bak Flashcards
0
Q
the otto cycle contains what stages?
A
induction
compression
ignition
exhaust
1
Q
what is the general layout for light aircraft engines
A
horizontally opposed
2
Q
what position is the piston during the compression phase
A
top-dead centre
3
Q
what position is the piston in during the ignition stage?
A
bottom dead centre
4
Q
what two things is the crankshaft mainly responsible for?
A
pushing the pistons up and down
turning the propellor (they are directly connected)
5
Q
what do the magnetos do
A
provide electric current to the spark plug
6
Q
how many spark plugs are there dedicated to a single magneto
A
4
7
Q
what is contained in the cylinder head
A
spark plugs and valves
8
Q
what does the cylinder barrel house
A
the piston
9
Q
what is the inlet valve responsible for
A
letting air into the combustion chamber
10
Q
what is the exhaust valve responsible for
A
allows exhaust gas to escape the combustion chamber
11
Q
how many spark plugs does the 172 have
A
8
12
Q
if the battery went flat what would happen to the engine
A
nothing as they are independent of each other
13
Q
what would indicate that the alternator has failed (in terms of instrument reading)
A
0 reading on the ammeter
14
Q
a complete loss in brake fluid would be recognised by
A
no pressure felt in the brakes
15
Q
during shutdown there is no drop in rpm when the left mag is selected, what would this indicate
A
a magneto is not being earthed
16
Q
detonation may result if
A
the octane rating of fuel is not sufficient
17
Q
the function of the trim tab is to
A
relieve control column forces in flight
18
Q
detonation will cause what effects
A
vibration, reducedower, increased cht
19
Q
why should prolonged use of the carburettor on the ground be avoided
A
the air is unfiltered which may bring dust and other bad particles into the engine
20
Q
high power with a lean mixture may result in
A
pre-ignition
21
Q
why is there a loss in rom when the carby is used
A
hotter air = less dense air
22
Q
the asi operates off
A
pitot pressure and static pressure
23
Q
should the compass be used if the fluid is discoloured
A
no
24
where does the carby inject fuel into
the venturi
25
under what conditions is the carby especially prone to icing
60% humidity
26
the three types of carby icing include
throttle ice
fuel vaporisation
impact ice
27
all fuel systems require
```
fuel tank
vent
drain
selector valve
fuel quantity gauge
```
28
gravity fed fuel systems will fail if
the vent is blocked
29
what are the pros of a fuel injection system
can be operated upside down
more efficient than a carby
no possibility of icing
30
what are the cons of a fuel injection system
harder to start in high temperatures
| fuel lines are thin and prone to vapour locks
31
what can be used to get rid of vapour locks in a fuel injected system
fuel booster
32
what is detonation
when fuel that is too hot is entered into the cylinder and as a result, explodes prematurely rather than at a uniform rate (thus exerting massive amounts of pressure on the piston/crankshaft)
33
what does a high cht mean for detonation
it makes it worse
34
what are some of the symptoms of detonation
```
rising CHT
rising oil temperature
significant power loss
engine vibration
pinging noise from the engine
```
35
how is detonation resolved
mixture rich
reduced engine power
increased airspeed to cool engine
cowl flap
36
what is an octane rating
resistance to detonation
37
what is the colour of AVGAS 100/130
green
38
what is the colour of AVGAS 100LL
blue
39
what is the colour of AVTUR
yellow/clear
40
what is the colour of MOGAS
red
41
if a single magneto is chosen from both and there is no rpm drop, what could this mean
fault in switch or wiring and as a result both mags remain live
42
if there is excessive rpm drop when selecting alternate mags, what could this mean
spark plugs faulty/spark plugs fouled with oil
43
what is spark plug fouling
unburnt oil in cylinders mixing with electrodes on the spark plug
44
what is impulse coupling
a spring gear mechanism to help generate magneto spin at startup to give the spark plugs current
45
what is manifold pressure
pressure at the inlet manifold
46
what does a high/low manifold pressure indicate
high=high power setting
| low=low power setting
47
what is the oil system responsible for
lubrication
cooling
cleaning
48
what is oil with high/low viscosity like
high=thick/sticky
| low=thin/runny
49
what happens if the oil cooler is blocked
a bypass is opened for oil to bypass the cooler
50
what can high oil pressure indicate
cold oil (harder to push) or blockage
51
what can low oil pressure indicate
hot oil (easy to push) or low oil quantity
52
what is the casa minimum/max for oil
5 quarts
| 8 quarts
53
what is the CAE Oxford minimum for oil quantity
6 quarts
54
what colour smoke is produced if the mixture is too rich
blue/black
55
what is pre-ignition
when the fuel is too hot before the spark plugs initiate the combustion and the mixture explodes in the cylinder.
56
what is the alternator powered by
the engine
57
why is the battery kept in a well ventilated space
because the build up in hydrogen gas can cause an explosive reaction
58
what is the distribution hub of the electrical system
the BUSBAR
59
is excessive positive charge in the 172 okay?
no, and excessive negative or positive charge should indicate the alternator or the battery is faulty
60
what is the procedure to repair an alternator malfunction
master off
circuit breaker in
master on
61
how many times should you reset a circuit breaker
once only, and only after it has cooled down
62
what is the maximum amount of time the starter motor should be used in one turn
5 seconds
63
how does the altimeter get its reading
measures the difference in pressure between capsule air presser and ambient pressure
64
how does the vsi get its readings
measures difference between capsule and surrounding air.
| greater difference=greater rate of climb/descent
65
in terms of the asi reading, what happens if our pitot tube is blocked
the reading will be the same as long as the altitude stays the same.
66
if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read on descent
under read
67
if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read while climbing
over read
68
if the static vent is blocked, how will it affect the altimeter
on climb it will under read
| on descent it will over read
69
if the static vent is blocked how will it affect the vsi
over read on descent
| under read while climbing
70
in relation to gyroscopes, what is rigidity
the tendency for the rotating mass to remain in the same plane of rotation in space
71
in relation to gyroscopes, what is precession
the tendency for a force applied to the rotating mass to be displaced by 90 degrees in the direction of rotation
72
does the plane rotate around the directional gyro card or the other way around
the plane rotates around the directional gyro (it uses the gyroscopic property of rigidity)
73
which gyroscopic tendency does the turn coordinator use
precession
74
what does imsafe stand for
```
illness
medication
stress
alcohol
fatigue
emotioms/eating
```
75
how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had local anaesthetic
24 hrs
76
how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had general anaesthetic
72 hours
77
how long must you wait to fly if you have donated blood
24 hrs
78
what is considered a healthy blood pressure
120/80
79
what is the most common cause of illness to pilots and what causes it
gastroenteritis
| caused by food or drink poisoning
80
if carbon monoxide is leaked into the cabin what measures should be taken
cabin heat valves shut
fresh air vents opened
use oxygen if available
land asap
81
what causes baratrauma and or pressure vertigo
when the eustachian tube becomes blocked and prevents altitude pressurisation
82
if you hold class 1 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME
7 days
83
if you hold class 2 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME
30 days
84
are you allowed to fly while using medication
it depends, but there are many common medicines that are incompatible with flying
85
besides beathing, what other factor is heavily influenced by smoking
night vision
86
how long is visual information stored in STM
.5-1 second
87
how long is audio information stored in STM
4-8 seconds
88
how long can our working memory keep items and in what form
10-20 seconds unless undergoing rehearsal
| acoustic form
89
the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are responsible for what
creating a stress response (sympathetic) and relaxing afterwards (parasympathetic)
both part of the autonomic nervous system
90
is arousal good or bad for completing tasks
there is a level of optimal arousal
91
between what temperatures humidity does the brain operate best
21-27 degrees celcius
| 50%humidity
92
at what temperature does hypothermia become a big concern
10 degrees celcius
93
how long can alcohol remain in the bloodstream after drinking
14 hours
94
how long can alcohol remain in brain cells after consumption
24 hrs
95
ehat are the two types of fatigue
acute (caused by short term events such as 1 night bad sleep) and chronic (caused by long term factors such as lifestyle)
96
what are some of the symptoms of fatigue
inability to think clearly
reduced physical stamina
monotonous and complex tasks affected before sensory perceptions and motor programs
97
what is hypoxia
the reduction of oxygen intake as an increased altitude causes a decrease in air pressure
98
why is hypoxia so dangerous
the oxygen percentage remains the same (and so the brain doesnt detect any issues)
99
in order to avoid hypoxia, at what altitude must oxygen be supplied at
10,000 feet
100
as we reach higher altitudes, the effects of hypoxia reduce our time of useful consciousness. at 18,000 ft, 28,000 ft and 40,000 ft, what are the times.
20 min moderate activity and 30 min minimal activity
1 min moderate activity and 90 sec minimal activity
12 sec moderate activity and 15 sec minimal activity
101
what is barotrauma
pain caused by pressure changes
102
if scuba diving and did not require a decompression stop, how long must you wait before flying
4 hrs
103
if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was less than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying
12 hours
104
if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was more than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying
48 hrs
105
at what db level will excessive exposure damage the ears
80db
106
what is the organ responsible for our sense of balance
otolith organ
107
what are the semicircular canals responsible for
detecting angular acceleration
108
how is our orientation in space managed in terms of body part percentage
80% eyes
10% skeletal muscles and joints
10% vestibular organs (inner ear)
109
what are rods for
movement and peripheral vision
110
what are cones for
colour and fine detail (not very effective at night)
111
why is looking off centre better for your vision at night time
because the rods are more effective than the cones at night time and are responsible for peripheral vision
112
why is a plane at your 45 that remains in that position bad
because it means you are on a collision course
113
what is decompression sickness caused by
nitrogen gas coming out of solution
114
a change in the acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels is likely a result of....
hyperventilation
115
at what g level will you usually grey out
3.5
116
what are the priorities of survival
protection, location, water and food
117
barotrauma is most likely to occur during....
descent
118
what is the CAR
Civil Aviation Regulations
| rules for air and ground regulations
119
what are CAOs
Civil Aviation Orders
| specific information on day to day operation of aircraft
120
what is the AIP
Aeronautical Information Publication
| australian airspace info
121
what is the CAAP
Civil Aviation Aeronautical Publication
gives specific advise on how to comply with CARs and CAO
E.G.how much fuel is considered sufficient
122
what is the ERSA
En-Route Supplement Australia
| used during pre flight planning
123
what is a VTC
Visual Terminal Chart
| scale 1:250,000
124
what is a VNC
Visual Navigation Chart
| 1:500,000
125
what does an SPL allow you to do
conduct an instructor authorised flight and operate the radio during flight
126
where may an SPL holder fly
circuit area
training area where 2 hrs prior PIC experience is necessary
along a route specified by the instructor
127
how many consecutive PIC hours can a SPL holder carry?
3 hrs without GFPT
| 15 hrs with GFPT
128
if a SPL pilot has passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo
90 days dual or solo
129
if a SPL pilot hasnt passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo
30 days dual or solo
130
can an instructor authorise a student to conduct activities requiring a rating
nope
131
what is the latest time you can land without a night rating (and oxford requirement)
10 min before end of daylight
| oxford=30
132
when does daylight start
when the sun is 6 degrees below the celestial horizon
133
when does daylight end
sun reaches 6 degrees below the celestial horizon
134
if two planes are on a collision course (45 degrees), who has right of way
the pilot with the other to the right must give way
| the other plane should maintain heading and speed
135
what is the vertical and horizontal recommended separation distance between aircraft
600m horizontal
| 500ft vertical
136
if two planes are heading straight towards each other head on, which way must they BOTH turn
right
137
when overtaking, who has right of way
the aircraft being overtaken
138
where must the overtake take place
to the right of the other aircraft at the same level
139
describe class A airspace
controlled
IFR
VFR flights NOT permitted
24000 to 60000 ft
140
describe class C airspace
radar controlled
clearance required
transponder required
141
what is special VFR?
when the weather is incredibly bad, and you can see only >1600m and can fly clear of cloud.
requires clearance.
142
what airspace is special VFR permitted in
C & D
143
describe class D airspace
```
requires clearance
same as class C BUT DOES NOT HAVE RADAR
```
144
what is the minimum clear of cloud distance in class C and E airspace
150m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical
145
what is the visibility requirements above and below 10000 ft in class C and E airspace
8km above
| 5km below
146
in class D airspace, what is the minimum cloud separation distance
600 metres horizontal
500ft above
1000ft below
147
what is the visibility requirements for class D airspace
5km
148
describe class E airspace
VFR flights may operate without approval (but must follow VFR rules)
transponder code 1200 on alt
18000ft to base of class A
149
how is the transponder set around the circuit
3000
| stby
150
describe class G airspace
```
uncontrolled
runs on see and avoid principle
1000ft AGL (unless weather affects it)
```
151
what is the minimum cloud separation above 10000ft in class G
1500m horizontal
| 1000ft vertical
152
what is the minimum cloud separation above 3000ft in class G
1000ft vertical
| 1500 metres horizontal
153
what is the minimum cloud separation above 1000ft in class G
clear of cloud
154
what are the requirements of visibility for the different levels of class G
>10000ft=8km
>3000ft=5km
>1000ft=5km
155
what are the minimum heights you may fly over terrain
500ft non populated area
1000ft populated area
(600m) around an object
156
no fuel tank filling points can be within
5m of a sealed building
6m of other stationary aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
15m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW >5700kg
9m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW <5700kg
157
when refuelling and aircraft, fire extinguishers must be kept within
>5 but <15 m
158
when must the fuel be checked
1st flight of each day
| after each refuelling
159
an aircraft shall not be started or operated within
5m of any sealed building
8m of other aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
8m of any unsealed building (<5700kg MTOW)
160
what do you do when your radio fails in terms of calls
keeping making your normal calls, but begin with "transmitting blind"
161
what code do you squawk if your radio fails
7600
162
what does a steady green light to aircraft on the ground and air
ground= authorised to takeoff if satisfied
| air=authorised to land
163
what does a flashing green light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground= authorised to taxi
| air=return for landing
164
what does a steady red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
```
ground= stop
air= continue circling and give way
```
165
what does a flashing red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground=taxi clear of landing area
| air= do not land
166
what does a steady white light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground=return to starting point on aerodro
| air=nothing
167
if taking off and turning in the opposite direction to the circuit, what distance is required
1500ft AAL and 3nm from the aerodrome reference point
168
what separation from other aircraft is required for takeoff at a non-controlled aerodrome
the preceding aircraft must have finished the upwind leg or commenced a turn
for cross runways, landing aircraft must have passed or stopped at the intersection
169
in terms of landing, who has right of way
lower aircraft have right of way to higher aircraft AND AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND
170
when joining a circuit at a non-controlled aerodrome what measures must be taken
min 3 legs of circuit must be flown including downwind
overfly at 1500ft AGL and observe wind and traffic direction
descend to 1000ft on the dead side
fly parallel and join on crosswind
171
when must seatbelts be worn
takeoff and landing
instrument approach
less than 1000ft above terrain
turbulence
172
parasite drag can be split into tree parts including
```
form drag (results from airflow separation)
interference drag (caused by air mixing at various surfaces)
skin friction drag (friction between air and object is it passing over)
```
173
eddies and vortices are a product of
induced drag
174
when airspeed increases,what type of drag increases and what type decreases
parasite drag increases
| induced drag decreases
175
what is the critical angle for most GA aircraft
16 degrees
176
dihedral wings make the aircraft more....
stable
177
anhedral wings make the aircraft.....
less stable
178
during a 30 degree turn, what lift should be generated
1. 2 times more lift than weight
| i. e. 1.2 gs will be felt
179
at what speed can stg 1 flaps be deployed on the cessna 172
110 knots but no above
180
what speed gives us best angle of climb
62 knots
181
what speed gives us best rate of climb
74 kts
182
what is the Vcrz speed for takeoff
90 kts
183
what is the glide ratio and speed for the cessna 172
9:1
| 68kts
184
what is the key identifying difference between a spin and a spiral dive
airspeed
spin: low airspeed (such as that of a stalled aircraft)
spiral dive: associated with high increasing airspeed and loud engine noise
185
what is the standard temperature at sea level
15 degrees
186
what is the Hpa drop rate
1 Hpa for every 30 ft
187
what is the temperature drop rate
2 (1.98) degrees for every 1000 ft
188
which has a greater effect on density, pressure or temperature
pressure
189
what is the equation for pressure height
elevation + ( (1013-QNH) x 30)
190
will a lower QNH make our performance better or worse
worse
191
what does the take off distance (TODA) consist of
length of runway available + length of the clearway
192
what is TODR
take off distance required
| distance required to take off from a standing start to 50ft above the take off surface
193
in terms of TODR, what safety factor is applied for aircraft with MTOW <2000 kg
1.15
194
as humidity increases, what happens to performance
it decreases
195
what does empty weight consist of
```
airframe
engine
fixed equipment
unusable fuel
undrainable oil
```
196
what does basic empty weight consist of
```
airframe
engine
fixed equipment
unusable fuel
FULL OIL
other items necessary for flight
```
197
what is the zero fuel weight
```
basic empty weight
+
pilot
passengers
baggage
BUT USEABLE FUEL IS NOT INCLUDED
```
198
at what height is the height assumed to be constant and what is the temeprature
36090
| -56.5 degrees celsius
199
what is a supercooled droplet
a droplet that is below freezing point but pressure prevents it from freezing
200
the updrafts in developing thunderstorms can reach up to...
5000 ft/minute
201
during the mature stage of a thunderstorm, what direction are the drafts
downwards
202
how are hail stones formed
iceflakes that are sent upward through the cloud where they collide with supercooled droplets to form bigger hail stones
203
where do encounters with hail usually occur
10000-20000 feet
204
what distance can the effects of thunderstorms be felt
up to 10 miles away
205
how are clouds described
```
oktas (1 okta = 1/8 of sky)
few = 1–2 oktas
scattered = 3-4
broken =5-7
overcast = 8
```
206
what does CAVOK mean
visibility is > 10km
207
what cloud usually is associated with rain
nimbostratus
208
why are cumulonimbus clouds bad
they are usually the lead up to a storm
209
clouds which are larger vertically usually have...
more turbulence around them
210
what defines fog in terms of visibilty
vis less than 1000 metres
211
what defines mist
vis greater than 1000 m
212
why do we get stratus clouds instead of fog
strong winds lift the cloud
213
when will fog dissipate
when the fog temperature becomes greater than the dew point
214
do danger areas require clearance to enter
dont require
215
do restricted areas require a clearance
always
216
what heading do maps use
degrees true
217
what heading do runways and navigation use
degrees magnetic
218
why do we calculate the true bearing
if east, subtract the variation
| if west, add the variation
219
1 nautical mile/hour =
1 knot
220
ltr to gallon conversion is
3.75lt=1 us gallon
221
how do we express christmas day at 10 in the morning in 6 figures
251000
222
how do we express valentines day at 8:15 in the morning in 8 figures
02140815
note that the month goes first
223
how many hours ahead is EST to UTC
10 hours
224
runway lengths, widths and surfaces are usually given in which document
ERSA
225
what are sky waves
those that are refracted back to the earth by the ionosphere
226
in terms of radio eaves, what is attenuation
the gradual loss of radio wave strength through a medium
227
what does acknowledge mean
let me know that you have received and understood the message
228
what does break mean
i indicate the separation between portions of the message (used when there are no clear distinction between the text and other portions of the message)
229
what does break break mean
i indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft
230
what does how do you read mean
how does my transmission read
reply with readability (1-5) where 1=unreadable 5=perfect
231
what does wilco mean
understand your message and will comply with it
