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BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Friedlander’s Bacillus

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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2
Q

Eberth’s bacillus

A

Salmonella typhi

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3
Q

Garter’s bacillus

A

Salmonella enteritidis

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4
Q

Aka Ritter’s Disease

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

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5
Q

Causes Bacterial Endocarditis

A

S. epidermidis

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6
Q

Most common cause of UTI in young, sexually active females

A

S. saprophyticus

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7
Q

Most common cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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8
Q

Most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the US

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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9
Q

Diagnostic test used in scarlet fever caused by GAS

A

Schultz-Charlton test

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10
Q

Susceptibility test used in scarlet fever caused by GAS

A

Dick’s test

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11
Q

Most serious sequela of S. pyogenes.
Presence of aschoff bodies

A

Rheumatic heart fever

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12
Q

Occurs after a cutaneous or pharyngeal infection.
Presence of dysmorphic rbc’s

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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13
Q

Causes neonatal meningitis
Mastitis in cattle

A

GBS

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14
Q

Wide zone of b-hemolysis

A

S. pyogenes

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15
Q

Narrow zone of b-hemolysis

A

S. agalactiae

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16
Q

Arrowhead-shaped zone of enhanced hemolysis at the juncture of the two organisms (CAMP test)

A

GBS (S. agalactiae)

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17
Q

Block/Rectangular shaped zone of enhanced hemolysis (Shovel head)

A

L. monocytogenes

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18
Q

Bow tie zone of enhanced hemolysis (Reverse CAMP)

A

C. perfringens

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19
Q

Causes lobar pneumonia

A

S. pneumoniae

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20
Q

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in ADULTS

A

S. pneumoniae

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21
Q

Coin with a raise rim appearance

A

S. pneumoniae

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22
Q

Causes Subacute bacterial endocarditis from individuals with damaged or prosthetic heart valves

A

Viridans streptococci

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23
Q

Tooth decay & Gingivitis

A

S. mutans

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24
Q

Meaning “flow of seed”

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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25
Q

Cause of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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26
Q

Appearance of violin string adhesions of the peritoneum to the liver

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

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27
Q

Added to the blood culture media to neutralize the effect of SPS against N. gonorrhoeae

A

Gelatin

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28
Q

1 cause of STD

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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29
Q

2 cause of STD

A

N. gonorrheae

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30
Q

Causes WATERHOUSE-FRIEDRICHSEN SYNDROME

A

N. meningitidis

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31
Q

Third most common cause of acute otitis media (middle ear infection)

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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32
Q

1 most common cause of acute otitis media (middle ear infection)

A

S. pneumoniae

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33
Q

2 most common cause of acute otitis media (middle ear infection)

A

H. influenzae

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34
Q

Hockey puck appearance and older colonies may give a “wagon-wheel”

A

M. catarrhalis

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35
Q

Dry, claylike consistency on SBA

A

N. elongata

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36
Q

Most common cause of UTI’s in humans

A

Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC)

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37
Q

The most common cause of a diarrheal disease sometimes referred to as TRAVELER’s diarrhea.

Weanling diarrhea
Delhi belly
Turista

A

ETEC

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38
Q

Infantile diarrhea
No toxin produced
Stool: Watery diarrhea with large amount of mucus but no apparent blood.

A

EPEC

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39
Q

Produce dysentery
Diarrheal illness is very similar to that produced by Shigella spp.
Stool: Minimal amounts of stool with BLOOD and MUCUS WITH LEUKOCYTES

A

EIEC

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40
Q

Shiga toxin-producing E. colo (STEC)/ Verotoxin-producing E. coli (VTEC)
Stool: Watery and bloody diarrhea W/OUT LEUKOCYTES

A

EHEC

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41
Q

Diarrheal syndromes and UTIs
Adhere to HEp2 cells, packed in an aggregative “stacked-brick pattern”

A

EAEC or EAggEC

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42
Q

Causes gastroenteritis/enterocolitis and enteric fevers

A

Salmonella

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43
Q

The most common manifestation of salmonellosis

A

Gastroenteritis/Enterocolitis

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44
Q

The most severe form of enteric fever

A

Typhoid fever

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45
Q

Rose spots
Pea soup stool

A

S. typhi

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46
Q

Currant jelly-like sputum

A

K. pneumoniae

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47
Q

Rusty sputum

A

S. pneumoniae

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48
Q

The only shigella that is positive for ODC and ONPG

A

S. sonnei

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49
Q

MUG negative

A

E. coli O157:H7

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50
Q

Emits dirty, musty odor like that of potatoes

A

Serratia odorifera

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51
Q

Resembles E. cloacae but can be differentiated by its YELLOW PIGMENT, WHICH INTENSIFIES at 25C

A

Enterobacter sakazakii

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52
Q

The only species of citrobacter that is H2S(+)

A

C. freundii

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53
Q

Source of OX-2 and OX-19

A

P. vulgaris

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54
Q

Source of OX-K

A

P. mirabilis

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55
Q

STALACTITE PATTERN appearance on broth culture.

Rough, cauliflower appearance at 48 hours on BAP

A

Y. pestis

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56
Q

Indole test detects what enzyme?

A

Tryptophanase

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57
Q

Indole test reagent

A

PDAB

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58
Q

An indole test preferred for Anaerobes?

A

Ehrlich

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59
Q

An indole test preferred for Enterobacteria

A

Kovac

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60
Q

Principle: Mixed acid fermentation pathway
Medium: Clark and Lubs medium

A

Methyl Red test

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61
Q

Principle: Butylene glycol pathway
Detects: ACETOIN
Positive: RED
Reagents: a-napthol, 40% KOH

A

Voges Proskauer

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62
Q

Positive and negative result in Citrate test

A

Positive: BLUE
Negative: GREEN

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63
Q

Entrobacter spp. which is LDC and ODC positive

A

E. aerogenes

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64
Q

At which pH does the Methyl Red test becomes positive

A

4.5
Below 4.4 methyl red becomes RED

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65
Q

Phenol red test becomes positive at pH?

A

6.8

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66
Q

Putrescine is an alkaline amine product of what bacterial enzyme?

A

Ornithine decarboxylase

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67
Q

Cadaverine is an alkaline amine product of what enzyme?

A

Lysine decarboxylase

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68
Q

Citrulline is an alkaline amine product of what bacterial enzyme?

A

Arginine decarboxylase

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69
Q

Malonate test used to differentiate which members of Enterobacteriaciae?

A

Salmonella subgroups 2,3 (former Arizona)

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70
Q

Causes clear stool

A

Vibrio cholerae

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71
Q

Shooting star motility

A

Vibrio spp. except V. metschnikovii

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72
Q

Kommabacillus
Rice watery stool
String test positive (0.5% sodium desoxycholate)
Pfeiffer’s phenomenon

A

V. cholera

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73
Q

Uses 2% sodium desoxycholate (bile solubility test)

A

S. pneumoniae

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74
Q

Enrichment medium for V. cholerae

A

Alkaline peptone water (pH 8.4)

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75
Q

Selective media for V. cholera

A

TCBS

76
Q

Halophilic and sucrose fermenter
Yellow on TCBS

A

Vibrio alginolyticus

77
Q

Halophilic and non-sucrose fermenter
Green on TCBS
exhibits KANAGAWA phenomenon (wagatsuma agar)

A

V. parahaemolyticus

78
Q

Non-halophilic
Non-sucrose fermenter (GREEN on TCBS)

A

V. mimicus

79
Q

A characteristics that separates Vibrio spp. from the Enterobacteriaceae

A

Oxidase +

80
Q

Causes red leg disease in frogs
Bull’s eye colonies on CIN

A

A. hydrophila (water loving)

81
Q

The only OXIDASE positive member of family Enterobacteriaceae
Triple positive: LDC, ODC, ADH

A

Plesiomonas

82
Q

The most common cause of BACTERIAL GASTROENTERITIS worldwide
Associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (ascending paralysis)

A

Campylobacter jejuni

83
Q

-Gram (-), curved, S-shaped or gull-winged.
-MICROAEROPHILIC
-Grows at 42C
-CPOP
-Darting motility/Single polar flagella
Skirrow’s medium, Butzler’s selective medium, Blaser’s medium

A

C. jejuni

84
Q

Most commonly used nonculture method for the diagnosis of H. pylori

A

Urea Breath Test

85
Q

Resistant to O/129, cannot grow in 6% NaCl broth

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

86
Q

-Leading cause of nosocomial respiratory tract infections.
- Agent of ecthyma gangrenosum
-Agent of Whirlpool dermatitis / “Jacuzzi” Hot Tub Syndrome / Businessman’s syndrome

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

87
Q

Agent of swimmer’s ears (mild otitis externa)
Agent of the blue green pus
Keratitis associated with contaminated contact lens solution

Odor: grape like
Culture (centrimide agar) Serrated confluent growth

A

P.aeruginosa

88
Q

Mucoid colonies seen in cystic fibrosis patients. (Gun-metal color)

A

P.aeruginosa

89
Q

IMViC result of P. aeruginosa

A
      • +
90
Q

2 complication of cystic fibrosis

Earthy odor/dirt-like odor on bap
Onion bulb rot in plants
Foot rot in humans

A

Burkholderia cepacia

91
Q

A respiratory tract zoonosis primarily affecting livestock such as horses, mules and donkeys.
Non-motile

A

Glanders disease

92
Q

Glanders disease is caused by?

A

Burkholderia mallei

93
Q

Cause of melioidosis

A

B. pseudomallei

94
Q

Aka Vietnamese time bomb/ Whitmore’s bacillus.
Bipolar staining on Gram stained smear

A

B. pseudomallei

95
Q

Fruity odor resembling apple or strawberries.
CPOP
Asaccharolytic

A

Alkaligenes faecalis

96
Q

Pigment us VIOLACEIN
CPOP
Ammonium cyanide odor in SBA/BAP

A

Chromobacterium violaceum

97
Q

Weak positive under glucose OF open tube test

A

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

98
Q

A nonfermenter recovered from eye wound is oxidase positive, motile with polar monotrichous flagella and grows @ 42C. Colonies are dry, wrinkled or smooth, buff to light brown color and are difficult to remove from the agar.

A

Pseudomonas stutzeri

99
Q

Dew drop colonies on staphylococcal streak.
#2 cause of Otitis media
Associated with epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae/Pfeiffer’s bacillus

100
Q

Most invasive serologic group of Haemophilus?

A

H. influenzae tybe b (Hib)

101
Q

Chancroid/Soft chancre
Gram stain: School of fish/railroad tracks/finger print appearance

A

H. ducreyi

102
Q

HOCKEY PUCK

A

M. catarrhalis
H. ducreyi

103
Q

Pink eye and Brazilian purpuric fever

A

Haemophilus aegyptius/Koch weeks bacillus

104
Q

The only X-factor requiring Haemophilus

A

H. ducreyi

105
Q

A soft chancre caused by H. ducreyi (painfull)

A

Chancroid

106
Q

Indurated or rubbery caused of T. pallidum (painless)

A

Chancre

107
Q

Cat bite fever
Etiologic agent of shipping fever (cattles)

A

Pasteurella

108
Q

Culture media: Castaneda (biphasic medium)

A

B. abortus

109
Q

Biologic agent of tularemia (fever)
Rabbit fever

A

Francisella tularensis

110
Q

Culture media: Regan-Lowe Agar/Charcoal, cephalexin blood agar (CCBA)

A

Bordetella pertussis

111
Q

Mercury droplets/aluminum paint/ Pearls

A

B. pertussis

112
Q

Inhabits the respiratory tract of dogs (kennel cough)

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

113
Q

Requires L-cysteine for growth

A

Legionella

114
Q

Febrile disease with pneumonia

A

Legionnaires’ disease

115
Q

Febrile disease without pulmonary involvement

A

Pontiac fever

116
Q

Cultured in BCYE
Colonies: Ground glass appearance (central), pink or light blue (periphery)

Mahon: Ground glass
Bailey: Outglass

A

Legionella

117
Q

Specimen used for Legionella isolation?

A

Bronchial washing

118
Q

Etiologic agent of Legionnaires’ Disease and Pontic fever

A

L. pneumophilia

119
Q

Agent of Pittsburg pneumonia

A

L. micdadei

120
Q

Agents of atypical pneumonia/ Walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia
Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) pneumonia
L. pneumophilia

121
Q

Agent of rat bite fever

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

122
Q

Rat bite fever/ SODOKU

A

Spirillum minus

123
Q

Anaerobic bacteria associated with inflammatory process in acne

A

Bifidobacterium

124
Q

Microorganism will grow only on culture media supplemented with either cysteine or cystine

A

Francisella tularensis

125
Q

Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevent

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

126
Q

Aka Kleb Loeffler’s bacillus
CPOP
Pseudomembrane in the throat
Bull’s neck
Club shaped
Chinese letter, palisades
Metachromatic granules/Volutin granules/Babe-Ernst granules
Non-motile

A

Corynebacterium diphteria

127
Q

Loeffler’s serum slant: POACHED EGG colonies
Cystine-tellurite blood agar (CTBA)

Skin test: Schick test (+): ERYTHEMA
In vivo: Guinea pig inoculation (+): Death
In vitro: Elek’s test (+): precipitin line

A

C. diphtheria

128
Q

In tinsdale agar: black colonies with brown HALO indicates:

A

C. diphtheria
C. ulcerans
C. pseudo-tuberculosis

129
Q

Test: Arrow head zone of ENHANCED hemolysis

A

CAMP

130
Q

Arrowhead zone of NO hemolysis

A

Reverse CAMP

131
Q

Nonmotile at 37C; motile at 25C

A

L. monocytogenes
Y. enterocolitca

132
Q

CAMP +
Rectangular/Block shaped zone of hemolysis
End over end motility
“Umbrella” pattern (seen only at RT)
Culture media: McBride Agar
Pathogenicity test: Anton test

A

L. monocytogenes

133
Q

Agent of purulent conjunctivitis or conjuctiva of rabbit

A

L. monocytogenes

134
Q

Non-motile bacilli
CNON
TEST TUBE BRUSH-like or PIPE CLEANER

A

Erisipelothrix rhusiopathiae

135
Q

Cause of erysipeloid/diamond cut
This organisms usually are inoculated through work activities (seal finger and whale finger)

A

E. rhusiopathiae

136
Q

The only catalase negative, gram positive non spore forming rod that produces H2S

A

E. rhusiopathiae

137
Q

Most prominent nocardia spp. human pathogen

A

N. asteroids

138
Q

Causes cutaneous infections (actinomycotic mycetomas)

A

N. brasiliensis

139
Q

Mycetomas caused by bacteria are called

A

Actinomycotic mycetomas

140
Q

Mycetomas caused by fungi are known as

A

Eumycotic mycetomas

141
Q

Lumpy jaw actinomycoses
Colony appear as “Molar tooth”

A

Actinomyces israelii

142
Q

Catalase +
Spore form under aerobic conditions
Non-swollen sporangia

A

Bacillus

143
Q

Catalase -
Spore form under anaerobic conditions
Swollen sporangia

A

Clostridium

144
Q

Oval spores: Non-swollen, centrally located
Non-motile

Spore: Calcium dipicolinate
Capsule: Polypeptide (D-glutamic)

A

B. anthracis

145
Q

Medusa Head
Comma shaped
Curled hair
Beaten egg white appearance
String of pearls
Inverted fir tree

A

B. anthracis

146
Q

Most common biological indicator
Most common laboratory contaminant

A

Bacillus subtilis/Hay bacillus

147
Q

Common cause of necrotizing fasciitis

A

C. perfringens

148
Q

Lecithinase +
Reverse CAMP +
Nagler plate
Litmus milk: Stormy clot fermentation

A

C. perfringens

149
Q

Snow shoe
Flaccid paralysis

A

C. botulinum

150
Q

Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis
Culture in CCFA (Horse barn odor and Yellow green fluorescence)

A

Clostridioides difficile

151
Q

Virus: Adult gastroententeritis

A

Norwalk-like virus

152
Q

Infants and young gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

153
Q

Eosinophilic material seen in Sporotrichosis

A

Asteroid bodies

154
Q

Brown black structures pathognomonic for chromoblastomycosis

A

Schlerotic bodies

155
Q

A unicellular or multicellular spore that is not enclosed in a sac

A

Conidiospore

156
Q

Candida spp exhibits spider or sagebrush colonies

A

C. parapsilosis

157
Q

Sedimentation technique best used for the recovery of Trichinella spiralis

A

Acid-ether sedimentation

158
Q

A member of subphylum Sarcodina characterized of having a large spherical karyosome surrounded by periendosome

A

Iodamoeba

159
Q

Caused flask-shaped or tear-drop shaped ulcerations

A

E. histolytica

160
Q

Parasite concomitant with Pinworm infection

A

D. fragilis

161
Q

Lemon shaped cyst with a nipple shaped anterior

A

C. mesnili

162
Q

Diagnostic stage of Leismania

A

Promastigote

163
Q

This parasite takes up hogs as a reservoir host

A

Balantidum coli

164
Q

This parasite causes a characteristic “wide mouth and rounded base”ulceration

A

B. coli

165
Q

It is the actively dividing forms parasite by multiple fission

A

Schizont

166
Q

Test used for the detection of toxoplasmosis

A

Sabin-Feldman dye test

167
Q

What parasite causes Oxyuriasis

A

Enterobius vermicularis

168
Q

The only gram positive bacteria with endotoxin

A

L. monocytogenes

169
Q

Definitive host of malarial parasites

A

Vector: Mosquito (female anopheles)

170
Q

Intermediate host of malarial parasites?

A

Man

171
Q

What is the infective stage the IH of malarial parasites

A

Sporozoites

172
Q

What is the infective stage to the definitive host of malarial parasites?

A

Gametocyte

173
Q

Diagnostic stage to the intermediate host of malarial parasites

A

Gametocytes

174
Q

Infective stage of protozoan parasites

A

Cyst

175
Q

Infective stage of T. vaginalis

A

Trophozoite

176
Q

Infective stage of plasmodium

A

Sporozoite

177
Q

Infective stage of trypanosoma

A

Trypomastigote

178
Q

Infective stage of Leishmania

A

Promastigote

179
Q

Nematodes
Infective stage is Embryonated Egg

A

A. lumbricoides
T. trichuria
H. nana
E. vermicularis
Capillaria hepatica

180
Q

Nematodes
Infective stage is LARVA

A

T. spiralis
C. philippinensis

181
Q

Infective stage for S. stercoralis and Hookworm spp.

A

Filariform larva

182
Q

Infective stage for Filaria

A

3rd stage larva

183
Q

Schistosoma infective stage

A

Cercaria

184
Q

Trematodes
Infective stage is Metacercaria

A

E. ilocanum
P. westermani
F. hepatica
F. buski
C. sinensis
O. felineus
Hetrophyids

185
Q

The first larval stage of a trematode which is hatched from an egg often ciliated and free-swimming is known as:

A

Miracidium

186
Q

Tooth brush like conidiosphores

A

Acremonium

RMT (10 decks)

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