BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
Capsules can be used for a:
A. Complement fixation
B. Hemagglutination test
C. Serotyping by swelling
D. Precipitation test
A
C
2
Q
To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing:
A. Antibiotics
B. Milk
C. Serum
D. B and C
A
D
3
Q
The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the:
A. Nucleus
B. Cell wall
C. Flagella
D. Capsule
A
D
4
Q
Dark staining granules are called:
A. Spores
B. Capsules
C. Cysts
D. Metachromatic
A
D
5
Q
Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as:
A. Psychrophilic
B. Thermophilic
C. Palisades
D. Pleomorphic
A
D
6
Q
In bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the:
A. Stationary phase
B. Logarithmic phase
C. Lag phase
D. A and B
A
A
7
Q
Which genera of bacteria form spores?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Bacillus
C. Clostridium
D. B and C
A
D
8
Q
Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called:
A. Anaerobes
B. Aerobes
C. Capnophiles
D. Aerotolerants
A
A
9
Q
The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as:
A. Thermophilic
B. Psychrophilic
C. Optimum
D. Mesophilic
A
C
10
Q
A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present?
A. Blood agar is too cold
B. Organism has a capsule
C. Plate was incubated too long
D. Plate was incubated at too high temperature
A
B
11
Q
On blood agar plates, a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as:
A. Gamma-hemolysis
B. Beta-hemolysis
C. Alpha-hemolysis
D. Alpha-prime
A
D
12
Q
When using fractional sterilization, the sequence is:
A. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria)
B. Incubation (spores germinate)
C. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria)
D. AOTA
A
D
13
Q
What is the most effective method of sterilization?
A. Autoclave
B. Dry heat oven
C. Boiling
D. Disinfection
A
A
14
Q
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus stearothermophilus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella typhi
A
A
15
Q
Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?
A. Seitz
B. Millipore (0.22um)
C. Millipore (0.5um)
D. A and B
A
B
16
Q
Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by:
A. Filtration
B. Chemical disinfectants
C. Antiseptics
D. Cannot be sterilized
A
A
17
Q
Which of the following is not a disinfectant?
A. Phenol
B. 70% alcohol
C. QUATS
D. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde
A
B
18
Q
Iodophors are composed of iodine and:
A. Phenolic compound
B. Detergent
C. 70% alcohol
D. 90-95% alcohol
A
B
19
Q
Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by:
A. Heat
B. P. aeruginosa
C. Organic material
D. Tap water
A
C
20
Q
What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental surface safe to handle?
A. Decontamination
B. Antisepsis
C. Disinfectant
D. Sterile
A
A
21
Q
What do gram-positive bacteria stain?
A. Purple
B. Green
C. Red
D. Maroon
A
A
22
Q
The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain is:
A. Gram’s iodine
B. Auramine
C. Heat
D. Acid-alcohol
A
C
23
Q
How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Acid alcohol
C. Tergitol no. 7
D. Slide warmer at 65 C for 2 hours
A
D
24
Q
Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
C. Purple
A
A
25
Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by which of the following methods?
A. Hiss
B. Kinyoun
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Negative stain
B
26
In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is:
A. Heated saline
B. Acetone
C. Acetone+alcohol
D. Alcohol + HCI
D
27
An example of a negative stain is:
A. Auramine-rhodamine stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. Methylene blue stain
C
28
Which of the following is NOT gram-negative?
A. Peptococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Branhamella
D. Aeromonas
A
29
Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe?
A. Veillonella
B. Fusobacterium
C. Actinomyces
D. Campylobacter
D
30
If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials?
A. Tryptic soy broth
B. Antihistamine
C. Thiol broth
D. Brain-heart infusion broth
C
31
From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This is most likely due to:
A. Anaerobes
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
C. Uncultivable bacteria e.g., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M. leprae
D. The specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated
B
32
Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing?
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device
B. Isolator
C. Septi-Chek
D. NOTA
A
33
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it:
A. Removes some antimicrobials
B. Prevents phagocytosis
C. Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
D. B and C
D
34
What is the most abundant normal flora in throat cultures?
A. Micrococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Legionella pneumophila
B
35
What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A
36
Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected?
A. Some may produce beta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions
B. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions
C. Streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions
D. Neither A nor B
A
37
Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as:
A. Hemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
B. Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis
C. Hemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix, Vibrio
D. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria
A
38
Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for:
A. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate
B. Primary culture for anaerobes
C. Stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella
D. Culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
D
39
Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to:
A. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria
B. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
C. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria
D. Stimulate gram-negative bacteria
B
40
Why is a first morning urine specimen préferred for urine cultures?
A. Specimen is diluted
B. Bacteria are all motile
C. Specimen is more concentrated
D. A and B
C
41
What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine?
A. Many squamous epithelial cells
B. Few white blood cells
C. 1-2 RBCs/hpf
D. Morphous uratas
A
42
In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution
A. Dilution is increased
B. Dilution is decreased
C. Dilution is increased 20%
D. Dilution is not affected
D
43
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from:
A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment
B. Uncentrifuged cerebrospinal fluid
C. Heated cerebrospinal fluid
D. Frozen cerebrospinal fluid
A
44
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually stained with:
A. Acid-fast stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. B and C
D
45
Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster?
A. Coagglutination tests
B. Latex agglutination tests
C. Counterimmunoelectrophorasis test
D Coagulase test
B
46
Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Coagglutination test
B. Latex agglutination test
C. Counterimmunoslectrophoresis
D. ELISA
A
47
Which of the following is not the cause of a venereal ¢isease?
A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
C
48
Using sheep blood for blood agar plates eliminates beta-hemolytic:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Neisseria
C. Streptococcus
D. Hemophilus
D
49
A positive tube coagulase test is observed for:
A. Bubbling
B. Agglutination
C. Liquefaction
D. Clotting of plasma
D
50
What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test?
A. Rabbit
B. Human
C. Sheep
D. Horse
A
51
Some citrate-positive organisms cause a false-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the
citrate
A. And releases calcium
B. As a source of calcium
C. As a beta-lactamase
D. And releases oxygen
A
52
A nonhemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive coccus is most likely to be:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus faecalis
B
53
The preferred method of differentiating S. aureus from S. epidermidis is:
A. Catalase test
B. Coagulase test
C. DNase/mannitol fermentation
D. Phage typing
B
54
Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females?
A. S. epidermidis
B. S. saprophyticus
C. S. aureus
D. S. hominis
B
55
Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of:
A. Potassium tellurite medium
B. MacConkey agar
C. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration
D. lowenstein-Jensen medium
C
56
The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning i the United States is:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Shigella dysenteriae type 1
B
57
Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose?
A. Staphylococci
B. Micrococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A
58
Which hemolysin, produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci, is oxygen stable and ronantigenic?
A. Streptolysin A
B. Streptolysin S
C. Streptolysin G
D. Streptolysin O
B
59
Cultures for beta-hemolytic streptococci must include:
A. Incubation at 25C to ensure growth of all strains
B. Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
C. Incubation with carbon dioxide
D. Media with glucose to show typical hemolysis
B
60
Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen?
A. Botulism toxin
B. Streptolysin O
C. Catalase
D. Coagulase
B
61
Match the following organisms with the biochemical test or tests that presumptively identify them. Tests may be used more than once.
1. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci
2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
4. Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci
5. Enterococcus
a. hippurate hydrolysis positive
b. CAMP test positive
c. bacitracin susceptible
d. bile-esculin positive
e. Optochin disk susceptible
f. optochin disk resistant
1. C
2. E
3. F
4. A and B
5. D
62
Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test, it is reported:
A. By the genus and species name
B. As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test
C. By its common name
D.NOTA
B
63
CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci inat:
A. Reduces the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci
B. Hydrolyzes the B factor
C. Causes a change in color
D. Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
D
64
A positive Quellung test is: .
A. Oxidation but not fermentation
B. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
C. Visible only by fluorescent light
D. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction
D
65
Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci?
A. Phadebac test
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Lancefield precipitin test
D. AOTA
D
66
When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units?
A. 10.00 units
B. 5.00 units
C. 0.02-0.04 units
D. 1.00-2.00 units
C
67
Match the disease in the first column with the organism in the second column. Letters in the second column may be used more than once:
1 scarlet fever
2. major pathogen of the newborn
3. "strep throat"
4. subacute bacteria endocarditis
a. group B streptococci
b. group A streptococci
c. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
68
What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common?
A. Autolysis is a negative result
B. Growth Inhibition is a positive result
C. They should not be done on blood agar
D. Either one will differentiate enterococci from viridans streptococci
B
69
The bile-esculin test is used to differentiate:
A. Enterococci from other group D streptococci
B. Streptococcus faecalis from Listeria
C. Group D streptococci from other strep
D. Group A from group B streptococci
C
70
Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate:
A. Group A from group B streptococci
B. Group B streptococci from enterococci
C. Listeria from streptococci
D. Preumococci from other viridans
A
71
A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate-hydrolysis positive, bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl is probably a/an:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Enterococcus
C. Group D strep
D. Diphtheroid
B
72
Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for:
A. Production of beta-lactamase
B. Bile solubility
C. Growth in NaCl
D. Resistance to bacitracin
A
73
Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following?
A. Neisseria
B. Staphylococcus
C. Listeria
D. Chlamydia
A
74
The diagnosis of gonorrhoeae in males can be made from:
A. Positive urethral smear
B. Symptoms
C. History
D. AOTA
D
75
Which of the following specimens may be appropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Eyes
B. Rectum
C. Oral cavity
D. AOTA
D
76
What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci?
A. Lowenstein-Jensen
B. Modified Thayer-Martin
C. Sheep blood agar
D. Potassium tellurite
B
77
Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin iredium from modified Thayer-Martin medium?
A. Nystatin
B. Vancomycin
C. Colistin
D. Trimethoprim lactate
D
78
Thayer-Martin medium is basically a/an:
A. Blood agar
B. Enriched MacConkey agar
C. Enriched chocolate agar
D. Potassium tellunte agar
C
79
What color is a positive oxidase test?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Dark purple
D
80
Which of the following genera are oxidase-positive?
A. Moraxella
B. Aeromonas
C. Nasisseria
D. AOTA
D
81
When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used?
A. Put a drop of reagent on the colony
B. Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent
C. Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent
D. AOTA
D
82
What do “PPNG" gonococci produce?
A. Penicillin-producing gonococci
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
B
83
Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase?
A. Chromogenic cephalosporin method
B. Acidometric method
C. lodometric method
D. AOTA
D
84
Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method?
A. Production of acid
B. Color change
C. Reduction of nitrates
D. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture
B
85
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a throat culture ight be:
A. Staphylococcus
B. An “EEG"
C. Fusobacterium
D. Neisseria
D
86
A fastidious, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a rectal swab might be:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Listeria
D. Branhamella catarrhalis
A
87
Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars7
A. Glucose
B. maltose
C. Lactose
D. A and B
D
88
Which of the following tests can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from middle-ear fluid?
A. Nitrate test
B. Ureasa test
C. Indole test
D. Beta-lactamase test
D
89
Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media?
A. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
B. May react with chemicals in the medium
C. Because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium
D. NOTA
A
90
What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium?
A. Inhibits the normal flora
B. Enriches the medium
C. Enriches pleomorphism
D. Enhances granule production
A
91
Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Gray-black
D
92
When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production?
A. Loeffler serum agar
B. Pal coagulated egg medium
C. A and B
D. neither A nor B
C
93
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Gram-negative, motile cocci
B. Gram-positive, motile cocci
C. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods D. Gram-negative, nonmotile rods
C
94
The term “palisading, “ "picket fence,” and “Chinese letter" describe the common arrangement of cells of:
A. Corynebacterium
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria
C. Actinomyces but not Nocardia
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacteria
A
95
Babes-Emst granules are characteristic of:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D
96
97
Which of the following are considered diphtheroids?
A. Corynebacterium xerosis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Corynebacterium JK
D. A and C
D
97
Which of the following diphtheroids is found in the normal throat?
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
C. Corynebacterium xerosis
D. Rhodococcus equi
B
98
The Elek test is for the detection of.
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
C. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vitro
D. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro
B
99
The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales:
A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C
100
