Bacterial Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Advantages of microbes for genetics (6 advantages)

A

Simple to maintain and cultivate
Reproduce rapidly
Large populations are produced quickly, allowing for spontaneous mutants to arise
Selection techniques can be used on bacteria
Bacteria are haploid so phenotype mutations are seen immediately
Small genome

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2
Q

How did they create the first synthetic bacterium? (5 steps)

A
  1. Designed bacterium sequences on a computer
  2. These sequences were synthesised and assembled and ligated to form a circular chromosome
  3. The chromosome was then propagated into yeast to clone it
  4. The chromosome was then isolated and transplanted into an existing bacterium
  5. The original bacterium DNA was digested, leaving the synthetic chromosome
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3
Q

Forward vs Reverse genetics?
Which is easier and why?

A

Forward - Identification of genes responsible for a given phenotype
Reverse - Identification of phenotypes caused by a specific gene

Forward is easier as you already have the phenotype, so you can do screens for genes that affect that phenotype

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4
Q

Explain complementation
Forward or reverse genetics?
When is it a particularly useful method?
(refer to image on notes)

A

Forward genetics
Useful if the gene is an operon; Polarity effects

Mutation in gene A could knock out whole operon
If we insert each gene separately, and the phenotype reverts to wild type, the gene introduced is the one that is mutated in the mutant phenotype

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5
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of complementation (1 for A; 2 for D)

A

Advantage - Emphasis is on the desired phenotype (e.g. loss of pathogenicity or growth on media lacking arginine)
Disadvantage – Slow; May be impossible to find all the genes in a species for a given phenotype

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6
Q

Process of reverse genetics (4 steps)

A
  • Mutate gene in vitro
  • Over-express the gene
  • Use RNA-seq to determine changes in the transcriptome
  • Determine phenotype of resulting mutant strains
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7
Q

What is a BiOLOG phenotype array?
Disadvantage of reverse genetics?

A

20 x 96 well plates, all with a defined media that can be altered (e.g. 96 different carbon or sulphur sources; Some wells may contain antibiotic)

Can be costly and may not reveal the phenotype

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8
Q

What are some uses of mutants? (5 uses)

A

Mutants help to identify genes involved in a particular function

Mutant phenotypes can be informative about pathways (e.g. blocks in pathways allow accumulation of intermediates)

Permit understanding of metabolic regulation (e.g. mutants of transcription factors that lead to upregulation of a gene)

Identifying the site of action of an antibiotic (e.g. rifamycin inhibits RNA synthesis; An insensitive mutant had a change in the RNA polymerase, proving that the antibiotic works by binding to the RNAP)

Conditional lethal mutations
- E.g. Temperature sensitivity
- Permissive temperature (e.g. 30°C) – Phenotype not apparent (behaves like wild type)
- Restrictive temperature (e.g. 37°C) – Mutant phenotype expressed
- Often mis-sense mutations destabilise protein structure/function only at the higher temperature; Allows us to study genes essential for viability
- We also use temperature sensitivity when constructing mutants in the lab

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9
Q

What is the name for a point mutation?
Types of point mutation? (2 types)

A

SNP - Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

Transition - Change from one pyrimidine/purine to another
Transversion – Change from a purine to pyrimidine (vice versa)

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10
Q

Other types of mutation? (3 types)

A

Larger mutations – Insertion of a section of DNA into chromosome e.g. transposon
Deletion of a portion of the chromosome
Inversion – Flipping a portion of a chromosome; Can be used to turn gene ‘on and off’

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11
Q

Other types of mutation? (4 types)

A

Silent – Change in codon/sequence causes no change in resulting amino acid
Missense mutation – Change one codon to another
Nonsense mutation – Change a codon to Stop
Frameshift mutation

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12
Q

What happens in a frameshift mutation?

A

Insert or delete a single base
Changes bases read by ribosome
Alters all codons downstream of mutation

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13
Q

What happens in slip strand mis-pairing?

A

Errors in DNA replication cause slippage of a codon so it is not base pairs to another codon but its neighbouring codons are base paired (see image on notes)

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14
Q

Sources of mutations? (5 sources) (elaborate a little bit)

A

Spontaneous mutation - Occur at the same rate in a cell over time
Electromagnetic radiation
Chemical - Analogues of bases; Base-modifying chemicals
Intercalators - Insert between bases of each strand of DNA; Cause frameshifts
Biological - Transposons

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15
Q

When does recombination/crossing over occur?
How long must the homology be?

A

When linear/plasmid DNA is homologous to another piece of DNA (non-homologous recombination can occur but it is rare)

Homology must be 500bp-100bp in length

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16
Q

How does site-specific recombination occur in bacteriophages?

A

The att system
Phage genome codes for integrase enzyme; Promotes recombination between att site of phage and att site of bacteria

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17
Q

What are the 4 types of DNA repair?

A

Methyl mismatch repair (MUT) – Mis-paired base cut out of strand
Nucleotide excision repair (NER) – Thymine dimers; Induced by UV
Base excision repair – Damaged bases; Excised by specific enzymes
Recombinational repair

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18
Q

What occurs in Methyl mismatch repair (MUT)? (refer to image on notes)

A

DNA becomes methylated at GATC site
Incorrect base inserted during replication, so no base pairing at a certain site

MutS binds to region of incorrect base pairing
MutS then recruits 2 enzymes, MutL, and MutH

MutL only recognises hemi-methylated DNA (DNA that’s methylated on the parental strand, but is missing on the new strand)
- MutL is globular and has 2 domains; These domains are brought together to drag DNA into a loop

MutH is an endonuclease, so it will make a nick in the DNA at the GATC site

The 2 strands are then unwound from eachother with UvrD (helicase) and an exonuclease removes damaged strand

DNAP I fills in the gap and a ligase ligates the ends

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19
Q

What occurs during Nucleotide excision repair (NER)? (repair of thymine dimers)

A

UvrA and UvrB enzymes come in as they recognise the thymine dimer

They bend the DNA, and UvrC (endonuclease) recognises the bend, and makes a nick on both sides of the dimer

Helicase unwinds and removes nicked part of strand
DNAP I comes in and fills gap and ligase ligates the ends

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20
Q

What occurs during Base excision repair?

A

DNA glycosylase comes in recognises base damage, and removes it; This is called an AP site
AP endonuclease nicks backbone of AP site

Helicase unwinds and removes region
DNAP I fills in gap and ligase seals the nick

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21
Q

What occurs during recombination repair?

A

Occurs just after DNA strand replication

Uses an enzyme called RecA which lines up regions of homology from sister strand to the gap
Strand invasion – Sister strand invades top strand

Gap filled in using DNAP I once the thymine dimer removed

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22
Q

When does SOS repair occur?
It is ______-prone?

A

When there are multiple mutations all across the chromosome

It is error-prone; Rapid but high error rate

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23
Q

How is the SOS response regulated?

A

SulA– Stop cell division
UmuDC – Encodes error prone polymerase DNAP V; Not very good for cloning but very fast
UvrA – Part of NER pathway

24
Q

How is RecBCD and RecA involved in homologous recombination?

A

RecBCD unwinds end of DNA fragment
Once it reaches a Chi site 98bp sequence) it nicks the DNA and continues to unwind the DNA; Creates single strand of DNA

RecA filament assembles on the ssDNA
RecA lines up recipient DNA and scans the dsDNA for homology
RecA catalyses strand invasion and single-stranded crossover (d-loop formation)

25
Q

How is RuvAB involved in homologous recombination?
The end result is a Holliday ________?

A

RuvAB enter and assemble at crossover point and pull the donor and recipient strands in opposite directions (branch migration)

Endonuclease cleaves one end of the D-loop and the nicked ends are ligated to strands
- At one end the crossover has been removed but there is still one on the other end; This is a Holliday junction

26
Q

What happens to a Holliday junction?
What enzyme is involved in this?

A

It is cleaved for a complete crossover
RuvC cleaves it

27
Q

What are the 2 ways RuvC cleaves the Holliday junction for complete crossover?

A

For linear donor DNA, the product of RuvC cleaving depends in how it cut the molecule
You also need a second crossover to maintain viability (circularity)

For this you need a second region of homology, and then you restore circularity

28
Q

How is homologous recombination used to make gene knockouts in gram positive bacteria?

A

We have host chromosome with genes A, B and C and we want to knockout gene B and replace it
We use linear donor DNA that is homologous to both A and C
We get a double recombination event and replace B with this donor DNA

29
Q

What is the lambda red system used for?

A

Single gene knockouts

30
Q

What are the 3 genes that lambda phage encodes for in the lambda red system?

How many bp of homology does it need?

A

Exo - 5’-3’ exonuclease that degrades 5’ ends of linear DNA
Beta - Binds to the single stranded 3’ ends generated by Exo and promotes annealing to complementary DNA
Gam - Binds to the host RecBCD complex to inhibit exonuclease activity

Needs 30-50bp of homology

31
Q

How is the pKD46 plasmid delivery system controlled?

A

Origin of replication is temperature sensitive, and so will only work at certain temperatures; Can replicate at permissive temp but not at restrictive temperature
- We use this system to get rid of the plasmid once were done with it

Resistance marker allows us to select for bacteria that have this plasmid

The pBAD promoter controls the Gam, Beta and Exo operon

32
Q

How is the pBAD promoter activated?

A

When arabinose is added to the culture

The transcription factor AraC detects Arabinose and activates promoter to produce the 3 proteins

33
Q

Explain improvements to lambda red system with image on notes

A
34
Q

Difference between insertion sequence and transposon?

A

Both can transpose but transposons contain additional genes to those required for transposition (e.g. antibiotic resistance gene)

35
Q

Differences between type 1 and type 2 transposons

A

Type 2 transposons can replicate themselves
They undergo simultaneous insertion and replication; One copy remains and one copy jumps

36
Q

How is the origin of target site duplicated?

A

Transposase makes staggered cuts in the target DNA
IS element attaches to the protruding ends
The gaps are filled in; Each jump creates new duplicated regions

(see image on notes)

37
Q

What happens in non-replicative transposition? (5 steps)
(see image on notes)

A
  1. Transposase aligns inverted repeats and flanking DNA
  2. One phosphodiester bond is cleaved on each strand at opposite ends of the IS element
  3. 3’-OH ends attack intact ends to produce hairpin structure and host carrier DNA is ejected and repaired
  4. Hairpins are re-nicked and 3’-OH ends attack recipient DNA
  5. The IS element has moved from one DNA site to another
38
Q

How do transposons affect the genome?

A

Cause interruptions in genes as they can insert at random sites

39
Q

How can transposons be selected for?

A

Antibiotic resistance or temperature-sensitive genes

40
Q

What does TMDH use?
What are run offs from transcription hybridised to?

A

It uses a modified transposon with outward facing T7 (5’) and SP6 (3’ promoters)

The run offs are hybridised to a microarray

41
Q

How can we determine essential genes using TMDH?

A

Compare the presence of mutants in an input and output pool
Mutants no longer present in output pool have transposons in an essential gene

42
Q

What are reporter gene fusions used for?

A

Detect whether or not a certain promoter is up or down regulated in a different condition

43
Q

Process of reporter gene fusion? (2 steps)

A
  1. Fuse reporter gene to test gene (targeted or random)
  2. Measure output from reporter – Simple standard enzyme assay (lacZ) or other readout (fluorescence GFP)
44
Q

What are the 2 methods of reporter gene fusion with a known gene?

A

Multi-copy reporter on a plasmid (dangers of titrating regulators; Not very accurate as there are multiple plasmids in a bacterial cell)

Single-copy reporter on the chromosome

45
Q

What are the 2 methods of reporter gene fusion with an unknown gene?

A

Modified transposons

Promoter traps

46
Q

What are the 2 types of fusions you can make to a reporter gene?

A

Transcriptional and translational

47
Q

What gene components are used in transcriptional fusion?

A

Use the promoter of the gene of interest, but the translational elements of the reporter gene

This will drive expression of the reporter

48
Q

What is the RBS?

A

Ribosome binding site

49
Q

What gene component is essential for transcriptional fusion?

A

The RBS of the reporter gene

50
Q

What gene components are used in translational fusion?

Why is only one product formed

A

Use the promoter and translational elements of the gene of interest to drive expression of the reporter (chimeric protein fusion)

This reports on transcription and translation

There is only one RBS (gene of interest) so the 2 genes are transcribed into 1 hybrid protein

51
Q

Process of GFP promoter traps (5 steps)

A

Digest bacterial DNA, by randomly fragmenting it with a restriction enzyme, and clone into a promoter-less GFP plasmid

They took all of these plasmids and introduced them into different bacteria; This creates a promoter library

FACS (Fluorescent Activated Cell Sorting) is used to split the population into mutants that are turned on and turned off; We want to see which are turned on inside the host

We discard the mutants that are already turned on (outside of host), as the promoters are driving expression outside of the host

We inoculate mice with mutants that are turned off, and after a time we recover bacteria and sort them with FACS again, into mutants that are turned on and turned off; The turned on mutants were activated by the host so we are interested in them

52
Q

How is CRISPR an immunity system?

A

Bacteria and archaea that survive a bacteriophage attack capture a piece of the attackers DNA (spacers) to counteract future attacks

52
Q

How is the CRISPR loci structured?

A

30bp repeat sequences separated by spacers

Adjacent to this cluster is the cas 9 gene (protein encoding)

52
Q

3 key features of CRISPR systems?

A

Adaptation – Insertion of new spacers into the CRISPR locus; Process where bacteria become immune

Expression – Transcription of the CRISPR locus and processing of CRISPR/guide RNA

Interference – Detection and degradation of mobile genetic elements by CRISPR RNA and Cas proteins; Guide RNA base pairs with incoming phage DNA, and this is then degraded by Cas9 nuclease

53
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53
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A