Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BACTERIOLOGY > baksss > Flashcards

baksss Flashcards

(51 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the structure seen in a red staining organism such as Escherichia coli:
a. Nucleoid region
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. Cell wall
e. Outer membrane

A

All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram positive bacilli EXCEPT:
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Acinetobacter baumani
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

Acinetobacter baumani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gram positive cocci:
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Veillonella parvula
d. Escherichia coli
e. Neisseria meningitidis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Used for bacterial attachment and conjugation:
a. None
b. All of these
c. Pili
d. Common pili
e. Sex pili

A

All of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A long chain fatty acid responsible for acid-fastness of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and its resistance to drying and chemical agents:
a. Murine layer
b. Mycolic acid
c. Slime layer
d. Peptidoglycan layer
e. Periplasmic space

A

Mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Extra chromosomal DNA:
a. RNA
b. Transposons
c. Plasmid
d. SNIPS
e. mRNA

A

Plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lacks true nucleus:
a. Tapeworms
b. Coronavirus
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Hepatocytes
e. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This/se organism/s develop/s inhibits the action of the white cells specially the neutrophil in destroying invading bacteria that possesses a slime layer in its structure:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. All of these
d. Haemophilus ducreyi
e. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This is TRUE for organisms that possesses capsule:
a. Susceptible against phagocytosis
b. None of these
c. Seen only on gram positive bacteria
d. All of these
e. Also known as Glycocalyx

A

Also known as Glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This enhances the affinity of the primary stain EXCEPT:
a. Mordant
b. All of these
c. Gram’s lodine
d. None of these
e. Crystal violet

A

Crystal violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All has cell wall EXCEPT:
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. None of these
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e. Micrococcus luteus

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Composition of an endospore
a. Sodium dipicolinate
b. Polysaccharide gel
c. Phospholipid bilayer
d. DNA, RNA and Proteins
e. Polyphosphate and Lipids

A

Sodium dipicolinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes infection to human upon entry of viable cells to the host:
a. Bacteria
b. All of these
c. Prions
d. Virus
e. None of these

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An 18 years-old male patient with promiscuous activity was admitted to the hospital for evaluation and treatment with
complaints of fever and painful urination with a yellow mucopurulent urethral discharge. A dacron swab of the urethral
discharge was sent to the laboratory for gram staining evaluation of the possible etiologic agent. Give the complete gram staining morphology of the organism pointed
a. Gram negative bacilli in pairs
b. Gram positive cocci in chains
c. Gram positive bacilli in chains
d. Gram variable cocci in chains or in pairs
e. Gram negative cocci in pair

A

Gram negative cocci in pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contests the Theory of Spontaneous Generation by scientific works:
a. Elon Musk
b. Plato
c. Oliver Swift
d. Francesco Redi
e. Robert Koch

A

Francesco Redi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

He proposed that mice arise from dirty hay:
a. Socrates
b. Voltaire
c. Plato
d. Aristotle
e. Democrates

A

Aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Noticed death rates higher in maternity wards staffed by medical students than in those attended by midwives. Death rates decreased in summer:
a. TJ Jaula
b. Socrates
c. Fe Del Mundo
d. lgnaz Semmelweis
e. Oliver Wendell Hoimes

A

lgnaz Semmelweis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Scientist who are dedicated and pioneered antisepsis.
a. Joseph Lister
b. Both
c. Neither
d. Ignaz Semmelweis

A

b. Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Supports Spontaneous Generation Theory
a. Francesco Redi
b. John Snow
c. Louis Pasteur
d. John Needham
e. Ignaz Semmelweis

A

John Needham

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Termed organisms as “Animacules”:
a. Francesco Redi
b. Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek
c. Aristotle
d. Sherwin Reyes
e. Craig Venter

A

Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What did we learn from Koch’s Postulates:
a. How to isolate and develop pure culture
b. Bacteria outside of host capable of causing disease
when returned to host
c. How to make an agar media
d. All of these
e. All EXCEPT how to make an agar media

22
Q

Which among the pairs are correct:
a. Animacules: Aristotle
b. Koch’s Postulates: Gerhard Domagk
c. Prontosil (dye): Robert Koch
d. Rabies vaccine: Edward Jenner
e. Penicillin: Alexander Flemming

Study These Flashcards
A

Penicillin: Alexander Flemming

23
Q

In BSC II, how many percentage of air is recirculated?
a. 70%
b. 50%
c. 30%
d. 100%

24
Q

A pathogen that usually causes a serious human or animal disease but does not ordinarily spread from one infected individual to another
a. Risk group 3
b. Risk group 4
c. Risk group 2
d. Risk group 1

25
An autoclave spore testing should be conducted every a. Monthly b. Yearly c. Weekly d. Every 6 months
Weekly
26
BSC I: a. Do not protect the person and the product but protect the environment b. protect the person but not product and environment c. protect the product from contamination but not the environment and the person d. does not protect the product environment and the person
Do not protect the person and the product but protect the environment
27
Direct examination of mycobacterium tuberculosis a. biosafety level 4 b. biosafety level 2 c. biosafety Level 3 d. biosafety level 1
biosafety level 2
28
HBV is considered a a. BSL 3 Organism b. BSL 4 Organism c. BSL 1 Organism d. BSL 2 Organism
BSL 2 Organism
29
Ebola virus is considered a. biosafety level 4 b. biosafety level 2 c. biosafety level 1 d. biosafety Level 3
a. biosafety level 4
30
manipulating mycobacterium tuberculosis cultures should be done in a. biosafety level 4 containment facility b. biosafety level 2 containment facility c. biosafety Level 3 containment facility d. biosafety level 1 containment facility
biosafety Level 3 containment facility
31
this is considered as the primary barrier in biosafety level a. Safety equipment b. laboratory facility c. laboratory procedure d. laboratory practice
Safety equipment
32
bacillus anthracis grown in large quantities a. biosafety level 4 b. biosafety level 3 c. biosafety level 1 d. biosafety level 2
biosafety level 3
33
high individual risk and high community risk a. risk group 2 b. risk Group 1 c. risk Group 3 d. risk Group 4
risk Group 4
34
which of the following is checked annually for quality control a. RPM of centrifuge b. Balances c. recently adjusted bsc cabinet d. microscope
Balances
35
True about the risk group 2 except: a. laboratory exposures may cause serious infection, but effective treatment and preventive measures are available b. a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory workers c. agents with available preventive and therapeutic interventions d. agents associated with human disease that is rarely serious
a pathogen that can cause human or animal disease that most likely to be a serious hazard to laboratory workers
36
bacillus subtilis: a. biosafety level 2 b. biosafety level 4 c. biosafety level 3 d. biosafety level 1
biosafety level 1
37
The pore size effective to remove most bacteria a. 1 um b. 0.50 um c. 0.01 um d. 0.22 um
0.22 um
38
Which of the following is considered as droplet precaution a. Rubeola b. Clostridium difficile c. Neisseria meningitidis d. MRSA
Neisseria meningitidis
39
Denatures proteins and disrupts the metabolism of the cell a. Phenol b. Acetone c. Isopropyl alcohol d. QUATS
Acetone
40
Principle involved in phenol which is found in lysol a. damage the cell membrane b. bacteriostatic c. denature protein d. modify functional groups of proteins & and nucleic acids
damage the cell membrane
41
Airborne precaution a. vancomycin resistant enterococci b. rubella c. varicella d. influenza virus
varicella
42
this falls under biosafety and biosecurity a. access control b. PPE c. engineering control d. alarm
access control
43
Principal involved in fractional sterilization a. ionizing radiation b. dry heat c. moist heat
moist heat
44
institutional and personal security measures designed to prevent the loss theft misuse diversion or intentional release of pathogens and toxins a. lab biosafety and biosecurity b. lab biohazard c. lab biosecurity d. lab biosafety
lab biosecurity
45
the mission of OSHA is to protect a. Workers b. Patient c. Company d. patient and workers
Workers
46
This is drug is used primarily to treat mycobacterial infections: a. Monobactam b. Vancomycin c. Ethambutol d. Aminoglycoside
Ethambutol
47
Which of the following is a first-generation cephalosporin? a. Cefuroxime b. Ceftriazone c. Cefipime d. Cephalexin
Cephalexin
48
This is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against gram positive cocci and gram negative rods and does not cross the CNS a. Cefoperazone b. Ceftzoxime c. Ceftriazone d. Ceftazidime
Cefoperazone
49
Trimetoprim inhibits a. Dihydrofolate reductase b. PABA c. Dihydropteroate synthetase d. Glutamate
Dihydrofolate reductase
50
Mechanism of action of tetracycline: a. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis b. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis c. Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis d. Synthesis of Folic acid synthesis
Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
51
Drug of choice for MRSA: a. Rifampin b. Vancomycin c. Penicillin G d. Tetracyline
Vancomycin

BACTERIOLOGY (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions