Bacterial and Fungal Pneumonias; Tuberculosis Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

What is the number one leading cause of death from infectious disease?

A

complicates the course of 1/20 hospital patients

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2
Q

How do smoking and alcoholism predispose to pneumonia?

A

Smoking - paralyzes cilia, also predisposes to COPD

Alcoholism - malnutrition, depressed level of consciousness, and poor ciiary function

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3
Q

What pneumonias are transmitted by inhalation of airborne organisms?

A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Legionella
  4. Fungi
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4
Q

In what situations might you get hematogenous spread which leads to pneumonia?

A

IV drug users, infected IV lines, bloodborne infections from elsewhere in the body

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5
Q

How will a lobar pneumonia present via auscultation, percussion, and vocal fremitus? What classically causes this?

A

Auscultation - bronchial breath sounds
Percussion - dullness
Vocal fremitus - increased vibrations

Classically caused by S. pneumoniae, but need to keep in context the situation (nosocomial vs community acquired vs immunosuppressed)

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6
Q

What will patchy or interstitial pneumonia cause on auscultation?

A

rales (crackles)

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7
Q

How will pleural effusion present on tactile fremitus?

A

Decreased transmission

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8
Q

Associate each of the following sputum consistencies with a microbe:

  1. Rusty
  2. Currant jelly
  3. Creamy yellow
  4. Foul odor
A

Rusty - S. pneumoniae
Currant jelly - Klebsiella pneumoniae
Creamy yellow - S. aureus
Foul odor - anaerobes

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9
Q

What is the definition of a good sputum sample?

A

<10 epithelial cells and >25 PMNs per low power field

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10
Q

Who is mycoplasma pneumonia common in and how does its constitutional symptoms differ from S. pneumonia (usual)?

A

Occurs in young, healthy people, especially in outbreaks at school or in military recruits in fall and winter

Mycoplasma is an atypical so it has a more insidious onset (rather than abrupt), a nonproductive cough (rather than rusty sputum), and no leukocytosis

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11
Q

How does Mycoplasma appear on CXR and what is one rare but very specific finding seen in this infection?

A

CXR: Patchy bronchopneumonia, will cause rales on physical exam sometimes

Bullous myringitis - inflammation of tympanic membrane

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12
Q

Who typically gets Legionella?

A

Immunosuppressed, smokers, COPD, advanced age, male, with cardiac disease
-> need some degree of immunosuppression for severe infection

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13
Q

What is the primary cardiac symptom of Legionella? What treatment against it is effective?

A

Relative bradycardia
-> patient’s heart rate will only be high normal, which is lower than expected given how high their fever is

Treatment: Macrolides (think of crows on the crane)

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14
Q

What bacterial pneumonia occurs in COPD and is known for a very large amount of sputum production?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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15
Q

What pneumonia is known for a lobar pneumonia causing bulging fissures because there is so much exudate? Who does it occur in?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Occurs in alcoholics and diabetics

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16
Q

What types of pneumonias are known for causing an air-fluid level on CXR?

A

Necrotizing pneumonias like S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, and ESPECIALLY anaerobic pulmonary infections -> cause a cavity lung abscess

17
Q

What is the treatment for anaerobic pneumonias? Is the course of the disease typically acute or chronic?

A

Long course of penicillin and clindamycin

Typically a subacute / chronic course - with h/o poor dental hygiene, malaise, and foul-smelling sputum

18
Q

What pneumonia is marked by a slowly progressive infection causing worsening CXR infiltrates and hypoxemia in HIV patients? What is the treatment?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Treatment: TMP/SMX first line, with pentamidine IV if allergic (think of the pentagon ping pong paddles)

19
Q

What does skin testing for coccidioides mean if it goes from negative to positive or positive to negative?

A

Negative to positive: new infection

Positive to negative: severe or disseminated disease

20
Q

What is the usual testing used to detect Coccidioides which may be missing the diagnosis depending on when this is done? Why might this be preferred over cell culture?

A

IgM / IgG serologies

IgM positive after 2-4 weeks, IgG becomes positive later

High IgG titers is prognostic for a very high chance of disseminated disease

Preferred over culture because the mold grown in the lab is very infectious

21
Q

What are common and more specific symptoms of primary coccidioidomycosis?

A

Fever, cough, joint aches (guy kneeling in sketchy)

Erythema nodosum - think shin lesions on wall in sketchy

22
Q

Who is at highest risk for disseminated coccidioidomycosis and where does it tend to spread?

A

Young or old, immunosuppressed, blacks, mexicans, and native americans

Can disseminate to skin (erythema nodosum) or cause fatal meningitis (think of guy leaning on immunocompromised fountain with neck brace)

23
Q

Who is at greatest risk for chronic and disseminated histoplasmosis?

A

Chronic - patients with COPD

Disseminated - Immunocompromised, can spread like miliary TB

24
Q

What are the diagnostic tests best used for diagnosis of histoplasmosis and blastomycosis?

A

Histoplasmosis - urine and serological testing (think of red and yellow stalactites in sketchy)

Blastomycosis - Culture is definitive, organism grows fast

25
How are aspergillus hypersensitivity pneumonitis and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA, associated with asthma) treated? What will CXR and serology show?
Treat with corticosteroids, or avoidance of Aspergillus CXR shows migratory infiltrates, serology shows elevated IgE
26
In what patient populations do we see aspergilloma and invasive aspergillosis?
Aspergilloma - site of pre-existing cavity (i.e. old TB) -> may need surgical excision to prevent vascular invasion, but rarely treated Invasive aspergillosis - post transplant or bone marrow irradiation in immunocompromised, very high mortality
27
How are nontuberculous mycobacterial infections diagnosed definitively and why?
They may be just colonizers or actually pathogens Diagnosed by at least TWO positive sputum cultures, or ONE positive culture from bronchial lavage / biopsy.
28
How are different nontuberculous mycobacteria told apart, and how do they appear on CXR?
Told apart by growth rate and specific pigment production CXR - nodular or cavity lesions
29
What are risk factors for reactivation of latent TB?
Silicosis, HIV, substance abuse, corticosteroids / immunosuppressives, organ transplant, inflammatory bowl diseases, diabetes, etc
30
If a TB treatment regimen is failing, what should you do?
Add on at least TWO more medications, never just one, since resistance is likely
31
What is required for positive diagnosis of TB via sputum sampling?
At least three sputum samples taken 8 hours apart, with at least one being a morning sample Three positives required, negative does not exclude TB -> use these for culture in broth, 4-14 days
32
Where should the PPD skin test be injected?
INTRAdermally (not subdermally), can see 2-8 weeks after infection
33
What is the rule used to interpret a positive PPD test?
5/10/15 mm rules 5 or more: positive if HIV, CXR consistent with TB, any immunosuppression, or recent TB contacts 10mm or more: recent travel from high prevalence area, IV drug use, lab personnel, age <5 (common in young children), BCG vaccine falls here 15mm or more: positive even with no other known factors
34
How do the lymphocyte tests for TB work?
3 tubes or plates are run Plate / Tube 1: lymphocytes alone (proliferation = background noise, nil Plate / Tube 2: Lymphocytes + TB antigen Plate / Tube 3: Lymphocytes + Known mitogen, positive control Response is equal to plate 2 minus plate 1 (background noise). Certain threshold = sensitization vs TB = infection