BAK

Question 1

What is the basic cause of motion sickness?

Answer 1

A disconnect between vision and balance.

Question 2

List factors that may aggravate motion sickness.

Answer 2

Flying unbalanced, heat, swaying, turning.

Question 3

List methods of combating motion sickness in flight.

Answer 3

Cooling, flying balanced, looking at the horizon.

Question 4

Describe the effects of positive and negative G accelerations.

Answer 4

G-lock: induced loss of consciousness. Cannot sustain high G for long – can pass out.

Question 5

State the sources, symptoms, effects, and treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning.

Answer 5

Sources: exhaust gases. Symptoms: headache, dizziness, impaired judgement. Treatment: fresh air, oxygen.

Question 6

Define ‘threat’ and give examples.

Answer 6

Any situation that can cause an undesired aircraft state. E.g. weather, wildlife, passengers, traffic.

Question 7

Give an example of a committed error and how to manage it.

Answer 7

Incorrect weight calculation → safety check + other opinion.

Question 8

Explain how checklists/SOPs prevent errors.

Answer 8

They prevent memory-based mistakes and assist with workload management and threat handling.

Question 9

Describe the basic principles of TEM (Threat & Error Management).

Answer 9

Identify threat → manage → avoid error → avoid undesired aircraft state.

Question 10

Give an example of how an undesired aircraft state can develop from an unmanaged threat or error.

Answer 10

Incorrect weight calculation → too heavy → poor performance → crash.

Question 11

List resources a pilot can use to avoid adverse weather.

Answer 11

Radio, GPS, compass, turning around.

Question 12

Why is task prioritisation important in managing undesired aircraft states?

Answer 12

To ensure aviate-navigate-communicate order is followed.

Question 13

How can interpersonal relationships impact flight?

Answer 13

Poor communication or distractions → undesired aircraft state.

Question 14

Recall symptoms and effects of hypoxia.

Answer 14

Euphoria, visual issues, dizziness, confusion, overconfidence. At altitude, time of useful consciousness decreases.

Question 15

List coping strategies for fatigue.

Answer 15

Quality sleep, sleep management, relaxation, fitness, diet.

Question 16

List illusions related to flight and disorientation.

Answer 16

Leans, somatogravic illusion, graveyard spin, false horizons, autokinetic illusions.

Question 17

Describe factors that affect night vision.

Answer 17

Dark adaptation, off-centre viewing, glare, empty-field myopia, prescription glasses.

Question 18

How does dehydration affect pilot performance?

Answer 18

It can cause headaches and impair concentration.

Question 19

What are the pilot’s obligations regarding medication and medical clearance?

Answer 19

Must inform the DAME and CASA of any medication being taken.

Question 20

Define RA and GA regarding medical exams.

Answer 20

RA = Self-declared, GA = DAME + CASA reviewed.

Question 21

What does CASA consider disqualifying medical conditions?

Answer 21

Only those that present a flight safety hazard.

Question 22

Define EW, BEW, ZFW, GW, MTOW, MLW.

Answer 22

EW: Empty Weight; BEW: Basic Empty Weight; ZFW: Zero Fuel Weight; GW: Gross Weight; MTOW: Max Takeoff Weight; MLW: Max Landing Weight.

Question 23

Give the pressure altitude formula.

Answer 23

PA = 30 × (1013 − QNH) + Elevation

Question 24

Give the density altitude formula.

Answer 24

DA = 120 × (OAT − (15 − 2 × PA/1000)) + PA

Question 25

What is the meaning of white cones with red line vs white cross on a taxiway?

Answer 25

White cones + red line = don’t use area; White cross = don’t use whole taxiway.

Question 26

How is an incident different from an accident?

Answer 26

Incident = potential accident; Accident = actual damage or injury occurred.

Question 27

What does the intermittent use of nav/landing lights mean?

Answer 27

Indicates an emergency or warning to other aircraft.

Question 28

Define TODR, TORA, ASDA, LDA.

Answer 28

TODR: Takeoff Distance Required, TORA: Takeoff Run Available, ASDA: Accelerate Stop Distance Available, LDA: Landing Distance Available.

Question 29

Minimum height for flight over populated areas?

Answer 29

1000 ft

Question 30

Minimum height for flight over other areas?

Answer 30

500 ft

Question 31

Minimum height for acrobatics?

Answer 31

3000 ft and must recover by that height.

Question 32

Minimum height over public gatherings?

Answer 32

1000 ft

Question 33

Requirements for landing before end of daylight?

Answer 33

Must land before last light.

Question 34

Define SARTIME.

Answer 34

Search and Rescue Time – time and place submitted for SAR to begin if not heard from.

Question 35

What documents identify controlled airspace?

Answer 35

ERSA, NOTAMs, charts.

Question 36

Difference between controlled and non-controlled airspace?

Answer 36

Controlled = ATC/radio required; Non-controlled = visual separation required.

Question 37

When must flight review or BFR be completed?

Answer 37

Every 2 years or as required to reset endorsements.

Question 38

What must be recorded in a flight logbook?

Answer 38

Flight details, PIC, hours, day/night time.

Question 39

Purpose of aircraft maintenance release?

Answer 39

Track maintenance; engineer signs off airworthiness.

Question 40

Limitations of RPL/RPC?

Answer 40

25nm from aerodrome reference point, no cliff strips, operate in CTA with conditions.

Question 41

What is IAS → CAS → TAS → GS?

Answer 41

Indicated Airspeed → Calibrated Airspeed → True Airspeed → Ground Speed.

Question 42

What is a nautical mile?

Answer 42

1 minute of arc at the equator, = 1852 m.

Question 43

What is Zulu time and how to convert to local?

Answer 43

UTC time; Add 10 for AEST.

Question 44

How do we classify turbulence?

Answer 44

Mechanical, thermal convection, drifting thermals, frontal, clear air.

Question 45

What are the causes of mountain waves?

Answer 45

Strong wind over mountain, 25kts+, stable layers, lenticular clouds at peaks.

Question 46

What are the five main types of fog?

Answer 46

Radiation, advection, upslope, frontal, steam.

Question 47

What are the major cloud types and their abbreviations?

Answer 47

SC, CU, ST, CB, TCU, CC, CS, CI, AC, AS, NS.

Question 48

How does pressure/temperature change with altitude?

Answer 48

Altitude ↑ → Pressure ↓, Temp ↓.

Question 49

Define Pressure Altitude.

Answer 49

Altitude corrected for non-standard pressure; PA = 30(1013−QNH) + Elev.

Question 50

Define Density Altitude.

Answer 50

Altitude corrected for temperature; DA = 120(OAT−ISAT) + PA.

Question 51

What units is visibility measured in?

Answer 51

Metres (m).

Question 52

How does the Earth’s rotation affect wind?

Answer 52

Coriolis effect; deflects wind right in NH, left in SH.

Question 53

Describe how a directional gyro works.

Answer 53

Uses rigidity in space; vacuum system; shows heading.

Question 54

What are the designs of flaps?

Answer 54

Fowler, simple, split – each alters lift/drag differently.

Question 55

How do anabatic and katabatic winds form?

Answer 55

Anabatic = upslope heating; Katabatic = downslope cooling.

Question 56

What is Buys Ballot’s Law?

Answer 56

Stand back to wind – low pressure on left in NH.

Question 57

How do hydraulic systems work in aircraft?

Answer 57

Fluid is pushed to move brake discs via caliper and pads; pump provides pressure.

Question 58

What happens if the hydraulic pump stops?

Answer 58

Pressure is maintained for a short time via accumulator.

Question 59

What instruments are part of the pitot-static system?

Answer 59

Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter.

Question 60

What is the function of the static vent and pitot tube?

Answer 60

Static vent = static pressure; Pitot = total (dynamic + static) pressure.

Question 61

What happens to instruments if the static source is blocked?

Answer 61

Altimeter and VSI freeze; airspeed underreads in climb, overreads in descent.

Question 62

What are the two gyroscopic properties?

Answer 62

Rigidity in space and gyroscopic precession (90° deflection).

Question 63

What are key engine gauges and what do they measure?

Answer 63

Tachometer (RPM), EGT (burn efficiency), Oil temp/pressure, Fuel pressure.

Question 64

What is the difference between wet sump and dry sump systems?

Answer 64

Wet sump stores oil in engine; dry sump stores oil separately.

Question 65

What are the two main magneto functions?

Answer 65

Create voltage and control spark timing.

Question 66

Why use impulse coupling on magnetos?

Answer 66

To ensure spark for starting; delay + release of spring energy.

Question 67

What are typical aviation fuels and their colours?

Answer 67

100LL (blue), 100/130 (green), Jet A1 (clear/straw colour).

Question 68

What do fuel tank vents do?

Answer 68

Equalise pressure to prevent vacuum during fuel use.

Question 69

Name the four strokes of the Otto cycle.

Answer 69

Intake, compression, power, exhaust.

Question 70

What is the function of a carburettor?

Answer 70

Mixes fuel and air before engine combustion; speeds airflow = suction.

Question 71

Describe typical piston engine layouts.

Answer 71

In-line, V-type, horizontally opposed, radial, inverted in-line/V.