AW189 Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
What is the main rotor diameter with the blades turning?
A
47.9 ft
2
Q
What is the maximum length of the aircraft?
A
57.8 ft
3
Q
Where is station zero?
A
11 inches forward of the first bulkhead in the nose avionics bay
4
Q
Where is the water line?
A
32.7 inches below the fuselage
5
Q
What is the maximum taxi speed on prepared surfaces?
A
40 kts
6
Q
What is the maximum taxi speed on prepared grass surfaces?
A
20 kts
7
Q
What is the maximum ground speed for wheel brake application?
A
60 kts
8
Q
What is the maximum gross weight for takeoff or towing?
A
18,959 lbs. (8600kg)
9
Q
What is the maximum gross weight for taxi?
A
19,069 lbs. (8650kg)
10
Q
How long should you wait after shutdown before installing engine covers?
A
30 minutes
11
Q
How long should you wait before installing pitot covers?
A
5 minutes
12
Q
When should you tie down the main rotor blades and install the tail rotor gust lock?
A
Winds exceeding 20 kts or gusts greater than 15 kts
13
Q
What is the maximum airspeed with torque above 100%?
A
90 kts
14
Q
What is Vle and Vlo?
A
150 kts or Vne if less
15
Q
What is the maximum speed with one autopilot failed?
A
110 kts
16
Q
What is the maximum speed for operation of the windshield wipers?
A
140 kts
17
Q
What is the maximum speed for an IFR approach?
A
150 kts
18
Q
What are the limits for opening and closing the cabin doors?
A
50 kts maximum airspeed
20 kts max lateral windspeed
50 kts max wind/ground/airspeed with one or both doors locked open
19
Q
What is the maximum wind speed for starting and stopping the rotor?
A
50 kts
20
Q
What are the slope limits?
A
10 degrees in any direction
21
Q
What type of engines are installed in the 189?
A
GE CT7-2E1
22
Q
What are the torque limits?
A
max continuous 100%
30 min 116%
5 min engine 116%
5 sec transient 123%
23
Q
What are the engine starter limits?
A
45 seconds on, 1 minute off
45 seconds on, 1 minute off
45 seconds on, 30 minutes off
24
Q
What are the APU starter limits?
A
20 second delay between each attempted start
20 minute delay after 3 aborted starts
After 6 aborted starts, a 40 minute cool down is required, and maintenance should be called for APU troubleshooting.
Find reference for second statement???
25
What are the AFCS limitations?
Intentional de-clutching in flight is prohibited
AFCS upper modes must be disengaged after one AP has failed, except during a coupled ILS approach
26
What is the profile for a Category A clear area landing?
200 feet AGL
decent rate 500 fpm max
LDP 50’ 50kts
Descent rate 400 fpm max
Rolling touchdown
Max 15 degrees nose up & 40 kts KIAS
27
What is the offshore elevated helideck landing procedure?
200-300 fpm rate of descent and decelerate slowly toward the LDP
LDP 50’ ALS 10-15 kts GS
45 degrees from the center of the helideck
28
What is the Category A Vertical Landing Procedure?
150 ft ALS
10 kts GS
ROD 100 fpm or less
LDP is 110’ ALS
3 kts GS or less
Continue to descent vertically to HIGE
Maintaining less than 3 kts GS
29
What are the reasons to abort an engine start?
- light up not within 18 seconds of initial NG indication
- ITT increases beyond engine limits (HOT START caution illuminated) or start terminated by engine control at 963C
- engine hangs (stagnation in NG below idle value)
- no indication of oil pressure within 30 seconds of ENG MODE to IDLE/FLT
- the main rotor has not begun to rotate when NG reaches 40%
- the starter fails to disengage by 52% (+/-2%)
30
What is the dry motoring procedure?
ENG MODE switch -OFF
Fuel XFEED -CLSD
FUEL PUMP -OFF
FUEL ENG SOV -CLSD (confirm fuel valve closed on engine synoptic page)
ENG MODE switch -Select ENG MODE to CRANK and hold for not more than 45 sec, starter duty cycle must be respected)
ENG NG -note increasing
ENG MODE switch -release to OFF as necessary
31
What is the Category A Vertical Take-Off Procedure?
Establish a 7’ hover with no tailwind component
Increase PI to climb slowly to TDP (110’ALS) maintaining hover position
Note pitch attitude
Rotate nose slowly down for an attitude change of 5 degrees maintaining collective position
Maintain attitude to accelerate to VTOSS (50 KIAS)
From VTOSS continue climb and accelerate to Vy
Adjust attitude to maintain Vy
32
What is VTOSS?
Takeoff Safety Speed
```
Below 8300kg (18,298lbs)
50 kts KIAS -50% of the headwind component
```
Above 8300kg (18,298lbs)
55 kts KIAS -50% of the headwind component
33
What is the Category A clear area takeoff procedure?
- Establish 7ft hover and note PI target and pitch attitude
- Land- centralize cyclic and MPOG
- Increases collective to 50% PI (+/-5%) and cyclic forward to allow smooth acceleration
- At 25kts GS apply collective to PI target in 3 seconds
- After liftoff rotate nose down for an attitude change of 5 degrees nose down from hover value
- TDP- at 30 ft AGL continue acceleration. Verify VTOSS already achieved
- At Vy adjust attitude to stabilize speed
- Gear up above 200
- Adjust collective to climb at Vy, using up to 5 min power to 1,000’AGL
34
What is the offshore elevated takeoff procedure?
- Establish a 5’ hover with the nose wheel approx. 2 meters from the deck edge
- note hovering PI
- apply PI delta value in 2-3 seconds to climb vertically at 400 fpm or greater, maintaining hover position
- TDP at 25’ rotate nose to -12 degrees
- at 25 kts GS rotate to +5 degrees
- accelerate to VTOSS
- accelerate to Vy
- gear up
- parking brake released
35
During preflight, how do we know the thickness of the brake pads?
On the inside of each main wheel, rigidly attached to the brake pressure plate assembly is a wear pin that extends through a metal loop fixed to the cylinder block assembly. Once the wear pin no longer extends through the loop, the brake pads need to be replaced. Brakes must be pressured for this check to be reliable.
36
Where is the brake fluid reservoir?
It is incorporated into the Wheel Brake Parking Emergency Module
37
What pressurizes the brake line?
The brake line is pressurized two ways. During normal braking, via pressure built in the brake pedal master cylinder from force exerted by the pilot. With the parking brake lever engaged, hydraulic pressure comes from the brushless DC motor that drives the hydraulic pump in the power group of the wheel brake parking emergency module.
38
What is differential braking and can we do it?
Differential braking is the action of applying different amounts of braking power to each wheel brake. Yes we can.
39
How do we know when the parking brake is set?
The red parking brake lever should be in the extended and rotated position and a green “PARK BRK ON” CAS will illuminate
40
How do we know when the parking brake fails?
The parking brake can either fail on or off. If it fails to on, an amber “PARK BRK ON” CAS will illuminate. If it fails off, an amber “PARK BRAKE PRESS” CAS light will illuminate.
41
Between 18,297 and 18,959, what are the parking brake limitations?
Parking on slopes up to 10 degrees is permitted up to one hour.
42
How many tires does the 189 have?
Four tires. Two on the nose and one on each main wheel.
43
What are the tires filled with and why?
Nitrogen because it is an inert gas, meaning at higher temperatures it will not react with the rubber of the tires like regular air would. Refer to AD 87-08-09, the result of the crash of Mexicana Flight 940.
44
What is the emergency equipment in the cabin?
Each passenger is provided a life jacket with emergency equipment inside. There is also a first aid kit in the cabin, behind the RH pilot seat, between the first and second passenger seats.
45
What is in the pilot life jacket?
One personal locator beacon, one emergency blanket, one laser pointer, 1 sea dye, 1 signal mirror, 1 LED strobe light.
46
How do you preflight the floats and rafts?
During the aircraft walk around, the floats and raft bottle pressure can be inspected through the incorporated windows and compared to to the associated charts printed on the side of the sponson and the tail. During the preflight pressing the float test and ensuring four green lights (tests the electrical circuit) and arming the floats to ensure the CAS illuminates.
47
How do the floats inflate automatically?
There are four immersion switches installed on the aircraft. One in each sponson and one under each side of the chin bubble. Immersion of any two of the four switches will cause the floats to inflate.
48
Up to what sea state are the floats designed to keep the aircraft upright?
Up to sea state 6
49
How many people are the life rafts designed to fit?
It is a nominal 14 person raft with an emergency overload capacity of 21.
50
What is the ground speed limitation for ditching?
30 kts
51
Can you deploy the floats manually?
Yes, there is a guarded button on the collective.
52
How do we egress the cockpit and cabin after a water landing?
Through the emergency window exits only.
53
How do you inflate the life rafts?
There are four pull handles, one on each side of the cockpit and one in each sponson under the canvas flap.
54
What are the crew’s duties in an emergency?
Flying the aircraft
Complying with the emergency checklist
Activating the emergency position (POSN) function of the satellite tracking
After landing- assisting the passengers to getting a safe distance from the aircraft
Taking any accessible emergency equipment
Activating the ELT
55
How does the crash position indicator work?
The CPI works in conjunction with the ADELT and water activation switch. The CPI panel can be used to manually deploy the ADELT, or it will be deployed automatically upon contact with water (water activation switch is in the left sponson) The ADELT will also automatically deploy when the system interface unit experiences an excessive G load, such as in a crash.
56
Can the rotor brake be used after a water landing?
No, the rotor brake requires the weight-on-wheels switch to be activated.
57
Where do we get electrical power?
```
Power is stored in the 28 volt dc battery and generated by
The APU
Generator 1
Generator 2
The Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA)
```
58
What is the voltage?
APU 115 Vac
Generators 115/200 Vac
PMA ??
59
How many batteries do we have?
One. The main battery.
60
How many bus bars does the electrical system have?
1. Switch
2. Hot
3. Emergency
4. Main
5. Essential
61
What electrical indications are displayed on the MFD?
```
The MFD displays
Generator/APU status and load
SGCU status
TRU load
Battery amperage
Bus tie status
Bus statuses
REPU status
```
62
How do we know which circuit breakers are tied to different buses?
They are listed in the QRH Emerg-Malfunc Page 14-16
63
How does the BUS TIE work, and what is the logic during a GEN failure?
The bus tie is a momentary type switch whose logic is controlled in the SGCU. It’s purpose is to cross tie the main busses. In a generator failure the tie closes, allowing power to reach the failed side.
64
What controls and monitors the generator?
The starter generator control unit
65
How much time to do have in electrical power if both GEN fail in flight?
Unlimited as long as the APU is running. In the event of a triple generator failure, approximately 15 minutes.
66
How can we extend battery power after a triple generator failure?
Turn off all unnecessary equipment. Turn off non-essential lights, dim DUs etc.
67
What do you do when a good external power source is connected and you select external power to ON and nothing happens?
Check the circuit breaker at the external power door.
68
What do we do if a MAIN BATT HOT CAS appears?
Turn the main battery off. The battery will not be charged.
69
Where are the air intakes located?
For the crew vents, two under the nose fuselage. For the cabin vents, two on the upper canopy cowling.
70
What does the knob control when it’s turned to OFF, LOW FAN, HIGH FAN
The vent knob controls the evaporator fans.
71
Describe the cooling system.
The cooling system is composed of four main items. The refrigerant enters the compressor, is heated through compression and then sent to the condenser. Ambient air absorbs the latent heat from inside the condenser and causes the refrigerant to condense to a warm, high pressure liquid. The refrigerant then enters the expansion valve, where it expands, causing it to cool. This cold, low pressure liquid refrigerant then enters the evaporator. Forced ventilation air blows over the evaporator coils, causing the air to cool and the refrigerant to warm. The cold air enters the cockpit/cabin and the refrigerant is sent back to the compressor.
72
Where is the cooling system located?
The compressors, condensers, cabin expansion valve and cabin evaporators are housed on the upper deck, under the upper canopy cowling. The cockpit evaporators and expansion valves are housed in the forward section of the cockpit, by the pilots feet’s.
73
How many AC compressors are there?
There are two, powered by 115Vac
74
Describe the heating system.
Hot bleed air enters from either the APU bleed valve or from the engine bleed valves where it passes through a SOV. Then, a check valve prevents reverse air from entering the engine/APU. After the check valve, the bleed air enters the temperature control valve (controlled by the cockpit control panel and the heater control box) The valve meters the hot air entering the jet pump, where bleed air mixes with ambient air, and the mix is piped through the ducting.
75
Does the heating system share ducting with other systems?
No. The air conditioner uses the upper vents whereas the heating system is ducted through the floor vents.
76
What does the heater control knob do in auto/manual?
In AUTO, the cockpit/cabin temperature is control by the heater control box. In MAN mode, the pilot manually controls the temperature control valve position, allowing more or less bleed air to enter the jet pump.
77
In lbs. what is the total useable fuel capacity including the auxiliary tank?
3,639 lbs
78
How many fuel drains are on the aircraft?
Each main tank has two drains, electric for sampling and manual for bulk. Each forward tank has two manual drains, one for sampling and one for bulk draining. (Total of 8 drains)
79
How do we drain the fuel?
Main tanks can be sumped via the electronic push button in each sponson. The other manual drains can be sumped by pushing up on the poppet valve.
80
How many fuel pumps are in the fuel system?
Four. Each main tank has one electric fuel boost pump, and each engine has one mechanically driven pump.
81
How does the pilot interact with the fuel system?
Through the ECDU or the Fire Panel.
82
How does the pilot preflight the fuel system on the first engine start of the day?
By turning off the electric pumps to ensure the mechanical pumps create enough pressure to run the engines. Also by cycling the crossfeed to ensure it opens and closes as appropriate.
83
What is the purpose of the crossfeed valve in “auto” mode?
It ensures that in the event of fuel pressure dropping below its given threshold, that fuel pressure will be supplied via the opposite pump. It also allows fuel to be delivered to the opposite side engine in the event of an engine shutdown.
84
How many fuel probes do we have?
Each main tank has two, an upper and a lower. Each forward tank has one probe.
85
How is fuel quantity displayed from the probes to the cockpit?
The probes measure quantity by measuring electrical capacitance between the electrodes, which changes as air is displaced by fuel.
86
How much fuel is in each tank as it reaches the bottom of the interconnecting flange?
624 lbs.
87
Can you transfer fuel when the level is below the interconnection flange? How or why?
Once the fuel level reaches below the interconnection flange, fuel cannot be “transferred” from tank to tank. In the event of operating OEI, the remaining fuel from both collector cells can still be utilized by the remaining engine, provided the opposite fuel boost pump from that engine is still operating.
88
When does the FUEL LOW CAS appear?
The amber (1)2 FUEL LOW CAS will appear when there is approximately 10 minutes of fuel remaining in that tank, about 128 lbs, +/-10%
89
Can we jettison fuel?
No.
90
What grade of fuel do we use?
```
We use JET A commonly. Other approved fuels are
Jet A-1
JP5
JP8
JP8-100
No. 3 Jet Fuel
```
91
Do we need to use additives for hot or cold temperatures?
Below -15C, fuel icing inhibitors are mandatory. For temperatures below -30C, JP8 fuel is authorized.
92
Where can you find the oil grade, capacities and quantities?
The acceptable oil types and brands can be found in the limitations section of the RFM and the QRH. According to the PTM, the engine oil tank holds approximately 6.9 liters of oil.
93
Can you mix types of engine oil, if both types are approved?
Acceptable but not recommended.
94
Where is the engine oil pressure displayed?
On the PFD, the MFD Power Plant Page and the Engine Synoptic Page.
95
How do we perform the hydraulic preflight?
When connected to the FOX cart or with the APU running, turn on the electric hydraulic pump and check controls for full range of movement.
96
Which systems are powered by hydraulic pressure?
The flight controls and the landing gear
97
How many pumps does the hydraulic system have?
Four. Two mechanical pumps on the number 2 side, and one mechanical and one electric pump on the number 1 side. The electric pump is for preflight only.
98
What is the normal hydraulic operating pressure?
207 bar (about 3000psi)
99
What regulates the hydraulic pressure?
The pressure is regulated in the power control module (PCM)
100
How many reservoirs does the hydraulic system have?
Two. One in each PCM
101
What is the computer logic during a leak in the number 2 hydraulic system?
System 2
- At 40% fluid remaining, the utility SOV 2 will close. HYD UTIL PRESS displays
- at 28% fluid remaining, utility SOV 2 will reopen and TRSOV will close. HYD UTIL PRESS clears, 2 HYD SERVO displays and 1-2 AP Y FAIL displays
- at 22% fluid remaining, the utility SOV will reclose. HYD UTIL PRESS, 2 HYD SERVO, 2 HYD MIN displayed
102
What is the computer logic during a hydraulic leak on the number 1 system?
At 22% utility SOV 1 closed. EMER L/G PRESS, 1 HYD MIN displayed
103
Where is the TRSOV mounted on the aircraft?
On the bulkhead floor on the inboard side of PCM2
104
Does the hydraulic system have a filter?
Each hydraulic system has a filter on its respective PCM.
105
What is the indication of a servo jam?
1(2) HYD SERVO CAS. The jammed servo can be determined on the MFD hydraulic page.
106
Why do we have a hydraulic shut off valve in the cockpit?
In the event of a hydraulic system overheat.
107
Can you mix different brands of hydraulic fluid?
No
108
When is the hydraulic SOV inhibited?
When the number 2 system has a leak, once the fluid level reached 28% the microswitch will close the TRSOV and disable the closing of the No 1 SOV. This is because if we were to close SOV 1 with the TRSOV closed, we would lose all hydraulic pressure to the tail rotor.
(Number 1 system- closed at 22%???)
109
Which hydraulic system is responsible for the SCAS?
Number 2
110
Once the TRSOV closes, can it be reopened in flight?
No. The helicopter must be shut down and the electrical system shut off to reset the logic.
111
At what ambient temperature should the pitot heat be turned on or off.
It should be turned ON or AUTO at or below 4C
| And OFF or AUTO at or above 5C
112
What type of icing protection is the AW189 equipped with?
Pitot heat
Engine pneumatic bleed anti-ice
Electrical intake anti ice?
113
What is the maximum speed for windshield wiper operation?
140 KIAS
114
At what ambient temperature should the engine anti-ice be on?
It should be ON at 5C and OFF at 8C
115
Describe the controls and indications on the landing gear panel
There are five items on the LGP
1. Landing Gear Control Lever
This is a two position lever. Up is landing gear up, down is landing gear down.
2. Landing Gear Position Lights
There are three position lights, corresponding to each piece of gear. The position lights appear as green when extended, amber when in transit, and off when retracted.
3. Nose Gear Center Push Button
The push button lambert has an Amber UNLK for when the nose gear is unlocked. The amber UNLK flashes when the lock is armed, and a green LOCK for when it’s locked.
4. EMER DOWN push button
The emergency down landing gear push button sits below a red gate that must be lifted in order to activate the push button. The push button has an incorporated lamp displaying ON when the gear is extended in this means.
5. Parking Brake Lever
The parking brake lever is a red pull handle to engage the brake. To engage the parking brake, the handle must be pulled then rotated 90 degrees to lock in place. To disengage, pull up, turn 90 degrees and release pressure and the handle will return to its down position.
116
What kind of indication who be displayed if there is a malfunction with the landing gear system?
Landing gear failing to extend/retract- the position light will remain amber
Landing gear reacted below 200’- an amber LANDING GEAR CAS message will appear and an aural warning
Failure of a WOW switch- amber 1(2) WOW FAIL CAS illuminated
Low pressure detected in the parking brake system- amber PARK BRK PRESS CAS illuminates
Parking brake system remaining pressurized when the parking brake lever is off- amber PARK BRK ON CAS illuminates
117
What are the slope and parking brake limitations at 8300kgs and 8650kgs
Up to 8300kg up to 8 hours on a 10 degree slope.
Above 8300kg up to one hour on a 10 degree slope.
118
What are the taxi speed limitations?
Paved surface 40kts
Emergency 60kts
Prepared grass surface 20kts
Nose wheel must be locked above 10kts
Company policy taxi less than 10kts
119
Where can the increased gross weight information be found?
Section 5, Supplement 21
120
How does the landing gear hold extended and retracted?
Retracted- the gear is held retracted by the number 2 hydraulic system
Extended- the gear is held extended by an internal finger-collet type locking mechanism inside the gear actuator
121
What are the airspeed limitations for the landing gear?
Vle 150 KIAS
| Vlo 150 KIAS
122
Do you need electrical power to operate the landing gear?
Yes. It is supplied from DC Emergency Bus 1
123
What is the main rotor diameter and D value?
The main rotor diameter is 48 ft & the D value is 58 ft
124
What is the design type of the main and tail rotor.
Main the main and tail rotor are fully articulated.
125
How do we preflight the main rotor dampers?
Each damper has two sight glasses to check the hydraulic fluid level.
126
What is a flapping limiter?
It is a component on the main rotor head that limits the amount of up-flap of the tension link assembly & therefore the blade.
127
What is the purpose of the ring around the mast?
It is a droop ring. It needs to be greased so that it doesn’t creak or make noise as the blades come to rest.
128
What is Vmini
The minimum speed for IFR is 50 kts.
129
What is the minimum speed for autorotation?
60 KIAS
130
How many chip detectors are in the main rotor transmission?
Three. Two in the sump and one in the collector.
131
How does the main rotor gearbox lubricated?
The main rotor gearbox has two internal mechanical oil pumps. Oil ducts are cored in the MGB housing and supply a number of directional jets, fitted with internal filter screens, which are aimed at gear wheels and bearings. The oil is cooled by a radiator-type oil cooler, drawing air using its own fan, which is driven by a splined driveshaft directly off the main gearbox.
132
What temp of indications do we have to monitor the MGB/IGB/TGB?
On the PFD we have a display of MGB oil pressure and temperature. On the power plant page of the MFD, we have MGB temperature and pressure, and IGB and TGB oil temperature. The MFD transmission page provides temperature and pressure indications for the MGB, temperature indications for the IGB and TGB, as well as chip indications for the MGB, IGB and TGB, and bearing temperatures for the MGB.
133
Does the 189 have fuzz burners?
Yes. They can be accessed in the ECDU XSMN page. Maximum of three times.
134
Can you mix types of oil in the transmission?
There is only one brand and type of approved transmission oil.
135
How do we preflight the oil in the transmission?
Each transmission has a sight glass, however inspecting the main rotor transmission oil level requires sliding back the forward cowling which we are not allowed to do. There is a preflight test to see if any of the gearboxes are low.
136
During preflight, how do we know of the nose wheel is locked?
There is a yellow locking lever that becomes visible.
137
What is the self-centering azimuth of the nose wheel?
+/-80 degrees
138
What happens if the nose wheel is unlocked and the aircraft lifts off the ground?
The self centering cams will align the nose gear and then a signal from the WOW switch will automatically lock the wheel
139
Can you retract the landing gear of the nose wheel is unlocked?
No.the logic does not allow for the nose gear to be retracted unless it’s locked.
140
What are the shocks filled with?
The first (low pressure) stage contains oil and nitrogen separated by gravity. The second (high pressure) stage contains only nitrogen.
141
During preflight, how do we know the nose gear shock is filled?
By noting the amount of the hydraulic shaft that is extended while at rest.
142
What is the purpose of the shocks?
To support the aircraft at proper ground clearance and cushion/absorb loads during taxi and landing.
143
Does having one shock empty affect aircraft stability?
Yes. It can cause the aircraft to lean to one side and also increase the chances of developing ground resonance.
144
How many pitot static systems does the 189 have?
Two. Each air date system is comprised of a pitot static probe, an air data unit, an OAT, and an alternate static source.
145
Where is a static or pitot miscompare displayed?
An altitude miscompare will display on the top of the altitude tape. An IAS or Nve miscompare will display on the top of the airspeed tape. The miscompare will be in black lettering on an amber background.
146
Where does the ISIS get its pitot static information?
???
147
How to we determine which PFD dies plays the correct information during a miscompare?
???
148
How do we turn an ADS computer off?
On the RCP
149
Where are the static ports? Are they heated?
They are incorporated into the pitot probe and utilize the pitot heat?
150
Where is the alternate static source?
There are two, located in the cockpit. If using alternate static, decrease altimeter reading by 250 ft.
151
How does the aircraft computer get OAT?
There are two OAT probes that supply information to the ADUs. Location??
152
What holds the engine to the airframe?
Each engine has a set of rear mounts, one on each side that essentially cradles the engine. They are held to the engine via four mounting lungs attached to a link assembly, which is fixed to the floor of the engine bay. The front of the engine is supported by the torque tube leading to the transmission.
153
How many turbine wheels does the engine have, and what is their purpose?
The engine has a five stage axial compressor, that feeds into one centrifugal compressor. The axial compressor accelerates and compresses the airflow on an axial vector. The first two stages are variable geometry. The centrifugal compressor accelerates airflow outward on a radial vector by means of centrifugal force. In short, the axial stage is high flow, lower compression. The centrifugal compressor is low airflow, high compression.
154
What powers the compressor section?
The compressor is driven by the power turbine (has generator turbine)
155
What powers the accessory gearbox?
???
156
What engine parameters are displayed in the cockpit?
```
Inter turbine Temperature (ITT)
Free Power Turbine Speed (Nf)
Gas Generator Speed (Ng)
Engine torque (TQ)
Power Index (PI)
Engine oil pressure
```
157
What controls the engine?
The dual channel Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)
158
Explain the engine control.
The part of the FADEC that directly controls the engine is the Electronic Engine Control Unit (EECU). It modulates fuel flow via the metering unit (FMU) located on the rear face of the AGB, controls bleed air and has complete control of engine power.
159
How does the engine control get its power?
During initial start, the EECU gets its power from the 28Vdc supply. Once Ng reaches 24%, the permanent magnetic alternator supplies the EECU. At a certain point, the generators will then become the power supply for the EECU. (Is this last sentence correct?)
160
What are the ITT start limits?
963C
161
What prevents an engine hot start?
The FADEC, specifically the FMU controlled by the EECU. It is only active when the engine mode switch is set to IDLE.
162
Does a red EEC fail CAS inhibit the engine over speed protection?
The red CAS will read 1(2) ENG GOV LOSS. It indicates the engine power is fixed at a specific setting due to a loss of FADEC control. In this event Nf governing body longer functions and an over speed can occur if the collective position is changed.
163
How does the Engine Control Unit anticipate pilot input to maintain rotor speed?
There are two coil LVDTs installed on the left side of the collective torsion tube.
164
What happens to the fuel flow during an EEC FAIL CAS?
The fuel flow remains fixed at the rate when the failure occurs.
165
Can the pilot manually control the fuel?
No. The pilot can shut off the fuel, via the engine mode switches, the SOVs through the ECDU, or by arming the engine fire bottles to close the SOVs.
166
What is the purpose of load sharing?
The engine will match whatever parameter is selected, ITT or torque.
When would we use ITT??
167
Where is the load sharing displayed in the cockpit?
On the MFD power plant page, there will be a green chevron pointing inward toward the selected parameter.
168
What does the torque limiter do?
Pressing the AEO limiter button causes the green “AEO TOP LIM” CAS to annunciate. When the maximum torque, ITT or Ng (PI) is reaches with the limiter engaged, the rotor will droop and not allow you to enter a transient value above 116% by metering fuel.
Is this a torque limiter??? Or does it work for all parameters????
169
What happens if there is an engine failure with the AEO/OEI selected ON?
It will turn off.
170
How many fuel nozzles and igniters does the engine have?
Each engine has 12 fuel nozzles and 2 igniters located at the 4 and 9 o’clock positions.
171
Can the engine be started manually?
No.
172
When can the ENG mode switch be moved from from the FLIGHT position in flight during an autorotation procedure for maintenance or training?
No. Only during an actual emergency.
173
How many chip detectors does the engine have?
There is one chip detector for each engine, mounted on the front of the accessory gearbox. It will annunciate the 1(2) ENG OIL CHIP CAS.
174
How is the engine cooled?
The engine is cooled by both air and oil. Stage 4 compressor bleed air is routed through a tube to the C-sump, which cools the C sump outer case. Stage four bleed air is also taken through an internal passage to the B-sump which cools the B-sumo case.
175
How does the engine oil cool?
The oil system incorporates an oil cooler which is a series of tubes inside a thin casing. Oil from the chip detector floods the oil cooler casing, while the fuel passes through the tubes. The heat from the oil is therefore transferred to the fuel.
176
How do we check the engine oil level?
Oil sight glasses are installed on each side of the tank. The outside one can be checked on preflight by looking through the cowling window above the sponson.
177
Describe the engine fire detection system.
In each main engine bay, there is a FireWire routed throughout. The FireWire is filled with helium gas, with a hydrogen gas absorbing material core. It is sealed on one end, and incorporates a pressure transducer on the other end. When a fire occurs, either creating an general increase in temperature, or a localized high temperature, the hydrogen gas is released from the material core, and creates an increase in pressure, and the pressure transducer triggers a CAS.
178
Describe the engine fire prevention system.
For the engines, there are two fire extinguishing bottles filled with Halon 1301 and Nitrogen has. The plumbing of the the bottles to the engines allows for either bottle to be used on either engine, or both can be used on one engine. Once the engine fire bottles are armed toward an engine, and the extinguishing switch moved to choose a bottle, a pyrotechnic charge detonated at the discharge outlet, allowing the halon/nitrogen mixture to be discharged at 4 points across the engine bay. Two at the front, and two at the rear.
179
What is the fire procedure in flight?
Slow the aircraft to 70-80 KIAS
Turn off heat and AC
Ensure heater SOVs are normal
Affected engine, confirm then IDLE, confirm fire
Affected engine, confirm then OFF, confirm fire
Affected engine, confirm, then fire extinguisher guard lift and press
Once affected engine Ng is <20% fire extinguisher switch to bottle 1
If fire remains...
Fire extinguisher switch to bottle 2
If fire remains...
Land immediately
If fire extinguisher at any point
Deselect fire/arm push button
Start APU
Land as soon as possible
180
What happens when you select the engine bay selector push button on the extinguisher panel?
It closes the associated fuel SOV.
181
What is the maximum load limit for the baggage compartment?
550 kg/m2
| 110lbs per sq foot
182
What is the maximum load height of the baggage in the baggage compartment?
2 ft 3 inches with installation of vertical cargo net kit
183
What is the maximum weight in the baggage compartment?
793 lbs (360kg) with installation of the vertical cargo net kit
184
When may the heater system bleed valve be selected to APU?
When the OAT is at or below 20 degrees C
185
When may the RHT mode be used?
Over a flat surface that is clear of obstructions
150’ AGL if airspeed is greater than 55 kts
30’ AGL if airspeed in HOV or airspeed less than 55kts
186
What are the components of the communications system?
- PLT/CPLT Audio Control Panel (ACP)
- MCDU
- Audio Managment Unit (AMU)
- VHF Airband Transceiver/Antenna
The communications system integrates with the
- AMMS
- NAV 1
- NAV 2
- DME
- Weight on Wheels (WOW)
- Cockpit Voice and Flight Data Recorder (CVFDR)
- Aural Warning Generator (AWG)
- Aircraft Power Supplies
187
What does the BKUP function on the MCDU do?
In the event of a failure of both AMMCs, the MCDU directly connects the onside radio to the MCDU selection. The copilot MCDU has a hardwired link from the VHF 1, and the pilot MCDU to VHF 2.
In the event of a total radio control failure, 121.5 will be automatically tuned.
188
What is the AMU?
The Audio Managment Unit manages the communications equipment audio inputs and outputs. It is connected to the headsets, transceivers, receivers, audio control panels (ACPs) and the passenger intercom. The AMU distributed all audio to the desired destination. It is also responsible for managing all incoming audio and PTT demands.
189
What is the RMU
Remote Memory Unit
