Bacteriology Quiz Questions Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

Most bacteria of veterinary importance are about what size?

A

1 micrometer

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2
Q

What structures are NOT found in bacterial cells? (check all that apply)

A

mitochondria, nucleus, lysosomes

cell membrane and ribosomes are

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3
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria are

A

facultative anaerobes

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4
Q

Which bacteria have two cell membranes

A

gram negatives

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5
Q

Selective media are those that

A

allow the growth of only some bacteria

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6
Q

Which are the main molecular targets of antibiotics in the bacterial cell?

A

DNA synthesis, replication, ribosomes and cell wall

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7
Q

Match the antibiotics listed to their targets

  1. Beta lactam antibiotics
  2. Fluoroquinolones
  3. Tetracyclines
  4. chloramphenicol
A
  1. cell wall
  2. DNA synthesis
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Ribosomes
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8
Q

The minimally inhibitory concentration is defined as

A

the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that can prevent growth of a bacterium

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9
Q

T or F: In general when comparing antibiotics it is good starting point to compare the MICs when deciding which antibiotic to use.

A

FALSE

Do not compare the MIC directly but only the interpretation provided by the laboratory. The the same MIC for two different antibiotics can mean very different things.

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10
Q

Tor F: The characteristic of a bactericidal or bacteriostatic antibiotic varies by concentration.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

The members of the family Enterobacteriaceae are

A

gram negative bacilli

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12
Q

Shigatoxigenic E. coli are often associated with

A

edema disease in pigs

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13
Q

Which Salmonella Species causes most diseases in calfs

A

enterica

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14
Q

O antigen is associated with what structure?

A

LPS

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15
Q

T or F: Antibiotics are the first line treatment for severe salmonella diarrhea cases

A

False

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16
Q

Campylobacter in poultry is characterized by

A

little or no disease

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17
Q

T or F: Lawsonia culture is a standard diagnostic technique

A

FALSE

As an obligate intracellular pathogen culture is very difficult and not done in a diagnostic setting.

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18
Q

Campylobacter spp are best characterized as

A

Microaerophillic

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19
Q

Helicobacter is

A

especially adapted to grow at a low pH

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20
Q

The incubation period for Jone’s disease is

A

a couple of years

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21
Q

bacteria in the genus Clostridium are

A

gram possitive anaerobes

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22
Q

Detection of Clostridium spp. in feces of a dog is

A

very common in healthy animals

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23
Q

T or F: Infection with Cl. tetani is required for disease

A

TRUE

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24
Q

T or F: Infection with Cl. botulinum is required for disease

A

FALSE

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25
Histotoxic Clostridium associated disease often follows
localized anaerobic condition
26
In dogs most UTIs are
complicated
27
T or F: when you perform midstream voided urine sampling in a dog you can expect less than 1000 bacteria in a ml of urine in healthy animals
FALSE up to 10,000 CFU is considered contamination in midstream voided urine sampling in dogs.
28
When you detect high levels of antibodies against leptospira in an unvaccinated animal you can assume that
The animal could be shedding leptospira organism in the urine
29
T or F: leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease where close contact to infected animals is required
FALSE Infections often occur through contaminated surface water.
30
Which are important defenses against UTIs
flushing, high osmolarity in urine, urea in urine
31
Brucella abortus is (check all that apply)
found in greater yellowstone area, a possible zoonosis
32
Characteristic of Campylobacter Jejuni
infections and diseas mainly in GI tract
33
characteristic of Campylobacter fetus ssp fetus
infection through GI tract, mainly reproductive disease
34
characterisitic of Campylobacter fetus ssp venerealis
infection and disease mainly in reproductive tract
35
characterisitic of Campylobacter fetus ssp venerealis
infection and disease mainly in reproductive tract
36
in chlamydia elementary bodies are
the infective form
37
You detect antibodies agains Brucella in an unvaccinated animal. What can you assume?
the animal is currently infected
38
You diagnose B. canis in a sire in a large scale commercial dog breeding operation. What is likely the best course of action?
euthanize
39
Listeriosis is a disease that
is acquired through the G tract but largely manifests clinically outside the Gi tract
40
Which is the most common source of infection of listeria in ruminants?
silage
41
Contagious mastitis (choose all that apply)
is often caused by udder adapted pathogens is often spread by milking equipment is most often ascending through the teat canal. Is often milder than environmental mastitis
42
What is the most effective way to prevent contagious mastitis?
post milking dipping
43
The california mastitis test detects
host cells in milk
44
T or F: Most pathogenic Staphylococcus species are coagulase negative
FALSE Most Staphylococcus species of veterinary importance are coagulase positive. Coagulase is a bacterial enzyme that leads to activation of the host coagulase cascade and leads to covering of the bacterium with host proteins and helps in avoiding immune responses.
45
The most common agent involved in skin infection in dogs is
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
46
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius is isolated from a dog. What does this mean? (pick the best answer).
S. pseudintermedius is often isolated form healthy dogs. The finding depends on the location of the sample and clinical picture
47
Members of the genus Bacillus are
gram positive aerobes
48
Disposal of carcasses from animals that died of anthrax is best done by
burning the carcass
49
Which type of organism is classically associate with migrating fox tail
Actinomyces
50
Farcy is caused by
Burgholderia mallei
51
Which animal species is most associated with diamond skin disease
pigs
52
Which agent causes melliodosis?
Burgholderia pseudomallei
53
What is associated with liver accesses in cattle?
high grain diet
54
The lower respiratory tract is
largely free of bacterial colonization
55
Kennel cough is best described as
a multifactorial disease
56
Strangles is caused by an organism in what species?
streptococus equi
57
Classically which organisms are involved in atrophic rhinitis (check all that apply)
Bordetella bronchoseptica Pasteurella multocida
58
which heloysis pattern is most often observed in pathogenic streptococcus species
beta
59
Mycobacterium do not stain well with the gram stain procedure because
they have a waxy cell wall
60
Which of the following bacteria regularly causes disease in Alaska? Choose all that apply)
Francisella tularensis Mycobacterium tuberculosis
61
in the laboratory plates are routinely incubated for how long to detect Mycobacterium bovid?
a couple of months
62
In Europe, which insect is considered the main vector for tularemia?
mosquitoes
63
What is the most important RESERVOIR for plague in Colorado
prairie dogs
64
Hemoplasma infection most often lead to
subclinical infections
65
Salmon poisoning disease is caused by
a bacterium transmitters by a fluke
66
Cat scratch fever is caused by:
Bartonella henselae
67
Possible differential diagnosis that present similar to cat scratch disease are:
plague Francisella infections
68
Lyme disease is transmitted
after about a day or so by ticks
69
Fungi are most closely related to.
animals
70
zoophilic fungi are characterized by
growing on animals
71
most clinical issues caused by fungi are associated with
reduced host defenses
72
teleomporph stages are
sexual stages
73
in dimorphic fungi disease is most often caused by
yeast