AZ900 Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
What does AZ-900 stand for?
A
Azure Fundamentals certification.
2
Q
True or False: AZ-900 is an entry-level certification.
A
True.
3
Q
Which cloud model is associated with AZ-900?
A
Microsoft Azure.
4
Q
What is the primary focus of the AZ-900 exam?
A
Understanding cloud concepts and Azure services.
5
Q
Fill in the blank: The three primary cloud service models are IaaS, PaaS, and _____ .
A
SaaS.
6
Q
What does IaaS stand for?
A
Infrastructure as a Service.
7
Q
Which Azure service provides virtual machines?
A
Azure Virtual Machines.
8
Q
True or False: Azure Blob Storage is used for structured data.
A
False.
9
Q
What is the purpose of Azure Active Directory?
A
Identity and access management.
10
Q
What type of pricing model does Azure offer?
A
Pay-as-you-go.
11
Q
Which Azure service is used for serverless computing?
A
Azure Functions.
12
Q
What is a key benefit of cloud computing?
A
Scalability.
13
Q
Fill in the blank: The Azure service that allows you to build and manage applications is _____ .
A
Azure App Service.
14
Q
What is the Azure Marketplace?
A
A platform for buying and selling cloud applications and services.
15
Q
True or False: Azure regions are geographical locations where data centers are located.
A
True.
16
Q
What does the term ‘high availability’ mean in cloud services?
A
Ensuring services are operational and accessible with minimal downtime.
17
Q
Which Azure service provides a data warehouse solution?
A
Azure Synapse Analytics.
18
Q
What is Azure Resource Manager (ARM)?
A
A management framework for deploying and managing resources in Azure.
19
Q
Fill in the blank: The Azure service that helps with big data analytics is _____ .
A
Azure HDInsight.
20
Q
What does ‘regions’ refer to in Azure?
A
Geographical areas that contain Azure data centers.
21
Q
What is the primary benefit of Azure’s global infrastructure?
A
Reduced latency and improved performance.
22
Q
True or False: Azure DevOps is a set of development tools for software teams.
A
True.
23
Q
What is Azure Security Center?
A
A unified security management system for Azure resources.
24
Q
Which Azure service provides analytics and insights on your applications?
A
Azure Monitor.
25
Fill in the blank: The Azure service that provides a fully managed relational database is _____ .
Azure SQL Database.
26
What is the purpose of Azure Policy?
To enforce organizational standards and assess compliance.
27
What are the building blocks of Azure Blueprints?
A: ARM templates and policy assignments
B: ARM templates, policy assignments, and Azure service configuration
C: ARM templates and Azure service configurations
D: Role assignments and Azure service configurations
B: ARM templates, policy assignments and Azure service configurations
28
What is a key feature of Azure Virtual Desktop in terms of management?
A. Custom monitoring solutions
B. Centralized security management
C. Advanced networking configurations
D. Multi-cloud integration
29
How can organizations reduce costs when using Azure Virtual Desktop?
A. Pay for Azure resources only
B. Opt for a monthly subscription model
C. Utilize Bring Your License (BYOL)
D. Reduce the number of users accessing virtual desktops
30
Which protocol is used for connecting to another computer through a network connection in AVD
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. Secure Shell (SSH)
D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
31
What is a recommended method to connec to Azure VMs usind RDP?
A. Use a dynamic IP address for flexibility
B. Download the .rdp file each time before connecting
C. Use a static IP address to prevent changes
D. Connect directly using the VM's name
32
What security measure can be activated in AVD to fortify user sign-ins?
A. Single sign-on (SSO)
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Role-based access controls (RBAC)
D. Virtual private network (VPN)
33
What is a unique feature of AVD regarding Win deployment?
A. Limited application support
B. Single-session deployment
C. Multi-session deployment
D. Compatibility with Windows Server-based operating
systems
34
Which Azure service enables customers to log in using
most contemporary browsers and enjoy a cloud-hosted
version of Windows from any location?
A. Azure Virtual Machine
B. Azure Logic Apps
C. Azure Virtual Desktop
D. Azure Functions
35
What is the maximum usable storage capacity of a Data Box device?
A. 50 TB
B. 80 TB
C. 100 TB
D. 120 TB
36
What is the primary purpose of the local web UI for Data Box?
A. Daily administration tasks
B. Data encryption
C. Network configuration
D. Disk erasure
37
How is the security of data ensured during the transit of a Data Box? device?
A. GPS tracking
B. Tamper-resistant screws and stickers
C. Firewall protection
D. Data Box encryption key
38
What is Azure Resource Manager?
A. A VM resource provider.
B. A programming language for Azure resources.
C. The deployment and management service for Azure.
D. An authentication and authorization service for Azure.
39
What is a resource group in Azure?
A. A group of virtual machines.
B. A container for managing related Azure resources.
C. A specific location within a data center.
D. A collection of Azure policies.
40
What is the purpose of a resource group’s location in Azure?
A. It determines the geographic location of resources.
B. It stores metadata about the resources for compliance reasons.
C. It specifies the location for deploying resources.
D. It defines the access control for resources.
41
How does Azure Resource Manager ensure resiliency?
A. By depending on a single logical data center.
B. By taking down for maintenance activities regularly.
C. By being distributed across regions and availability zones.
D. By relying on a backup control plane.
42
What is the maximum number of instances of a resource type allowed in a resource group?
A. 500 instances
B. 800 instances
C. Unlimited instances
D. 1000 instances
43
How are ARM templates different from script for managing Azure resources?
A. ARM templates use declarative syntax to define resource properties.
B. Scripts are more efficient in managing resource dependencies.
C. ARM templates are written in a scripting language.
D. Scripts have a graphical user interface for resource management.
44
What is an extension resource in Azure?
A. A resource with limited capabilities.
B. A resource that adds to another resource's capabilities.
C. A resource that exists outside of a resource group.
D. A standalone resource without dependencies.
45
What happens when you delete a resource group in Azure?
A: Only metadata is deleted.
B: All resources in the resource group are also deleted.
C: Resource group location is changed.
D: Only tags associated with the resource group are deleted.
46
How can you manage access control for administrator actions in ARM?
A. Apply tags to resources.
B. Assign Azure Policies, Azure roles, or resource locks to a resource group.
C. Use PowerShell commands.
D. Configure access in the Azure portal settings.
47
What is the purpose of applying tags to a resource group in Azure?
A. To define the location of the resource group.
B. To organize resources logically.
C. To specify the deployment sequence of resources.
D. To define resource dependencies.
48
What is the primary purpose of a Disaster Recovery plan (DR)?
A. To automate routine tasks in the cloud environment.
B. To store data in a secure data store.
C. To define strategies for recovering from large-scale disasters.
D. To conduct regular performance audits.
49
What types of incidents are considered disasters in the context of a DR plan?
A. Minor resource failures.
B. Regional outages, service outages, and malicious attacks.
C. Routine maintenance activities.
D. Network latency issues.
50
What is the purpose of conducting regular DR drills?
A. To meet compliance requirements.
B. To confuse operators.
C. To replace the need for a formal DR plan.
D. To test the validity of the DR plan and recovery metrics.
51
Why is it essential to clearly define roles and responsibilities in a DR plan
A. To assign blame in case of a failure.
B. To streamline day-to-day operations.
C. To ensure efficient communication and coordination during a disaster.
D. To reduce the need for regular updates to the plan.
52
What is the importance of separating the failback plan from the DR plan?
A. To confuse operators during the recovery process.
B. To streamline the overall DR procedures.
C. To avoid potential confusion and replicate necessary steps.
D. To minimize the need for automation.
53
How can automation be a risk in the context of a DR plan?
A. Automation always slows down the recovery process.
B. Trained operators need to carefully monitor automated processes.
C. Automation is not suitable for large-scale disasters.
D. Automation is only effective in nonproduction environments.
54
What is the primary purpose of redundancy in Azure storage?
A. To increase data access speed.
B. To reduce storage costs.
C. To protect data from planned and unplanned events.
D. To limit the number of data copies.
55
What are the key factors to consider when choosing a redundancy option?
A. Speed and capacity.
B. Cost and compliance.
C. Availability and durability.
D. Latency and throughput.
56
Which redundancy option is the least expensive, but not recommended for high-availability applications?
A. Zone-redundant storage (ZRS).
B. Geo-redundant storage (GRS).
C. Locally redundant storage (LRS).
D. Geo-zone-redundant storage (GZRS).
57
How many times is data replicated within the primary region in LRS?
A. Once.
B. Twice.
C. Three times.
D. Four times.
58
Which redundancy option is recommended for Data Lake Gen2?
A. Locally redundant storage (LRS).
B. Zone-redundant storage (ZRS).
C. Geo-redundant storage (GRS).
D. Geo-zone-redundant storage (GZRS)
59
What does ZRS replicate data across in the primary region?
A. Multiple countries.
B. Multiple data centers.
C. Three Azure availability zones.
D. Different storage accounts.
60
What is the durability % provided by ZRS over a given year?
A. At least 99.9%.
B. At least 99.999999999%.
C. At least 99.9999999999%.
D. At least 99.99999999999999%.
61
What is the primary difference between GRS and GZRS?
A. The number of data copies.
B. The use of availability zones.
C. The geographic distance between replicas.
D. The replication latency.
62
What happens during a failover in GRS or GZRS?
A. Data becomes inaccessible.
B. The secondary region becomes the new primary region.
C. Data is asynchronously replicated to the secondary region.
D. Data in the secondary region is directly accessible.
63
What does RA-GRS provide in addition go GRS?
A. Reduced latency.
B. Read access to the secondary region.
C. Increased durability.
D. Automatic failover.
64
Which Azure Storage service does not support RA-GZRS?
A. Blob storage.
B. Queue storage.
C. Table storage.
D. Azure Files.
65
How can apps be designed to seamlessly shift to reading data from the secondary region?
A. Enable Geo-redundant storage (GRS).
B. Configure Read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS).
C. Use Locally redundant storage (LRS).
D. Implement an automatic failover
66
What is the recovery point objective in asynchronous geo-replication?
A. The point at which the failover occurs.
B. The interval between the most recent writes to the primary and the last write to the secondary.
C. The time taken to replicate data to the secondary region.
D. The latency in accessing data during failover.
67
What is the primary purpose of defining a naming convention for Azure resources, including virtual networks?
A. To reduce costs.
B. To ensure uniqueness.
C. To improve performance.
D. To enhance security.
68
In which Azure region and subscription must a resource be created to ensure compatibility with a virtual network?
A. Any region and subscription.
B. Same region, different subscription.
C. Different region, same subscription.
D. Same region, same subscription
69
What should be considered when deciding on Azure regions for resource deployment?
A. Network latency only.
B. Data residency, sovereignty, and compliance only.
C. Availability zones support only.
D. Network latency, data residency, sovereignty, compliance, and availability zone support.
70
What is a consideration when deciding the number of virtual networks in a subscription?
A. Maximum subscription limit.
B. Organizational security requirements.
C. Availability zone support.
D. Data residency.
71
What does a virtual network in Azure represent?
A. A physical network infrastructure.
B. An isolated portion of the Azure public network.
C. A collection of on-premises servers.
D. A dedicated network for Azure support.
72
When connecting virtual networks, what appliance can be used to control traffic flow between them?
A. Load Balancer.
B. Firewall.
C. Gateway.
D. Virtual Machine.
73
What is the purpose of a Network Security Group (NSG) in Azure?
A. Load balancing.
B. Traffic filtering.
C. Resource naming.
D. Traffic routing.
74
How can Azure's default routing between subnets be overridden?
A. By using a Network Security Group (NSG).
B. By deploying a Virtual Machine.
C. By creating a route table and associating it with a subnet.
D. By enforcing naming conventions.
75
How can traffic filtering be achieved between resources in a virtual network?
A. Using network latency.
B. Using Azure Policy.
C. Using a Network Security Group (NSG) or Network Virtual Appliance (NVA).
D. Using naming conventions.
76
What is the purpose of virtual network peering in Azure?
A. Load balancing between virtual networks.
B. Enabling connectivity between on-premises and Azure.
C. Connecting virtual networks within the same or different regions.
D. Enforcing naming conventions.
77
How can an Azure VPN Gateway be used in the context of virtual networks?
A. To filter network traffic.
B. To enforce naming conventions.
C. To connect a virtual network to an on-premises network.
D. To create a route table.
78
What is required for name resolution between resources in peered virtual networks?
A. Azure's built-in DNS.
B. Azure DNS private domains.
C. A Network Security Group (NSG).
D. A Virtual Machine.
79
Which Azure service is used for assigning permissions and roles for virtual network capabilities?
A. Azure Policy.
B. Azure AD Identity Protection.
C. Azure RBAC (Role-Based Access Control).
D. Azure Policy.
80
What does Azure Policy enable in the context of virtual networks?
A. Traffic filtering.
B. Route table creation.
C. Enforcing organizational standards and service level agreements.
D. Virtual network peering.
81
When deploying Azure Policy, what does it evaluate in your resources?
A. Network latency.
B. Resource compliance with policy definitions.
C. Availability zones support.
D. Naming convention adherence.
82
To what should an application connect to retrieve security tokens?
A. Azure Storage account
B. Microsoft Entra ID
C. Certificate store
D. Azure Key Vault
83
You have several virtual machines in an Azure subscription. You create a new subscription.
A. No change is needed.
B. VMs can transfer to the new subscription.
C. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription-only if they are all in the same resource group.
D. Windows Server 2016 is a prerequisite for transferring virtual machines to the new subscription.
84
To establish a network drive mapping from multiple Windows 10 computers to Azure Storage, you should set up an Azure File Share. This solution enables the creation of a shared storage location in Azure, which can be accessed and mapped as a network drive by multiple Windows 10 machines, providing a centralized and scalable file storage solution in the cloud.
A. Azure SQL database
B. Virtual machine data disk
C. Files service in a storage account
D. Blobs service in a storage account
85
What is required to use Azure Cost Management?
A. Dev/Test subscription
B. Software Assurance
C. Enterprise Agreement (EA)
D. Pay-as-you-go subscription
86
What is the main purpose of deciding the cloud deployment type or architecture?
A. To determine the cost
B. To decide the cloud pricing model
C. To meet business requirements for cloud computing
D. To choose the cloud service provider
87
In a public cloud, who owns and manages the resources such as servers and disks?
A. The organization using the cloud
B. The government
C. The cloud provider
D. Azure Stack
88
What is the primary advantage of using the public cloud approach?
A. Higher security
B. Localized data storage
C. Lower cost, scalability, and flexibility
D. Complete control over physical hardware
89
Which cloud deployment model is characterized by computing resources used exclusively by a business or organization?
A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud
90
What does a hybrid cloud allow users to access within a single environment?
A. Only public cloud resources
B. Only private cloud resources
C. Both public and private cloud resources
D. Only community cloud resources
91
What is the primary advantage of a multi-cloud strategy?
A. Vendor lock-in
B. Enhanced redundancy
C. Limited performance optimization
D. Cost predictability
92
What is Azure Arc, and how does it extend Azure's services?
A. Azure pricing model
B. A cloud deployment model
C. A Microsoft service extending management and services to any infrastructure
D. A hybrid cloud service
93
What is the Azure service designed for running, managing, and migrating VMware-based workloads in Azure?
A. Azure Stack
B. Azure Logic Apps
C. Azure Batch
D. Azure VMware Solution
94
Which model involves a cloud computing strategy where an organization uses services and resources from multiple cloud providers?
A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Multi-cloud
95
What does the consumption-based model in cloud computing mean?
A. Upfront expenses
B. Pay-as-you-go pricing
C. Unlimited resources
D. Fixed costs
96
In cloud computing, what is the main advantage of not having to predict future resource requirements accurately?
A. Vendor lock-in
B. Cost predictability
C. Scalability
D. Agility
97
Which cloud deployment model allows access to a group of organizations for its services and provides a sharing mechanism?
A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud
98
What is the main advantage of using the consumption-based model in cloud computing?
A. Upfront expenses
B. Predictable costs
C. Pay-as-you-go pricing
D. Fixed resource allocation
99
In the context of cloud computing, what does elasticity refer to?
A. Dynamically extending or minimizing network resources
B. Quick and efficient adaptation to changes in the business environment
C. Adding more resources to a single server
D. Predicting future resource requirements
100
What is the main benefit of Azure Virtual Machine regarding resource management?
A. Fixed resource allocation
B. Pay-per-usage model
C. Dynamic scaling up and down
D. High availability guarantee
101
Which protocol is commonly used to connect to Azure Virtual Machines for Windows-based machines?
A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Telnet
D. FTP
102
What do Azure Virtual Machine Scale Sets allow you to do?
A. Manage individual VMs manually
B. Create and manage a group of identical load-balanced VMs
C. Automatically adjust VM resources based on demand
D. Limit the number of VM instances to 1000
103
How do Azure Virtual Machine Scale Sets handle fluctuations in demand?
A. By manually adding or removing VM instances
B. By automatically adjusting the number of VM instances
C. By limiting the number of VM instances to a predefined threshold
D. By shutting down VM instances during low-demand periods
104
What is a key feature of Azure Virtual Desktop in terms of management?
A. Custom monitoring solutions
B. Centralized security management
C. Advanced networking configurations
D. Multi-cloud integration
105
How can organizations reduce costs when using Azure Virtual Desktop?
A. Pay for Azure resources only
B. Opt for a monthly subscription model
C. Utilize Bring Your License (BYOL)
D. Reduce the number of users accessing virtual desktops
106
What is a recommended method to connect to Azure Virtual Machines using RDP?
A. Use a dynamic IP address for flexibility
B. Download the .rdp file each time before connecting
C. Use a static IP address to prevent changes
D. Connect directly using the VM's name
106
Which protocol is used for connecting to another computer through a network connection in Azure Virtual Desktop?
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. Secure Shell (SSH)
D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
107
What security measure can be activated in Azure Virtual Desktop to fortify user sign-ins?
A. Single sign-on (SSO)
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Role-based access controls (RBAC)
D. Virtual private network (VPN)
108
What is a unique feature of Azure Virtual Desktop regarding Windows deployment?
A. Limited application support
B. Single-session deployment
C. Multi-session deployment
D. Compatibility with Windows Server-based operating systems
109
What is the primary advantage of committing to an Azure reserved VM instance?
A. Immediate VM deployment
B. Automatic application of reservation discounts
C. Exclusive access to new VM sizes
D. Fixed monthly subscription cost
110
What does an Azure reserved VM instance purchase cover specifically for Windows VMs?
A. Compute and storage costs
B. Windows server license only
C. Both Windows server license and compute costs.
D. Software costs only
111
How can you determine the right VM size before buying a reservation?
A. Use reservation recommendations and check ConsumedService value
B. Analyze daily usage data without checking VM sizes
C. Rely on Meter subcategory and Product fields in usage data
D. Purchase a reservation first and then determine VM size
112
What is the purpose of the instance size flexibility setting in Azure VM reservations?
A: Determines the VM size for discounts
B: Enables discounts only for specific VM series
C: Controls which services get reserved instance discounts
D: Adjusts VM flexibility during runtime
113
Which services can benefit from VM reservation discounts according to the instance size flexibility setting being 'on'?
A. Microsoft. Compute only
B. Microsoft.ClassicCompute only
C. Microsoft. Compute, Microsoft. Batch, and more
D. Microsoft.VirtualMachines
114
What should you avoid when determining the VM size for reservation purchases to ensure correct discounts?
A. Analyzing daily usage data
B. Referring to the AdditionalInfo field
C. Checking Meter subcategory
D. Using Product fields in usage data
115
Which VM sizes are exceptions where reservation discounts don't apply?
A. DS-series, ES-series, FS-series
B. A-series, Av2-series, G-series
C. HBv2 VMs
D. D-series, F-series
116
What are the considerations for purchasing Reserved VM Instances regarding insufficient quota?
A. Quota doesn't affect reservations
B. Quota should be exceeded for better discounts
C. Quota must be available for the new reservation
D. Quota is only applicable to a single subscription scope
117
In which cases can Azure limit the purchase of new reservations due to low capacity in a region?
A. Only for specific VM series
B. During the preview or promo period
C. With insufficient quota
D. In rare circumstances
118
What roles are required to buy Reserved VM Instances in the Cloud Solution Provider (CSP) program?
A. Owner role and EA Admin
B. Admin agents or sales agents
C. Reader role and service admin
D. Contributor role and enterprise admin
119
What are the required steps to buy a Reserved VM Instance in the Azure portal?
A. All services > Reservations > Add > Virtual machine
B. Virtual machines > Add reservation > Select subscription
C. Azure portal > Reservations > Add > Compute
D. Reservations > Add > Cloud services > Virtual machine
120
What is the significance of the 'Scope' field when purchasing a Reserved VM Instance?
A. Determines the region covered by the reservation
B. Identifies the VM size for the reservation
C. Specifies the subscription or resource group scope
D. Sets the number of instances for the reservation
121
What does the 'Optimize for' option in the 'Advanced settings' refer to when purchasing a Reserved VM Instance?
A. Optimizes for cost efficiency
B. Adjusts VM instance size flexibility
C. Prioritizes data center capacity
D. Enables daily usage analysis
122
What are the available terms for purchasing Reserved VM Instances?
A. One year and two years
B. Two years and five years
C. One year, three years, and five years
D. One year, three years, and ten years
123
How is the quantity determined when purchasing a Reserved VM Instance?
A. The number of VMs currently running
B. A fixed quantity set by Microsoft
C. The subscription quota
D. It is user-defined based on running VM instances
124
How is the quantity determined when purchasing a Reserved VM Instance?
A. The number of VMs currently running
B. A fixed quantity set by Microsoft
C. The subscription quota
D. It is user-defined based on running VM instances
125
What can you change after purchasing a Reserved VM Instance without causing a new commercial transaction?
A. Billing period
B. Ownership and scope
C. End date of the reservation
D. Compute and storage costs
126
What is the purpose of splitting and merging reservations after purchase?
A. To create new commercial transactions
B. To change the end date of the reservation
C. To adjust ownership and scope
D. To optimize billing and discount distribution
127
Which field in the usage file or usage API provides correct information about VM size for reservation purchase?
A. Meter subcategory
B. Product fields
C. additionalinfo
D. ConsumedService
128
For which type of subscription is the Add More option available when buying Reserved VM Instances?
A. Enterprise Agreement (EA)
B. Pay-as-you-go with monetary commitment
C. Cloud Solution Provider (CSP)
D. Microsoft Customer Agreement (MCA)
129
What is the primary focus of the three basic concepts of fiscal conversation mentioned in the article?
A. Employee satisfaction
B. Customer engagement
C. Revenue, Cost, and Profit
D. Product innovation
130
What does a profit outcome in fiscal conversation signify?
A. High risk and failure
B. Increase in revenue and decrease in costs
C. Decrease in revenue and increase in costs
D. Status quo in financial terms
131
Why are the examples provided in the article labeled as hypothetical?
A. To guarantee returns
B. To prevent roadblocks
C. Due to their innovative nature
D. To emphasize the cloud strategy's uniqueness
132
What is the significance of partnering with a proven innovator when proposing new revenue streams prone to failure?
A. Avoiding revenue increases
B. Adding credibility to proposed outcomes
C. Encouraging resistance
D. Preventing fiscal transformation
133
In the context of fiscal outcomes, what do new revenue streams represent?
A. Reduction in existing products
B. Low-risk opportunities
C. High-risk ventures
D. Opportunities to deliver products differently
134
How can cloud computing contribute to revenue increases for existing products?
A. Through cost avoidance
B. By reducing capital expenses
C. Via global scale and digital reach
D. By avoiding data center shutdown
135
What is the outcome when cloud computing helps reduce capital expenses for hardware and software?
A. New revenue streams157
B. Cost avoidance
C. Profit increases
D. Cost reduction
136
In fiscal terms, what is the focus of cost avoidance?
A. Reducing current budget commitments
B. Preventing future refresh cycles
C. Increasing server capacity
D. Ongoing operational costs
137
What is the primary difference between capital expenses and operating expenses in the context of fiscal conversation?
A. CapEx are ongoing costs, and OpEx are long-term investments.
B. CapEx contribute to a particular purpose, and OpEx generate benefits over a long period.
C. CapEx are non-recurring, and OpEx are recurring costs.
D. CapEx are assets, and OpEx are liabilities.
138
How does the article describe Sentara Healthcare's fiscal outcome after moving its data to Azure?
A. Guaranteed profit
B. Hypothetical and high-risk
C. Record cost savings
D. Minimal impact on IT team costs
139
What does Azure Virtual Network enable regarding networking environments?
A. Integration with public IP addresses
B. Creation of isolated virtual networks
C. Internet profitability for IP address spaces
D. Exclusive use of private IP addresses
140
How is granularity achieved in Azure Virtual Network regarding IP address spaces?
A. Public IP address ranges
B. Private IP address ranges
C. Subnet division
D. External DNS configuration
141
What is the purpose of assigning a public IP address to an Azure resource or using a public load balancer?
A. Isolation of resources
B. Incorporating Internet connections
C. Enabling secure communication
D. Enhancing internal DNS configuration
142
How can secure communication between Azure resources be achieved, according to the article?
A. Through external DNS servers
B. By using private IP addresses
C. Via virtual networks and service endpoints
D. By isolating resources within subnets
