heading mode, and then spin the heading knob
94
What’s the purpose of LOW BANK switch?
Used to toggle between HIGH bank angle and LOW bank angle while the engaged lateral mode is Heading Select
95
When VGP is the engaged vertical mode, what’s the effect of any altitude set in the GP’s altitude preselect window?
It’ll be ignored by the AFCS just as in the case of an ILS approach
96
What happens when the altitude hold button is pressed?
If ALT not active, the vertical mode is immediately changed to ALT, the green cue light illuminates and the altitude that existed at the instant the button was pressed will be held. If ALT is active, ALT hold is deselected and the aircraft goes into PIT hold mode.
97
When is the retard mode activated?
Radio altitude less than 50 feet and gear down
98
What’s the indication of normal AT disengagement?
AT1 or AT2 flashes amber for five (5) seconds along with an aural tone (e.g. lo-lo-lo)
99
What does the thrust director represent?
The difference between the EPR command bug and EPR target bug
100
True/False: The GPS is capable of receiving SBAS or WAAS signals which enables the G650 to execute Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance (LPV) approaches.
True
101
What are the long range sensors on the G650?
Two (2) GPS’s and three (3) IRU’s. Hybrid IRS’s are primary source of navigation input to MCDU’s: they receive GPS input which greatly improves accuracy and reduces drift rate. If both GPS’s fail or the entire GPS network goes down, the FMS or MCDU uses a performance based sensor selection scheme that looks at the EPU of each sensor to select the best performing sensor.
102
What are the primary short-range sensors on the G650?
VOR/DME and DME/DME
103
Where is the navigation sensor currently selected for use displayed on the MCDU?
PROGRESS page 1
104
What should be considered during the preflight and prior to commencing an RNP approach?
The minimum equipment list specifies the minimum equipment required for conducting approaches with specific RNP’s.
105
What does the “U” indicate on position sensor page of FMS?
It indicates the sensor is being used for navigation
106
What kind of information do IRU’s provide?
Using positional changes detected on each axis, a microprocessor within the IRU calculates position, velocity, heading and attitude data for the aircraft.
107
Following shutdown, what indications would you have if you forgot to select the IRU’s to OFF?
Respective amber ON BAT lights illuminate on the IRS Mode Select panel as well as an ON BATT light in the Security / Ground Service panel.
108
What would an amber HDG or ATT comparator warning indicate on your PFD?
A heading or attitude different from the other pilot’s
109
What would red HDG FAIL and red ATT FAIL annunciations indicate on the PFD?
IRS failure
110
What’s the default heading and attitude reference for each SFD?
Attitude / Heading Reference System (AHRS) unit and magnetometer: attitude from AHRS and heading from magnetometer
111
True/False: If the aircraft is in-air and the onside selected heading source becomes invalid, the SMC automatically switches to the next valid source.
True
112
How can you select another heading reference for the SFD?
By pressing the M on BRT knob and selecting either HDG 1, 2, or 3 (IRS 1, 2 or 3 selection for heading source). Default is Standby but you can select IRS 1, 2 or 3.
113
Describe the purpose of the Air Data System (ADS).
It measures the pressure and temperature of the outside air and supplies this data to using systems. Processed air data provided by the ADC’s include things like pressure altitude, calibrated airspeed, vertical speed, true airspeed, mach number, AOA, and side slip.
114
Why are the TAT probes aspirated by bleed air on the ground?
To improve the accuracy of temperature readings
115
Which Audio Control Panels (ACP’s) work down to emergency batteries?
All: pilot’s, copilot’s and flight observer’s
116
What do the letters “A”, “R”, “M” or “V” represent next to a nav frequency on the MCDU.
"A” stands for automatic while “R” indicates the frequency has been remotely tuned. “M” indicates the frequency can only be tuned on MCDU RADIO page (i.e. FMS TUNE selected OFF on sub-level page). A “V” indicates that automatic tuning is suspended or inhibited because you’re now using that navaid.
117
What’s the normal operating mode for HF radios?
Simplex mode (SIMPL) and Upper sideband voice (UV)
118
What’s the difference between a downlink and uplink message?
Messages from aircraft to the ground are referred to as downlink messages (indicated by down arrow) and messages from the ground to aircraft are referred to as uplink messages (indicated by up arrow). Downlink messages are blue and uplink messages are green.
119
What’s the difference between the terms “ATC Comm” and “AOC?”
Honeywell uses the term ATC Comm to describe datalink communications with ATC, and uses the term Aeronautical Operational Communications (AOC) to refer to everything else. Think of AOC as All Other Communication.
120
What’s the Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) function?
It permits an ATC center to request the aircraft to automatically transmit (using a data link connection) aircraft data derived from on-board navigation systems (FMS). An LOA is required.
121
What is CPDLC?
Controller Pilot Datalink Communications (CPDLC / ATC Comm) is an Air Traffic Services application that permits pilots and air traffic controllers to exchange messages using a data link connection. An LOA is required.
122
Describe some features of the G650’s weather radar.
It controls the antenna scan, collects weather and terrain info, and stores it in a three-dimensional (3-D) volumetric memory that is continuously updated and compensated for aircraft movement. Some operational modes include ground mapping, turbulence detection and a predictive windshear feature.
123
What is primary and secondary weather and how is it depicted?
Primary weather is defined as the weather along your flight path or flight plan altitude: it’s depicted in solid colors.
Secondary weather is the weather outside of your flight path or flight plan altitude: it’s depicted with cross hatching.
124
What’s the best policy regarding thunderstorms?
Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo.
125
What color is turbulence displayed on the weather radar?
Magenta
126
What happens when GND ORIDE is selected?
This mode overrides forced standby and allows operation of the radar on the ground: it’s deselected when you get airborne.
127
True/False: If WX is selected and there’s a terrain threat, the EGPWS displays threats on the map and on the PFD, regardless of the previous display selection.
True
128
How is predicted windshear displayed?
By a series of red and black bands in the area of the windshear event followed by searchlights (amber lines outside of black lines) extending from the far edge of the windshear event on each side and to the edge of the WX data buffer
129
What does the EGPWS use to predict potential conflicts between the aircraft flight path and terrain?
An internal worldwide terrain database along with geographic position information
130
Where can terrain be displayed?
On the PFD and/or MAP (including VSD)
131
What are the two VSD terrain display modes?
Terrain under Flight Plan and Terrain under Track. When the VSD mode is Terrain under Track, green TRACK is displayed below the horizontal axis of the display. When the mode is Terrain under Flight Plan, the mode annunciation is removed.
132
What’s the relative elevation of terrain depicted in red or yellow?
At or above the aircraft’s altitude.
133
The caution look ahead distance is computed from aircraft ground speed and turn rate to provide an advanced warning and adequate time for crew response. Depending on the situation, this distance roughly corresponds to how many seconds of advance warning.
40 to 60
134
What’s the difference between amber and red WINDSHEAR warnings?
Amber WINDSHEAR is for proverse (increasing performance) windshear. Red WINDSHEAR is for adverse (decreasing performance) windshear condition.
135
What’s the difference between amber and red TERRAIN warnings?
Amber TERRAIN indicates that terrain ahead may be higher than airplane altitude. Red TERRAIN indicates that terrain ahead is higher than airplane altitude.
136
What is the Windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver?
1. Disconnect autopilot / autothrottle and apply power to mechanical forward limit.
2. Rotate at 3 to 4° per second to increase pitch attitude to highest possible value, not to exceed 30°, while simultaneously retracting speed brakes, if deployed.
3. When PLI appears on PFD, maintain pitch attitude / flight path angle slightly below the PLI.
4. If shaker is encountered, reduce pitch rate / angle-of-attack to maintain V2/VREF ±10 knots.
5. DO NOT retract flaps or landing gear until safe climbout is assured.
137
When would you select the TERRAIN INHIBIT switch to ON?
When airport has no published instrument approach procedure,
longest runway is <3500 feet,
airport is not in terrain database, or
during QFE operations without geometric altitude (i.e. GPS altitude).
138
When would you select GPWS/ GND SPLR FLAP ORIDE switch to ON?
In accordance with checklist: to ensure automatic ground spoiler deployment will occur with wheel spin up if flaps are less than 22° and all other parameters are satisfied. Also to inhibit GPWS voice alarm, “TOO LOW, FLAPS.”
139
Where can traffic be displayed?
Three places: HSI, MAP, and TCAS synoptic page
140
What’s the normal TCAS vertical display range?
Auto range is ±2700’, +9900’/-2700’ for climbing, & +2700’/-9900’ for descending
141
What indications do you get on the PFD at decision height?
An amber DH annunciator is displayed in the raster cutout: it flashes for five (5) seconds and then remains steady.
142
How is the altitude preselect window on the GP depicted on the VSD?
As a green dashed line across the display and a digital readout in the upper left corner of the display
143
What type of approaches can be flown in blue data?
Any approach in the FMS data base, except localizer based approaches (e.g. ILS, back course, LDA & SDF).
