B Mod Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

behaviour

A

anything a person says or does; any muscular, glandular or electrical activity of an organism

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2
Q

behaviour modification

A

the systematic application of learning principles and techniques to assess and improve individuals’ covert and overt behaviours in order to enhance their daily functioning

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3
Q

view of intelligence

A

intellegence refers to ways of behaving

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4
Q

view of creativity

A

behaviours that are novel or unusual but have a desirable effect

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5
Q

historical highlights

A

Pavlovian conditioning and early “beahviour therapy” -> operant conditioning and early “behaviour modification” -> applied behaviour analysis -> cognitive behaviour therapy

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6
Q

applied behaviour analyst

A

somone with considerable formal trainging in applied behaviour analysis

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7
Q

behavior therapist

A

someone with considerable formal training in the application of behaivour therapy or cognitive behaviour therapy for treating psychological disorders

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8
Q

myths and misconceptions about behaviour modification (13)

A

(1) use of rewards is bribery, (2) involves drugs and ECT, (3) only changes symptoms not underlying problems, (4) only for simple problems, (5) modifiers are cold and unfeeling with no empathy for their clients, (6) only for observable behaviour, (7) modifiers deny the importance of genetics or heredity in determining behaviour, (8) behaivour modification is outdated, (9) only works with non-human animals, (10) behaviourism is no long relevant to modern psychology, (11) always use food as a reinforcer, (12) produces robotic behaviour in children, (13) only works for “intellectually delayed” individuals

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9
Q

overt behaviour

A

can be observed and recorded by an individual other than the one perfomring the behaviour

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10
Q

covert behaviour

A

cannot be readily observed by others

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11
Q

private self-talk

A

thinking in words

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12
Q

cognitive behaviours (2)

A

imagining and private self-talk

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13
Q

dimensions of behaviour

A

characterisitics of behaviour that can be measured

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14
Q

dimensions of behaviour (3)

A

duration, frequency and intensity/ force

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15
Q

advantages of summary labels (2)

A

useful for quickly providing general information about how an individual might perform AND labels may imply that a particular treatment program will be helpful

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16
Q

disadvantages of summary labels (4)

A

(1) can lead to pseudo-explanations/ circular reasoning, (2) labels can negatively affect the way an individual might be treated, (3) don’t solve problems, just name them and (4) focuses attention on problem behaivours rather than strengths (become the label)

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17
Q

pseudo-explanations/ circular reasoning

A

using label to explain behaviour that lead us to that label

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18
Q

behavioural defecit

A

too little of a particular behaviour

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19
Q

behavioural excess

A

too much of a particular behviour

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20
Q

why use specific behavioural defecits and excesses to describe behaviour problems? (3)

A

to avoid the probelms of using general summary labels AND because regardless of summary labels, it is behaviour that causes concern AND specific procedures are now available to improve behaviour

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21
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (first)

A

strong emphasis on defining problems in terms of behviour that can be measured and using changes in the behavioural measure of the problem as the best indicator of the extent to which the problem is being helped

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22
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (second)

A

treatment procedures and techniques are ways of altering an individuals current environment to help them function more fully

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23
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (third)

A

its methods and rationales can be decribed precisely

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24
Q

stimuli

A

the people, objects and events currently present in one’s immediate surroundings that impinge on one’s sense receptors and that can affect behaviour

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25
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (fourth)

A

the techniques of behaviour modification are often applied by individuals in everyday life

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26
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (fifth)

A

the techqnieus stem from basic and applied research in the science of learning in general and the principles of operant and Pavlovian conditioning in particular

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27
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (sixth)

A

emphasizes scientific demonstration that a particular intervention or treatment was responsible for a particular behaviour change

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28
Q

characteristic of behaviour modification (seventh)

A

it places high value on accountability for everyone involved

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29
Q

behavioural assesment and it’s purpose (4)

A

the collection and analysis of information and data in order to (1) identify and describe target behaviour, (2) identify possible causes of the behaviour, (3) guide the selection of an appropriate behavioural treatment and (4) evaluate treatment outcome

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30
Q

target behaviour

A

behaviour to be improved in a behaviour modification program

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31
Q

functional analysis

A

isolating, thorugh experimentation, the causes of problem beahviour and removing or reversing them

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32
Q

behaviour analysis

A

scientific study of the laws that govern the behaviour of human beings and other animals

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33
Q

dimensions of applied beahivour analysis (4)

A

focus on measurable behavior that is socially significant AND strong emphasis on operant conditioning to develop treatment strategies AND an attempt to clearly demonstrate that the applied treatment wasresponsible for the improvement in the measured behaviour AND demonstration of generalizable and long-lasting improvement in behaviour

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34
Q

Application: parenting and child management

A

effective and appropriate child-rearing practices; programs: walking, language, toilet training, peer interactions; parenting techniques to decrease behaviour problems such as trantrums, aggressive beahviour, ignoring rules, lying and lack of obedience

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35
Q

Application: education

A

deal with disruptive classroom behaviour, modify academic behaviour directly and address individual behviour problems

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36
Q

Fred Keller’s (1968) Personalized System of Instruction (PSI) (7)

A

(1) identify objectives, (2) study small amounts, (3) demonstrate mastery, (4) frequent testing, (5) mastery before advancing, (6) non-punitive and (7) independent pace

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37
Q

CAPSI

A

computer-aided personalized systed of instruction

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38
Q

developmental disabilities

A

replaced term “mental retardation” in the 1990s; replaced by “intellectual disability” in 2007

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39
Q

intellectual disability

A

originates before age 18 and is characterized by significant limitations both in adaptive behaviour and intellectual functioning (<75 IQ); 2.3% of the population

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40
Q

application: developmental disabilities: intellectual disabilities

A

teaching behaviours such as toileting, self-help skills, social skills, communication skills, vocational skills, leisure-time activities and community survival behaviours

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41
Q

autism

A

some combination of impaired social behaviour, impaired communication, impaired self-care skills and repetitive self-stimulatory behaviours as well as some behaviours similar to children with intellectual disabilities (eg. below average score on self-care tasks); 1 in 68 children in the US

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42
Q

application: developmental disabilities: ASD

A

EIBI used to teach social and play behaviours, eliminate self-stimulatory behaviours and develop language skills; growth in government funding

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43
Q

Lovaas’ EIBI

A

early intensive behavioural intervention (EIBI) is used with children on the autism spectrum; most effective starting under 30 months and continued to school age (50% children were able to enter regular classrooms); long-lasting gains

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44
Q

application: schizophrenia

A

inadequate social relationships are a prime contributor to the poor quality of life experienced by people with schizophrenia, so social skills are major targets for change; teach positive social interactions, communication skills, assertiveness skills and job-finding skills; CB techqniues used to reduce or eliminate hallucinations or delusions

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45
Q

application: clinical settings

A

many psychological problems (eg. ADHD, OCD, phobias, eating disorders, sleep disorders, sexual disorders, depresssion, schizophrenia) are arguably behaviour-based rather than neurochemical which means that behaviour therapy may be more effective than drug therapy; adopted by most psychologists; treatment of choice for phobias and OCD (systematic desensitization/flooding)

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46
Q

application: self-management

A

ways of rearranging your environment to control your subsequent behaviour

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47
Q

application: medical and health care (5)

A

(1) direct treatment of medical problems, (2) establishing treatment compliance, (3) promotion of health living, (4) management of caregivers and (5) stress management (+ save the planet?)

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48
Q

behavioural medicine

A

a braod interdisciplinary field concerned with the links between health, illness and behaviour

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49
Q

stressor

A

condition or event that presents a coping difficulty

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50
Q

application: gerontology

A

apply BM principles to improve quality of life for the elderly/long term care patients

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51
Q

application: community behavioural analysis

A

addressing socially significant problems in unstructured community settings where the behaviour of individuals is not considered deviant in the traditional sense

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52
Q

application: business, industry and government (orgnaizational behaviour management)

A

the application of behaviour principles and methods to the study and control of individual or group behaviour within organizational settings; frequent feedback and incentives

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53
Q

application: behavioural sport psychology

A

use of behaviour analysis principles and techqniues to enhance the performance and satisfaction of athletes and others associated with sports

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54
Q

minimal phases of a program (4)

A

(1) a screeing or intake phase, (2) a preprogram or baseline assesment, (3) a treatment phase and (4) a follow-up phase

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55
Q

screeing or intake phase

A

initial interactions between a client and a practionier or an agency; usually consists of an intake form that requires general information and reason for seeking service

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56
Q

fuctions of screeing or intake phase (5)

A

(1) determine whether a particular practionier or agency is appropriate to deal with a potential client’s behaviour, (2) inform the client aobut the agency’s or practioner’s policies and prcedures rlated to service provision, (3) to screen for the presence of a crisis condition that might require immediate intervention, (4) to gather sufficient information to diagnose the client according to the standardized categories of mental disorders and (5) to provide specfiic information about which behaviour(s) should be assesed

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57
Q

Preprogram assessment or baseline phase

A

behaivour modifier asseses the target behaviour to determine its level prior to treatment AND analyzes current environment to identify possible controllign variables of the behaivour to be changed

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58
Q

treatment phase

A

design and implementation of a program to bring about the desired behaivour change

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59
Q

follow-up phase

A

observation to determine whether the improvements acheived during treatment are maintained after the program’s termination

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60
Q

indirect assessment procedures (4)

A

(1) interviews, (2) questionnaires, (3) role-playing and (4) client self-monitoring

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61
Q

broad procedures for collecting preprogram assessment information (3)

A

(1) indirect, (2) direct and (3) experimental

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62
Q

indirect preprogram assessment: questionniare types (4)

A

(1) life history, (2) self-report problem checklists, (3) survey schedules and (4) third-party behavioural checklists or rating scales

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63
Q

advantages of indirect assessment procedures (3)

A

(1) convenient, (2) does not require an inordinate amount of time and (3) potentially provides information aobut covert behaviours

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64
Q

disadvantages of indirect assessment procedures (2)

A

(1) those providing information might not remeber relevant observations accurately or (2) have biases that would influence them to provide inaccurate data

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65
Q

advantage of direct assessment procedures

A

more accurate than indirect assessment procedures

66
Q

disadvantages of direct assessment procedures (3)

A

(1) time consuming, (2) requires that observers be appropriately trained and (3) cannot be used to monitor covert behaviours.

67
Q

direct assessment procedure

A

trained observer observes and records target behaviour in settings in which it occurs

68
Q

experiemntal assessment procedure (functional analysis)

A

direct assessment in which modifier manipulates potential controlling variables and records target behaviour

69
Q

reasons for collecting accurate data during the preprogram assessment (6)

A

(1) helps the modifier decide whether they are the appropriate one to design the program, (2) sometimes indicates that what was thought to be a problem is not, (3) often helps to identify causes and best treatment strategy (functional assessment), (4) helps determine whether the program is producing the desired change, (5) publicly posted data (graph) provides reinforcement in feedback form to continue procedure for those carrying it out (6) displayed data might lead to improvements over and above those produced by procedure (reactivity)

70
Q

reactivity

A

observers are less accurate if unaware they are being observed

71
Q

behavioural vs psychodiagnostic approach to assessment: basic assumption

A

behavioural: performance is a sample of a person’s response to specific stimuli
psychodiagnostic: performance is a sign of an enduring, intrapsychic trait

72
Q

behavioural vs psychodiagnostic approach to assessment: goals

A

behavioural: identify excesses, deficits and environmental causes of current problem behaviours
psychodiagnostic: diagnose or classify individuals while identifying intrapsychic or trait causes of behaviour

73
Q

behavioural vs psychodiagnostic approach to assessment: methods

A

behavioural: preference for direct observation
psychodiagnostic: direct assessment is impossible

74
Q

behavioural vs psychodiagnostic approach to assessment: frequency

A

behavioural: preference for continuous assessments before, during and after application of intervention
psychodiagnostic: typically pre- and posttreatment assessments bases on standardized tests

75
Q

dimensions of behaviour (6)

A

(1) topography, (2) rate/frequency, (3) duration (4) intensity, (5) stimulus control, (6) latency and (7) quality

76
Q

topography

A

form of a behaviour; the specific movements involved in making the response

77
Q

stimulus control

A

the degree of correlation between a stimulus and speed of response

78
Q

latency

A

time between the event onset and response

79
Q

quality of behaviour

A

not an additional characteristic, rather a refinement of one of more of the others

80
Q

techniques for ways of recording behaviour during a specific observation period (3)

A

(1) continuous (event-frequency), (2) interval and (3) time-sampling

81
Q

continuous (event-frequency) recording

A

record every instance of a behaviour during a designated observation period; must be an easily observable behaviour with a short duration and/or same discrete duration each time

82
Q

interval recording

A

log the behaviour as either occuring or not occurring during short intervals of equal duration during the specified observation period

83
Q

types of interval recording (2)

A

partial-interval AND whole-interval

84
Q

partial-interval recording

A

record the target behaviour a maximum of once per interval regardless of how many times it occurs during the interval or its duration

85
Q

whole-interval recording

A

pnly record occurence if duration lasts whole interval

86
Q

time-sampling recording

A

record behaviour occurence in short time intervals separated by long periods of time

87
Q

momentary time sampling recording

A

record behaviour as occurring or not occurring at specific points in time (such as every hour on the hour) rather than during specific time intervals

88
Q

sources of assessment error (5)

A

(1) response definition, (2) observational situation, (3) poorly trained, unotivated or biased observer, (4) poorly designed data sheets and (5) cumbersome recording procedures

89
Q

observer biases (5)

A

(1) reactivity, (2) observer drift, (3) oberver expectancy, (4) feedback and (5) complexity of the observations

90
Q

observer drift

A

tendecny for an oberver’s definition of the target behaviour to gradually shift away from the definition the observer was originally given

91
Q

observer expectancy

A

tendency for the observations to inaccurately show improvement in the target behaviour as a function of the observer expecting the behaviour to improve

92
Q

feedback

A

tendency of the observations to be influenced by positive or negative feedback inadvertantly provided to the observer by their supervisor

93
Q

complexity of the observations

A

tendency for observations to be less accurate if the definition of the target response has many parts OR the observer is required to observe multiple behaviours at the same time

94
Q

interobserver reliability (IOR)/ agreement (IOA)

A

degree of agreement from multiple independent observers of same behaviour at the same time

95
Q

frequency/ rate IOA calculation

A

smaller number divided by larger number multiplied by 100

96
Q

partial-interval IOA calculation

A

agreements divided by total (agreements plus disagreements) multiplied by 100

97
Q

acceptable range of IOA scores

A

80%-100%

98
Q

external validity

A

extent that the finding can be generalized to other behaviours, individuals, settings or treatments

99
Q

internal validity

A

convincingly demonstrating that the independent variable caused theobserved change in the dependent variable

100
Q

reversal-replication (ABAB or withdrawl) design

A

an experimental design consisting of a baseline phase followed by a treatment pahse, followed by a reversal back to baseline conditions, and followed by a replication of the treatment phase; demonstrates cause and effect

101
Q

how long should the baseline phase be?

A

long enough to show a stable pattern of performance or until it shows a trend in the direction oppostie to that predicted when the independent variable is introduced

102
Q

considerations for length of baseline phase (3)

A

(1) newness of the IV and DV in research, (2) practical considerations such as the researcher’s time availability and (3) ethical considerations

103
Q

when is one replication enough? (2)

A

when the change is very large and the area has been studied before

104
Q

when is reversal-replication inappropriate? (2)

A

(1) when it is unethical to reverse to baseline conditions and (2) when it is impossible due to behavioural trapping

105
Q

purpose of multiple-baseline designs

A

used to demonstrate the effectiveness of a particular treatment without reversing to baseline conditions

106
Q

multiple-baseline (across behaviour) design

A

establish baselines for two or more behaviours concurrently and then introduce the treatment sequentially across those behaviours (AAA, BAA, BBA, BBB); only valid if behaviour only changes from baseline (A) when treatment is introduced (independent behaviours)

107
Q

problems with multiple-baseline designs (3)

A

(1) behaviours might not be independent, (2) may not be able to find two or more suitable behaviours or enough observers and (3) only internally valid with that individual (be cautious extrapolating to other individuals)

108
Q

multiple-baseline-across-situations design

A

establish baselines for a behaviour across two or more situations concurrently and then introduce the treatment sequentially across those situations

109
Q

multiple-baseline-across-people design

A

establish baselines for a specific behaviour across two or more people concurrently and then introduce the treatment sequentially to each person

110
Q

problems with multiple-baseline-across-people designs (2)

A

(1) first individual might explain treatment to other individuals causing them to improve without treatment and (2) not always possible to find two or more individuals with the same problem (or the additional observers)

111
Q

changing-criterion design

A

introduce successive changes in the behaviour criterion for application of the treatment

112
Q

alternating-treatments (multielement) design

A

alternate two or more treatment conditions, one condition per session, to assess their effects on a single behaviour of a single individual

113
Q

problem with the alternating-treatments (multielement) design

A

treatments might interact

114
Q

major sets of criteria used to evaluate the effect of a treatment (2)

A

scientific AND practical

115
Q

criteria/ guideline for increasing scientific confidence in treatment effect (7)

A

(1) more replications or repetitions, (2) fewer overlapping points between baseline and treatment, (3) sooner observable effect following treatment introduction, (4) larger effect compared to baseline, (5) precise and accurate treatment procedure specfied, (6) reliable response measures and (7) findings consistent with existing data and accepted behavioural theory

116
Q

what are judgements about the practical importance of a behaviour change referred to?

A

judgements of clinical effectiveness or social importance

117
Q

levels of social validity (3)

A

(1) the extent to which the target behaviours are really the most important ones for the client and society, (2) acceptability to the client of the particular procedures used and (3) satisfaction of consumer with the results

118
Q

positive reinforcement

A

consequence presented contingent on a behaviour that increases the likelihood that a person will do that behaviour in that context

119
Q

operant behaviours (responses)

A

behaviours that operate on the environment to generate consequences and are in turn influenced by those consequences

120
Q

negative reinforcement (escape conditioning)

A

removal of certain stimuli immediately after the occurrence of a response that increases the likelihood of that response

121
Q

principle of positive reinforcement

A

if someone in a given situation does something that is followed immediately by a positive reinforcer, then that person is more likely to do the same thing the next time they encounters a similar situation

122
Q

factors influencing the effectiveness of positive reinforcement (8)

A

(1) clearly defining and identifing target behaviour, (2) choosing “reinforcer”, (3) motivating operations, (4) reinforcer size, (5) use rules/ instructions (langauge is a human advantage), (6) reinforcer immediacy, (7) contingent versus noncontingent reinforcers and (8) weaning the learner from the program and changing to natural reinforcers

123
Q

why do you need to specifically identify the target behaviour for positive reinforcement? (2)

A

(1) helps to ensure the reliability of detecting instances of the behaviour and changes in its frequency (accurate measurement) and (2) increases the likelihood that the reinforcer program will be applied consistently

124
Q

types of positive reinforcers (5)

A

(1) consumable, (2) acitvity, (3) manipulative, (4) possessional and (5) social (often natural)

125
Q

aids for choosing a positive reinforcer (3)

A

(1) reinforcer menu, (2) Premack principle (record what they do day-to-day) and (3) survey

126
Q

deprivation

A

time without access to reinforcer increases reinforcer effectiveness

127
Q

satiation

A

when the individual has experienced the reinforcer to such an extent that it is no longer reinforcing

128
Q

motivating operations (MOs)

A

events or conditions that temporarily alter the effectiveness of a reinforcer

129
Q

how do instructions facilitate behavioural change? (3)

A

(1) specific instructions will speed up the learnign process for indivuals who understand them, (2) instructions may influence an individual to work for delayed reinforcement and (3) adding instructions to a program may help individuals learn to follow insturctions

130
Q

bribery

A

promise of reinforcers for immoral or illegal deeds

131
Q

how are long-delayed reinforcers sometimes effective with humans?

A

certian events mediate between the response and the long-delayed reinforcer

132
Q

what is the indirect-acting effect of positive reinforcement?

A

the strengthening of a response that is followed by a reinforcer even though the reinforcer is delayed

133
Q

contingent reinforcer

A

a specific behaviour must occur before the reinforcer will be presented

134
Q

non-contingent reinforcer

A

reinforcer that is presented at a particular time regardless ofthe preceding behaviour

135
Q

pitfalls of non-contingent reinforcers (2)

A

do not increase desirable behaiovur AND may increase undesirable behaviour that they happen to follow

136
Q

adventitious reinforcement

A

when a behaviour is “accidentally” followed by a feinforcer and thereby increases even though it didn’t produce the reinforcer

137
Q

natural reinforcers

A

reinforcers that follow beahviour in the course of everyday living

138
Q

pitfalls of positive reinforcement (4)

A

(1) unaware-misapplication, (2) assuming non-contingent reinforcers will strengthen behaviour, (3) assume that positive reinforcement is the explanation for a behaviour without investigating the operating contingencies of reinforcement, (4) use labels as explanations for behaviouror lack of behaviour and (5) not applying procedures because they are assumed to be too complex

139
Q

ways of inaccurately explaining behaviour (2)

A

oversimplification AND labels

140
Q

guidelines for the effective application of positive reinforcement (4)

A

(1) select the beahviour, (2) select a reinforcer, (3) apply positive reinforcement and (4) wean from the program

141
Q

qualities of a strong reinforcer (4)

A

(1) readily available, (2) can be presented immediately following the desired behaviour, (3) can be used over and over agian withough causing rapid satiation and (4) does not require a great deal of time to consume

142
Q

steps of applying positive reinforcement (4)

A

(1) explain the plan, (2) reinforce immediately following the desired beahviour, (3) describe the desired behaviour to the individuals while the reinforcer is being givern and (4) use lots of vaired praise and physical contact when dispensing reinforcers

143
Q

products of behaviour

A

outcome or goal (not actually a behaviour)

144
Q

how is behaviour lawful?

A

it is systematically influenced by environmental events

145
Q

behavioural principles

A

describe how behaviour is influenced by environmental events

146
Q

rate/frequency

A

number of instances in a unit of time

147
Q

duration

A

length of time a taret behaviour occurs

148
Q

intensity

A

force, magnitude, physical effort/energy in behaviour

149
Q

diagnostic label

A

label for a collection of behaviours that define a diagnostic category

150
Q

forces leading to change in treatment of individuals with developmental disabilities (3)

A

(1) normalization (Wolfensberger), (2) civil rights advocates and parents secured right to education and (3) behaivour modifiers created techniques to improve their behaviours

151
Q

punishment should always be paired with…

A

reinforcement of functional and incompatible alternate behaviour

152
Q

increase in ASD diagnoses since 2000

A
2000 = 1/150
now = 1/68
153
Q

fundamental question of behaviour modification research

A

did the behaviour change as a result of the treatment or an uncontrolled/interferring variable that changed concurrently with the treatment?

154
Q

behavioural trapping

A

when treatment is removed but natural reinforcers take over thereby stopping behaivour from returning to baseline

155
Q

reasons “reinforcer” does not equal “reward” (3)

A

(1) reinforcement is a more general concept, (2) reinforcer is defined solely by its effect on behaviour, a reward is not and (3) reinforcement refers to a relationship between a behaviour and consequence rather than a property of a stimulus

156
Q

_ may be _, but not all _ are _ (reward or reinforcer)

A

REWARDS may be REINFORCEMENT, but not all REINFORCERS are REWARDS

157
Q

is conscious awareness required for the positive reinforcement learning process?

A

no; cognitive conditioning is a theory but it is not supported

158
Q

what is the origin of positive reinforcement?

A

Thorndike’s law of effect

159
Q

Premark principle

A

an opportunity to engage in more probable behaviors will reinforce less probable behaviors

160
Q

why is a reinforcer reinforcing? (2)

A

(1) drive reduction theory or (2) premack principle

161
Q

drive reduction theory

A

when not met, biolgoical needs such as hunger and thirst produce unpleasant internal states of stimulation; any stimulus that reduces that unpeasant stimulation would function as reinforcement for the behaviour that produced it (negative reinforcement)

162
Q

Learned Industriousness Theory (Robert Eisenberger)

A

reinforcing an individual for achieving a performance standard increase the likelihood of that individual performing at that level again