Basic Health Care Concepts and Skills Flashcards
(466 cards)
1
Q
What did humans think (in primitive times) disease was caused by?
A
evil spirits and demons
2
Q
Who were the first people to keep medical records? Who made them?
A
Ancient Egyptians. Priests (who acted like physicians).
3
Q
Who was the “Father of Medicine”? What did he uncover?
A
Hippocrates (ancient Greek). He established that disease was caused by natural causes, NOT demons.
4
Q
What symbol is the Greek symbol associated with healing? What more well-known symbol is NOT the healing symbol, and what is its true meaning?
A
Rod of Asclepius, medicine.
Caduceus, commerce.
5
Q
What did the Romans realize from the ancient Greeks? What did they first create?
A
some diseases connected to filth, water contamination, sanitation
SANITATION SYSTEMS, HOSPITALS
6
Q
What was the “medical belief status” during the Dark Ages and Middle Ages?
A
Dark Ages: bad hygiene, medicine
Middle Ages: renewed interest in Greek and Roman medical practice
7
Q
What four epidemics were rampant in the Dark Ages?
A
smallpox, dysentery, typhus, plague
8
Q
What knowledge became more widespread as a result of the Renaissance?
A
the structure of the human body (human dissection)
9
Q
When did physicians gain extensive knowledge of the human body ?
A
16th, 17th and 18th centuries
(blood circulation by William Harvey, ear structure by Gabriel Fallopius)
10
Q
What scientist caused a MAJOR DEVELOPMENT after the 16th/17th/18th centuries?
A
Anton van Leeuwenhoek, built a microscope that increased magnification ability
11
Q
What century was the stethoscope invented?
A
19th century
12
Q
What major development was 19th century?
A
infection control (louis pasteur, lister)
13
Q
Who was the person that started using disinfectants and antiseptics during surgery
A
Joseph Lister
14
Q
Who was the first female physician in the US?
A
Elizabeth Blackwell
15
Q
Who invented the vaccine to prevent smallpox?
A
Edward Jenner
16
Q
Who invented the stethoscope?
A
Rene Laennec
17
Q
Who was the individual that that encouraged washing hands in lime before delivering babies
A
Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis
18
Q
Who is the founder of modern nursing?
A
Florence Nightingale
19
Q
What are two major developments in the 20th century?
A
watson and crick DNA discovery, open heart surgery
20
Q
When was the Human Genome Project completed?
A
21st century
21
Q
What is cost containment?
A
trying to control the rising cost of health care and achieve benefit for every dollar spent
22
Q
Why is healthcare price rising (2 reasons)?
A
technological advances – which cost A LOT
aging population – more pharmaceutics necessary
23
Q
How does the Diagnosed-Related Groups (DRG) plan help cut costs?
A
patients with specific diagnoses are put into one payment group, and that payment is given a limit cost: so the agency will cut costs so the limit can work
24
Q
Replacing fee-for-service compensation with what can help cut costs?
A
bundled payments or value-based compensation: instead of paying an equal amount for each service, make health providers pay different amounts BASED UPON on the service — therefore, for simpler treatments, the fee is less
25
Why is combination of services good for cutting costs?
Because then duplication of services are prevented, and more services can be given to people at a lower cost $$$
26
What is outpatient services?
Giving services to patients without making them stay in the hospital as hospital services are EXPENSIVE! Reducing hospital stay time or transferring them to another facility is beneficial.
27
Why is home health care a rapidly growing field?
shorter hospital stays and diagnostic-related groups have created a bigger need
28
Why is geriatric care expanding?
More people are experiencing a need for elderly care due to longer life span.
29
What is the OBRA Act of 1987?
Omnibus Budget of Reconciliation. Development of regulations regarding long-term care and home health care (for geriatric care, etc).
30
What are assistants required to do under the OBRA Act?
Complete a state-approved training program and pass a written and competency examination for certification
31
What is the largest nurse aide certification program in the US?
National Nurse Aide Assessment Program (NNAAP)
32
What is telemedicine?
The use of video/audio computer to provide health & medical services (transmitting medical records, electronic medical records)
33
What are the five types of wellness?
Physical, emotional, social, mental & intellectual, spiritual
34
What is the most common health care system in the US?
biomedical/Western system - evaluate physical signs/symptoms, determine cause, treat cause
35
What is the difference between complementary therapies and alternative therapies?
Complementary: used in conjunction with conventional medical therapies
Alternative: used in place of biomedical therapies
36
NVM
NVM
37
What is integrative health care?
Both mainstream medical treatment + CAM (complementary and alternative)
38
What are three CAM practitioner examples?
AYURVEDIC - determine a person's predominant dosha (body type) and use herbs and exercise/yoga
CHINESE - belief chi (life force) flows through a person, uses acupuncture, herbal remedies
CHIROPRACTORS
39
What is homeopathy?
believe in the body's ability to heal itself through the actions of the immune system
use minute diluted doses of drugs from plant/animals/mineral to cause symptoms similar to the disease and activate the immune system
40
What influenza pandemic killed more than 40 million people in 1918?
Spanish Flu (HFN1 bird flu virus)
41
What are four examples of "superbugs"?
MRSA, VRE, CRA, MRAB (___ resistant ____)
42
What are three approved genetic tests (to check for presence of inherited genes)?
cancers (breast, ovarian, colorectal, gastric, lung), osteoporosis, AIDS
43
What are three diseases in which prenatal screening can be performed for?
cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anemia, Tay Sachs
44
What is pharmacogenomics?
using a person's genetic makeup to determine what drugs will work best
45
What are proteins? Where are they found and what are 4 things they do?
structures in the PROTOPLASM of cells that cause biochemical reactions, act as messengers, influence tissue growth & development, regulate cell
production
46
;What is the PSA test used for?
Prostate Specific Antigen test - for prostate cancer
47
What is the PSA test used for?
Prostate Specific Antigen test - for prostate cancer
48
What two animals are used for treating burns and microsurgery?
Maggots and leeches
49
What are the four different types of hospitals?
general hospitals: wide range of conditions + age groups
specialty hospitals: specific (burn hospitals, oncology hospitals, pediatric hospitals)
government hospitals: state/federal, care for government service personnel/military
university/college medical centers: PROVIDE HOSPITAL SERVICES as well as RESEARCH
50
What are the three different types of long-term care facilities?
usually care for elderly patients*
residential care facilities (nursing homes, geriatric homes)
extended care facilities (rehabilitative)
independent living (assisted) more free-reign than residential care
51
What is concierge medicine (retainer medicine)?
a type of personalized health care
52
What are four examples of home health care agencies?
nursing care, personal care, therapy, homemaking (for people w/ disabilities)
53
What are hospice agencies?
care for terminally people (6 months or less)
54
What are genetic counseling centers?
work with couples to perform prenatal screening tests, genetic abnormalities, and birth defects, genetic disorders
55
What are Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)?
both health care delivery systems and a type of health insurance
toward preventive health healthcare for a fixed fee
56
What are twelve types of private hospital services?
Hospitals, Long-term care facilities, Medical offices, Concierge medicine, Dental offices, Clinics, Optical Centers, Emergency Care Services, Home Health Care, Hospice, Rehabilitation Facilities, HMOs
57
What does the World Health Organization do?
UN sponsor, statistics and info on disease, "attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health care"
58
What does the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services do?
health problems of U.S.
provides the most grant money of all federal agencies
59
Food and Drug Administration
regulates foods, drugs, medical devices, cosmetics, cell phones in the US
60
What is the Joint Commission?
nonprofit, US organization to ensure patients receive safety, highest-quality care (voluntary agencies)
61
What are two examples of nonprofit agencies?
American Cancer Society, American Heart Association
62
What percent of the gross national product is healthcare?
>17%
63
What is a deductible in health insurance?
amounts that must be paid by the patient before the policy pays
64
What is the disadvantage of a HMO?
insured is required to use only HMO-affiliated health care providers (doctors, hospitals, etc)
65
What is a preferred provider organization ?
a type of managed health care health insurance organization (large companies)
66
What are the two health insurance plans that the government provides?
Medicare and Medicaid
67
What is Medicare?
federal government plan for people >65 , person with a disability, person with end-stage renal disease
68
What are the three types of coverage for Medicare?
type A - hospital insurance, type B - medical insurance,
type D - medication insurance
(80%)
69
What is Medigap policy?
a health insurance plan that helps pay medical expenses not covered by Medicare
70
What is Medicaid?
a medical assistance program, federal & state, low incomes/public assistance/physically disabled or blind
71
What is worker's compensation?
treatment for workers injured on the job
72
What is TRICARE?
military personnel insurance plan (active members, survivors, retired of Armed Forces, families of active)
73
What is managed care?
MAIN PRINCIPLE: all health care provided to a patient must have a purpose (preventive care, pre-diagnosis)
74
What is value-based compensation?
Doctors are paid for the VALUE of their performance (quality, satisfaction, cost)
75
What is the Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act?
five main components, protects people from having health insurance companies share medical information to EMPLOYERS
76
When was compliance with HIPAA required?
April 2004
77
When was the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) established? What is it?
March 2010, young adult covered under parent's policy <26
78
What is an associate's degree?
career/technical school or community college after 2 years of study
79
What is certification?
What is registration?
What is licensure?
fulfilled education requirements (certified assistant, certified laboratory technicians)
regulatory board in THAT AREA (registered dietician, registered respiratory therapist)
government agency authors people to work in an occupation (physician, dentist, physical therapist)
80
What is a multicompetent or multiskilled health care provider?
People that can do a variety of health care tasks (both an EKG and an EEG technician)
81
How much school should assistants and technicians go through?
1-2 years in program or 2-year associate degree
82
What is a HSE program?
health education science program
83
What is endodontics?
diseases of pulp, nerves, blood vessels, roots
84
NVM
NVM
85
What is orthodontics?
alignment or straightening of teeth
86
What is pedodontics?
treatment for children & adolescents
87
What is periodontics?
diseases of gums, bones, structures of teeth
88
What is an emergency medical responder?
first person to arrive at scene (police officer, fire department, security counsel)
89
What is the difference between an EMT and a paramedic?
EMT: medical emergencies, bleeding, fractures, airway obstruction, life support
PARAMEDIC: all EMT duties + advanced cardiac life support, deeper assessments
90
What is a DO?
Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine (emphasis on nervous, muscular, skeletal systems)
91
What is a DPM?
doctor of podiatric medicine, treats diseases of feet or leg below the knee
92
What is an otolaryngologist?
ENT doctor
93
What is the difference between a psychiatrist and a psychologist?
Psychiatrist: mental illness
Psychologist: human behavior, problems of everyday living (abuse, etc)
94
What do embalmers do?
prepare the body for embalming by washing the body with germicidal soap, applying cosmetics
95
What do licensed practical/vocational nurses do (LPN/LVNs)?
working under the supervision of physicians or RNs but a lower level of knowledge
96
What is another name for a dietetic assistant?
A food service worker, under supervision of dietitians, food preparation & service, clean work areas
97
What is an occupational therapist?
under the direction of physiatrist, helps people who have physical/developmental/emotional/mental disabilities
98
What are perfusionists?
extracorporeal circulation technologists, open-heart surgical teams and operate the heart-lung machines used in coronary bypass surgery
99
What is hematology and histology?
Hematology: study of blood cells
Histology: study of human body tissue
100
What are phlebotomists?
collect blood and prepare it for testing
101
What are ophthalmologists?
diseases/injuries of the eyes
102
What are opticians?
make and fit the eyeglasses
103
What do medical coders do?
identify diagnoses/procedures shown in a patient's health care record and assign codes to each
104
What do medical transcriptionists do?
use a computer or word-processing software to enter data dictated on a recorder by physicians
105
What do clinical account managers?
promote, sell, and educate clients/sales associates about health care products, make appointments with customers and sales staff
106
What do clinical account technicians do?
assist patients have questions about their bills or need help to make payments, send bills (etc)
107
How do admitting officers/clerks do?
work in the admissions department of a health care facility, assign rooms, etc
108
What do biomedical equipment technicians do?
install, test, service patient monitors/kidney hemodialysis units/incubators/pacemaker
109
What do biomedical/clinical technicians do?
assist in medical research on AIDS and cancer, perform experiments
110
Within the first ___ seconds, people form an impression with another person based mainly on appearance
7
111
What should health personnel wear?
Scrubs (can be white), neat, well-fitting, clean and wrinkle free and USUALLY, WHITE (NONABSORBENT) SHOES
112
What do the identification tags that personnel wear say?
name, title, photo, department of the health care team member
113
What is important to know about personal hygiene for the medical professional (good scents??)
deodorant, antiperspirant, good oral hygiene, scents that aren't too strong/cause allergic reactions
114
What body jewelry/makeup/tattoos?
no body jewelry, tattoos shouldn't be seen by other people, no excessive/natural makeup
115
What six factors contribute to good health?
diet, rest, exercise, good posture, avoid use of tobacco/alcohol/drugs, preventative screenings
116
What are some 9 characteristics of professionalism?
empathy, honesty, dependability, willingness to learn, patience, enthusiasm, self-motivation, tact, competence
117
What is aphasia?
Loss or impairment of the power to use or comprehend words
118
What are the two different types of writing?
Technical Writing: formal
Creative Writing: loose, feelings, thoughts
119
What are some benefits of interpersonal relationships (3)?
belonging/self-growth
personal growth
life is enjoyable
120
What are the three main types of leaders and their roles?
Democratic: listens to opinions, equal participation
Laissez-Faire Leader: informal, hands-off policy
Autocratic Leader: dictator
121
What is parliamentary procedure?
a set of rules that determine conduct and order followed during a meeting (MAJORITY TO RULE, MINORITY HEARD, INDIVIDUAL REPRESENTED)
122
What is a standard agenda?
Call to order, roll taken by the secretary, minutes of previous meeting, treasurer report, officer report, committee reports, unfinished reports, program, adjournment
123
What is a motion?
Something that a member makes to present an idea or proposal
124
What are the four types of motions?
main: introduces topic
subsidiary: changes motion (disposes, accepts)
privileged: urgent items/motions
incidental: question procedure
125
What are the five types of votes?
Voice vote: all in favor say "aye" or "no", rough count
Roll call: accurate count
General consent: no objects...
Division: similar to voice but raise hands
Ballot: write vote or in CP
126
What are five motion examples?
refer to committee, postpone indefinitely, lay on the table, take from the table, take a recess (break)
127
What is a tort and some examples?
wrongful act which does not include a contract (civil wrong instead of a crime)
examples: malpractice, negligence, assault and battery (thread/attempt to injure and unlawful touching without consent)
128
What is defamation?
false statements ruin reputation (if information is SPOKEN - slander, info is WRITTEN - libel)
129
What is privileged communication?
all information given by health care personnel to a patient
130
What does the Consumer and Bill of Rights and Responsibilities in 1998 say?
patient's rights (accurate health information, health care providers, considerate/respectful care)
131
What does the Omnibus Budget of Reconciliation Act of 1987 say?
every long-term resident has certain rights, must be informed in Resident's Bill of Rights
132
What are advance directives?
Legal documents that allow individuals to state what medical treatment they do and do not want (in case they are incapacitated) in ADVANCE.
133
What are living wills?
documents that allow individuals to state what conditions should or should not be taken to prolong life when condition is terminal (DNR)
134
What is a Designation of Health Care Surrogate/POA?
document that permits an individual to allow another individual to make health care decisions
135
What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
all health care facilities... inform all patients of medical decisions, provide assistance
136
What are eponyms?
terms named after people, places, things
(Achilles tendon, Coombs test, Colles' fracture, Heimlich maneuver)
137
What is tachycardia? What is bradycardia?
fast/rapid heart, slow heart
138
What is vomiting blood?
hematemesis
139
What does "EMIA" mean?
in the blood
140
What does "PENIA" mean?
lack of (blood vessels, muscles)
141
What are some "do not use" abbreviations?
IU, u, qd, MS
142
What is DX? What is ABD? What is ABX?
diagnosis, abdominal, antibiotics
143
What is "ITIS"? What is "SCLEROSIS"? What is "OSTOMY"? What is "OTOMY"? What is "ALGIA"? What is "DYS"?
inflammation, abnormal hardening, surgical hole, surgical incision, pain, bad/difficult
144
What is pathophysiology?
study of how disease occurs
145
What are the four types of diseases?
Congenital: club foot, spina bifida, development in uterus
Inherited: color blindness, hemophilia
Infectious: pathogenic
Degenerative: ASHD, COPD
146
What is prognosis?
prediction of the probable course/expected outcome of the disease
147
How many genes does each chromosome carry?
30, 000 - 45,000
148
How many centrioles does a centrosome have?
2
149
What is osseous tissue?
calcium salts, nerves, blood vessels
150
What is bilateral and unilateral?
Bilateral: both sides of body
Unilateral: only side
151
What is the transverse plane?
horizontal plane that divides the body into a top half (superior) and a bottom half (inferior)
152
What is caudal?
body parts near the spinal column (sacral, tail)
153
What is the sagittal plane?
left and right sections
154
What plane divides the body front and back?
frontal/coronal plane
155
What does ventral/posterior/dorsal/anterior?
Versal/anterior: front of the body
Dorsal/posterior: back of the body
156
What does proximal and distal mean?
Proximal: closer
Distal: distant
157
What are the two main body cavities?
Dorsal/posterior, ventral/anterior
158
Which of the two main abdominal cavities is larger than the other?
The ventral (thoracic, abdominal cavity, lower abdominal cavity/pelvic)
159
What are the three small cavities?
orbital cavity, nasal cavity, buccal cavity (mouth, teeth and tongue)
160
What is the epidermis?
outermost layer of skin, five smaller layers BUT NO BLOOD VESSEL OR NERVE CELLS
161
What is dermis?
corium (true skin), blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves
162
What is the hypodermis?
elastic and fibrous connective tissue
163
What are sudoriferous glands?
sweat glands (extend through the dermis)
164
What are sebaceous glands?
oil glands
165
What are the 4 functions of the integumentary system?
protection, sensory protection, body temperature regulation
166
What is erythema?
reddish color of skin caused by burns or congestion of blood
167
What is jaundice?
yellow discoloration of skin, can indicate bile in the blood (liver or gallbladder disease)
168
What are macular rashes* (skin eruptions)?
flat spots on the skin -- freckles
169
What are papular rashes?
firm, raised areas -- pimples
seen in chickenpox and syphilis
170
What is a wheal?
smooth, slightly elevated, smooth area (usually followed by itching)
171
What is acne vulgaris?
inflammation of the sebaceous glands (hormonal changes and increased secretion of sebum), pimples, blackheads
172
What is impetigo?
highly contagious skin infection, affects infants and children, red lesions on the face and skin
173
What is psoriasis?
chronic skin disease characterized by periods of remission, thick white and red scales
174
What is ringworm (tineas)?
highly contagious fungal infection on skin or scalp, flat raised area with healthy inner area surrounded by a ring
175
How many bones are in an adult human?
206
176
What are long bones?
bones of the extremities (arms and legs)
177
What is the long part of the bone called? What about the two knobby parts on either end?
diaphysis
epiphysis
178
What is filled with yellow bone marrow (fat and white blood cells)?
The medullary cavity (in the diaphysis)
179
Where is red marrow found?
vertebrae, ribs, sternum, cranium
180
What is the outside of the bone covered in?
periosteum
(blood vessels, lymph vessels, osteoblasts)
181
What are two sections of the skeletal system?
axial skeleton (skull, spinal column, ribs)
appendicular skeleton (shoulder girdle, arms, legs)
182
What are fontanels?
spaces in the cranium (at birth) for the brain to grow
183
How many facial bones are there?
14
1 mandible, 2 maxilla, 2 zygomatic (cheek), 2 lacrimal, 5 nasal, 2 palatine
184
What are sutures? What are sinuses?
areas where the cranial bones have joined together, air spaces in the bones of the skull
185
What is the pelvic girdle made of?
two os coxae (hip bones)
186
What are the three main type of joints?
diarthrosis (synovial) - freely movable
amphiarthrosis - slightly movable
synarthrosis - immovable
187
What are the two main types of arthritis?
osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis
188
How much more common is rheumatoid arthritis for women than men?
3 times
189
What are the types of fractures?
greenstick: crack
simple/closed: complete break of bone without damage to skin
compound/open: bone breaks through the skin
comminuted: splinters into multiple pieces (bone dust)
190
What is osteomyelitis?
bone inflammation by pathogen, pus accumulation in the medullary cavity
191
What is osteoporosis?
hormone deficiency (estrogen, etc), lack of calcium in the diet, sedentary lifestyle
192
What is a ruptured/herniated disk?
intervertebral disk (cartilage) jots out and puts pressure on the spinal column
193
What are the three types of abnormal spinal curvatures?
kyphosis, scoliosis, lordosis
KYPHOSIS: HUNCHBACK
SCOLIOSIS: SIDE TO SIDE CURVATURE OF THE SPINE
LORDOSIS: INWARD CURVE OF THE LUMBAR
194
How many muscles make up the muscular system?
600 muscles
195
What is visceral muscle?
Smooth muscle
196
What are the two involuntary muscles?
visceral and cardiac
197
What is fascia?
a tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects the tissue
198
When a muscle attaches to bone...
the end that doesn't move:
the end that moves when the muscle contracts:
ORIGIN
INSERTION
199
What is abduction?
moving a body part from the neckline __o __ <---
/ \
200
What is adduction?
moving a body part toward the neckline _o __ <---
/ \
201
What is fibromyalgia?
chronic, widespread, musculoskeletal pain
202
What is muscular dystrophy?
inherited diseases that lead to chronic, progressive muscle atrophy
203
What is myasthenia gravis?
chronic, nerve impulses are not properly transmitted to the muscles
204
What is the difference between afferent and efferent nerves?
Afferent: ALL PARTS OF BODY TO THE BRAIN
Efferent: BRAIN AND SPINAL COLUMN TO THE BODY
205
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
somatic, autonomic
206
What is the cerebrum?
largest and highest section of the brain, outer part arranged in folds (convolutions) and separated into lobes
207
What is the cerebrum responsible for?
reasoning, thought, memory, speech, senses, VOLUNTARY BODY MOVEMENT
208
What is the cerebellum?
section below the back of cerebrum, muscle coordination and balance
209
What does the diencephalon?
between cerebrum and midbrain, thalamus (pain, temperature, sensory impulses to the cerebrum) and hypothalamus (temperature, appetite, water balance)
210
What is the midbrain?
below cerebrum at the top of the brainstem (eye and auditory reflexes)
211
What is the pons?
section below hindbrain and in the brainstem (messages to other parts of the brain)
212
What is the medulla oblongata?
lowest part of the brainstem (regulating heartbeat, respiration, swallowing)
213
What are the meninges?
three membranes that cover and protect the brain & spinal cord
214
How many ventricles does the brain?
four ventricles filled with cerebrospinal fluid
215
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (involuntary)?
sympathetic (TO ACT) and parasympathetic (SLOWS)
216
What is ALS?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease), muscle weakness, inability to communicate/eat
217
What nerve is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?
the medial nerve
218
What is cerebral palsy?
non-progressive, non-contagious disturbance in voluntary muscle action --- brain damage (lack of oxygen prenatal injuries, etc)
219
What is a cerebrovascular accident?
stroke, blood flow to the brain is impaired
TWO MAIN TYPES: hemorrhagic stroke = blood vessel bursts or bleeds (hypertension, aneurysm)
ischemic stroke = blockage causes lack of blood flow (atherosclerosis or thrombus)
220
What 5 factors increase CVA risk?
smoking, high-fat diet, obesity, hypertension, sedentary lifestyle
221
What is a concussion?
traumatic brain injury, affects brain function
222
What is encephalitis?
inflammation of the brain
223
What is epilepsy?
brain disorder associated with abnormal urges in electrical impulses in the neurons of the brain
224
What is hydrocephalus?
water on the brain, excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles/subarachnoid space
225
What is neuralgia?
nerve pain caused by nerve damage, affects more women than men, is chronic
226
What are the types of paralysis?
hemiplegia: one side of he body (tumor or CVA)
quadriplegia: paralysis of arms, legs, and body below spinal injury
paraplegia: lower body (spinal cord injury)
227
How is shingles spread?
herpes zoster, inflammation of nerve cells, caused by varicella-zoster virus (which also causes chicken pox), cannot be spread from infected -> someone who has never had chicken pox (open sore contact)
228
What glands in the eyes produce tears?
lacrimal glands
229
What membrane provides protection for the eye?
conjunctiva
230
What are the three main layers of the eye?
outermost: sclera (white)
middle: choroid coat (blood vessels)
innermost: retina (nerve cells, cones, rods)
231
What and where is the cornea?
front of sclera, allows light rays to enter
232
What is the iris?
Colored portion of the eye, contains two muscles
233
What does the lens do?
circular structure behind pupil, refracts light so the rays focus on the retina
234
Where is the aqueous humor located?
watery liquid, between cornea and iris
235
Where is the vitreous humor located?
fills the area between the lens
236
What is amblyopia?
Lazy eye
237
What is astigmatism?
warping or curvature of the cornea that causes blurred distance-vision
238
What is cataracts?
cloudy, opaque lens -- blurred vision, halos around lights, gradual vision loss
239
What is conjunctivitis?
highly contagious inflammation of the conjunctiva, redness
240
What is glaucoma?
increased intraocular pressure caused by too much aqueous humor
241
What is macular degeneration?
disease of the macula (central & most sensitive part of the retina)
242
What are the two types of macular degeneration?
dry: fatty deposits decrease blood supply to the retina
wet: abnormal growth of blood vessels that leak blood and fluids that damage the retina
243
What is myopia?
nearsightedness
244
What is presbyopia?
farsightedness caused by a loss of lens elasticity
245
What is strabismus?
a disorder in which the eyes do not move or focus together
246
What is the visible part of the ear called?
the pinna/auricle
247
What is cerumen and where is it produced?
the auditory canal (glands), wax that protects the ear
248
What is the eardrum called?
tympanic membrane
249
How many small bones does the middle ear contain?
3 ossicles - malleus, incus, stapes
250
How is the middle ear connected to the throat?
eustachian tube (allows air to come in and equalize air pressure)
251
What are the three different parts of the inner ear?
vestibule: entrance
cochlea: snail's shell, organ of Corti
semicircular canals: contain a liquid and help with equilibrium
252
What is Meniere's disease?
collection of fluid in the inner ear, vertigo/tinnitus/nausea and vomiting
253
What is otitis externa?
inflammation of the outer ear canal, swimmer's ear = one form
254
What is otitis media?
inflammation of the middle ear, frequently follows a sore throat in infants and children
255
What is otosclerosis?
inherited disease, overgrowth of footplate of stapes -- hearing loss, tinnitus
256
How many gallons of blood a day does the heart pump?
2,000 gallons
257
What are the layers of the heart?
endocardium: line inside of the heart
myocardium: thickest layer
pericardium: sac outside the heart
258
What is the septum?
wall that SEPARATES the right and left side of the heart
259
The right atria....
receives blood as it returns from the body
260
The right ventricle....
receives blood from the right atrium and pumps the blood into the pulmonary artery
261
The left atria....
receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
262
The left ventricle....
receives blood from the left atrium, pumps the blood into the aorta
263
What are four valves in the heart that prevent blood from moving back a direction?
tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, aortic
264
What is a diastole and systole?
period of rest, period of contraction
265
What is another name for the pacemaker?
sinoatrial node
266
What is the bundle of His?
nerve fibers in the septum
267
How do defibrillators help heart patients?
device that shocks the heart with an electrical current to stop uncoordinated contraction, the SA node
268
What is the largest artery in the body? How are arteries different from other blood vessels?
aorta, more elastic and musclar
269
What percent of plasma is water?
90%
270
What are the three main types of blood cells?
erythrocytes (RED BLOOD CELLS) leukocytes (WHITE BLOOD CELLS), thrombocytes (PLATELETS)
271
What does angiotensin do?
causes the blood vessel to spasm and narrow, decreasing blood flow
272
What is thrombin?
a substance that acts on blood protein fibrinogen to form fibrin (clotting fiber-net)
273
What is aplastic anemia?
injury or destruction of bone marrow, leading to loss of blood cells
274
What is pernicious anemia?
formation of erythrocytes that are abnormally big in size, B12/folic acid deficiency
275
What is an aneurysm?
ballooning out of/saclike formation on a blood vessel (CEREBRAL, AORTAL, ABDOMINAL)
276
What is an embolus?
a foreign substance circulating in the bloodstream (air, blood clot, fat globule)
277
What are 4 symptoms of CHF?
edema, dyspnea (shortness of breath), pallor/cyanosis, cough accompanied by pink/frothy sputum
278
When are most cases of hemophilia diagnosed?
age 2, during circumcision (people bleed out????) almost exclusively in male individuals
279
What is leukemia?
cancer of the bone marrow, lymph tissue (high number of immature or abnormal white blood cells)
280
What is phlebitis?
inflammation of a vein, vein near = thrombophlebitis, vein far = deep vein thrombosis
281
What are varicose veins?
gnarled, dilated (legs)
282
What is lymph?
thin, watery fluid composed of intercellular, interstitial fluid
283
What are lacteals?
specialized lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine that pick up digested fat/lipids
284
What do lymph nodes do?
"glands", filter the lymph and remove carbon, cancer cells, pathogens
285
What are the two lymph ducts?
right lymphatic duct: short tube that receives purified lymph from the right side of the body
thoracic duct: much larger tube, drains lymph from the rest of the body
286
What is cisterna chyli?
start of thoracic duct, storage area for purified lymph
287
What are the three pairs of lymph tonsils?
palatine tonsils: each side of the soft palate
pharyngeal tonsils: nasopharynx (throat)
lingual tonsils: back of tongue
288
What are four functions of the spleen?
produces leukocytes and antibodies, destroys old red blood cells, stores red blood cells, filters wastes
289
What is the thymus?
a mass of lymph tissue, produces antibodies, creates lymphocytes to stave off infection
290
What are the two types of immunity?
Active: protection by EXPOSURE (vaccine)
Passive: protection by literally being given antibodies (MOTHER)
291
What is adenitis?
inflammation of lymph nodes, large quantities of harmful substances enter the lymph nodes
292
What is Class B?
early symptomatic HIV infection
293
What is Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
chronic, malignant cancer (tumor of lymph nodes), fever, weight loss, fatigue
294
What is lupus?
chronic and autoimmune, 15-40 for women, symptoms: fatigue, fever, cold sensitivity, butterfly rash
90% women
295
What is mononucleosis?
virus (frequently Epstein-Barr virus), kissing disease because it spreads through saliva, fever/sore throat/fatigue
296
What is splenomegaly?
enlargement of the spleen, infection mononucleosis, cirrhosis, lymphoma can all enlarge spleen
297
What are the seven parts of the respiratory system?
nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli, lungs
298
How is the nose structured?
two openings called nostrils/nares, separated by the nasal septum into nasal cavities
299
What are the three sections of the pharynx?
nasopharynx - upper portion
oropharynx - middle portion
laryngopharynx - bottom portion
300
How is the larynx structured?
nine layers of cartilage, voice box, between pharynx and trachea, largest cartilage layer = Adam's apple, contains two folds called vocal cords, contains the epiglottis (prevent food from getting into respiratory tract)
301
What is a pleura?
sac that a lung is enclosed in
302
What is ventilation?
process of breathing
303
What is emphysema?
noninfectious, chronic respiratory condition - walls of alveoli deteriorate and lose their elasticity
304
What is epistaxis?
nosebleed, capillaries become congested and bleed
305
What is lung cancer?
leading cause of cancer death in men and women, main cause is exposure to carcinogens in tobacco, smoking
306
What is pleurisy?
inflammation of pleura
307
What is rhinitis?
inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane, resulting in a runny nose/watery eyes/sneezing
308
What is sleep apnea?
individual stops breathing while they sleep (obstructive SA = blockage, central SA = respiratory disorder)
309
What is the alimentary canal?
long, muscular tube that begins at the mouth, ingestion - absorption - absorption - excretion is carried out (four basic digestive processes)
310
What is the buccal cavity? How many pairs of salivary glands are there?
the mouth, 3 (parotid and sublingual and submandibular)
311
The vermiform appendix is attached to what part of the large intestine?
cecum
312
What is an impaction?
large, hard mass of fecal material lodged in the intestine or rectum
313
What is a hilum?
an indented region on a kidney where the ureter, nerves, and blood vessels enter and leave
314
What is the external opening to the ureter?
urinary meatus
315
What is pyelonephritis?
a type of UTI, inflammation of kidney tissue and renal pelvis, usually caused by pyogenic (pus-forming) bacteria
316
What is renal calculus?
a kidney stone
317
What is uremia?
urea in the blood (usually means kidney failure)
318
What are the two types of glands?
exocrine (secretes substances into ducts) and endocrine (secrete substances directly into the bloodstream)
319
Where is the pituitary gland located?
"master gland", located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica
320
What is acromegaly?
over-secretion of somatotropin in an adult, usually caused by a benign tumor of the pituitary
ENLARGEMENT OF FOREHEAD, HANDS, FEET
321
What is gigantism?
over-secretion of somatotropin, tall, mental retardation
322
What is diabetes insipidus?
caused by decreased secretion of somatotropin or ADH, polyuria, excessive thirst (polydipsia)
323
What are the 7 life stages?
infant - birth to 1 year
early childhood: 1 - 6 yrs
late childhood: 6-12 yrs
adolescence: 12-18 yrs
early adulthood: 19-40 yrs
middle adulthood: 40-65 yrs
324
When do the most dramatic life changes in development occur?
first year of life
325
How many words does a 6 year old know?
1500-2500 (very verbal, want to know how to read and write)
326
What are some signs of autism?
avoiding eye contact, persistent repetition of words/movements
327
What is the male climacteric?
when men experience a slowing hormone production over time
328
What is Maslow's Hierarchy?
the lower needs should be met before higher needs (physiological, safety, love, self esteem, self-actualization -- obtaining full potential)
329
What are 10 defense mechanisms (unconscious acts that help people deal with unpleasant events)?
rationalization, projection (placing blame on someone else), displacement (transferring feelings), compensation (substituting one thing for another), daydreaming, repression (unconscious transfer into back of mind), suppression (aware transfer into back of mind), regression, denial, withdrawal
330
What is gerontology?
scientific study of aging
331
What are some effects of aging on
1. integumentary
2. muscular/skeletal
3. respiratory
4. ocular
5. digestive
6. excretory
1. sebaceous and sudoriferous (oil and sweat) glands decrease, hair loses color
2. osteoporosis and arthritis
3. emphysema and bronchitis
4. cataracts and glaucoma
5. dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
6. nocturia (urine at night), incontinence (inability to control urination)
332
What is delirium?
confusion or disorientation is a TERMPORARY/NORMAL CONDITION caused by a treatable condition
333
What is Alzheimer's disease?
a form of dementia, lack of neurotransmitters (maybe a genetic, missing enzyme, toxic effects of aluminum???)
334
What is ethnicity?
classification of people according to national origin/culture
335
Some ethnic groups...
ASIAN AMERICAN
AFRICAN AMERICAN
HISPANIC
EUROPEAN
Australian, Cambodian, Indian, Guam, Indonesia
Dominican Republic, Haiti, Jamaica
Cuba, Mexico, Spain
Austria, Czech Republic, Denmark, England, France
336
What is a nuclear family? What is an extended family?
one or two parents and children
+ grandparents, aunts, uncles
337
What are 4 religious beliefs?
Amish: God the Father, Jesus Christ, the Holy Spirit, Bible, body buried in coffin
Baptism: God the Father, Jesus Christ, the Holy Spirit, Bible, agree with medical intervention
Buddhism: reincarnation, suffering inevitable
Islam: body turned to mecca after death, Allah is supreme
338
What is an atheist and agnostic?
person who does not believe in any deity
person who believes that existence of God cannot be proved or disproved
339
How many glasses of water a day should a person drink?
6-8 glasses
340
What are some MyPlate guidelines for meat, veggies, fruit, cheese, fat?
palm of hand of meat
fist of veggies
thumb of cheese
half-thumb of fat
341
What is a guideline to maintain weight?
15 calories/pound per day
342
What is a liquid diet?
clear and full liquids (carbs and water, apple/grape juices, tea)
343
What are low-cholesterol diets used for?
for people with atherosclerosis and heart disease
344
What are bland diets?
easily digested foods that don't irritate the digestive tract, gastric disorders, colitis
345
What is ergonomics?
an applied science used to promote an individual's safety and well-being
346
What is the relationship between records and files?
multiple records in a file
347
What is HIE?
a national health information exchange to allow healthcare agencies to transfer patient electronic health records (EHR)
348
What are some examples of cardiac tests?
electrocardiogram, exercise stress test (exercising heart rate), nuclear stress test (thallium given intravenously to track heart condition), dobutamine/adenosine stress test (exercise test but without actual exercise)
349
What are 3 examples of imaging devices?
Computerized Tomography (CT): X-ray to see cross sections of bone and body tissues and to find tumors
MRI: more easy to see tumors, blood moving through veins, reactions, metal reactions w/ magnets
PET: cancer, metastasis, tumor size
Ultrasonography: ultrasounds for tumors, aneurysms, babies!!!
Computer-aided detection (CADe): uses AI to detect disease (breast tissue cancers, calcification, abnormal tumors)
350
What are the two major types of radiation therapy?
external-beam (photon beams to kill cancer cells by destroying DNA) and brachytherapy (radioactive isotopes in pellets)
351
How are pulse oximeters used?
placed on a finger or heel for an infant
352
What is telemedicine?
use of video, audio, and computer systems to provide medical or health care services
353
What are firewalls?
protective programs that limit the ability of other computers to access a computer
354
When is ___ used?
addition
subtraction
multiplication
division
fractions
supplies, oral intake, adding IV intake
determining weight loss/gain, pulse deficit
payroll hours, lab tests, magnification power of a microscope
diets, cost per item, statistics, lab tests
height and weight, solutions, dosages, infant head circumference
355
What are some roman symbols?
I - 1
II - 2
III -3
IV - 4
V - 5
X - 10
L - 50
C - 100
D - 500
M - 1000,
if small placed before large, subtraction (IX, IL)
same numeral cannot be repeated three times in a row
XXX = 30
XXXX not 40, XL = 40
356
What angles should 4 specific injections be given?
intramuscular: 90*
subcutaneous: 45*
intravenous: 25*
intradermal: 10-15*
357
How is drop labeled in nomenclature?
gtt
358
What are some common equivalents?
GTT TO t
t to T
T to oz
oz to C
C to pt
pt to qt
qt to gal
60 gtt = 1 t (teaspoon), 3 t = 1 T (tablespoon), 2 T = 1 oz, 8 oz = 1 C, 2 C = 1 pt, 2 pt = 1 qt, 4 qt = 1 gal
359
What is the apothecary system?
oldest and least used of the three systems of measurement, 1 minim = 1 drop, 60 minim = 1 fl dr (fluid-dram), 8 fl dr = 1 fl oz (fluid ounce), 16 fl oz = 1 pt
360
How many mL in a tsp? How many mL in an oz? How many mL in a pt?
5, 30, 500 (473 exactly)
361
How many ounces in a kilogram? How many pounds in a kilogram?
35.2 oz, 2.2 lb
362
How to convert F to C?
(F-32)* 5/9 = C
363
What is the 12th hour and 24th hour on Military Time?
12:00 AM - 24th 2400
12:00 PM - 12th 1200
last two digits are minute (5:31 AM ) = (0531)
(5:31 PM) = (1731)
364
80% of cancerous brain tumors are...
gliomas
365
Why is using good body mechanics important (4 reasons)?
muscles work best when used correctly, makes lifting/pushing easier, saves energy and prevents fatigue, prevents injury
366
What are eight basic body mechanics rules?
maintain a good base of support, bend from hips/knees (not at waist), use strongest muscles (shoulders, upper arms, hips and thighs), weight of your body = useful, heavy objects close to body, don't twist, don't bend for long periods, get help with mechanical lifts
367
The Occupation Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals Standard requires...
employers inform employees of all chemicals and hazards in the workplace
368
What are Safety Data Sheets? How many sections are there?
16 sections to locate and understand info about handling hazardous chemicals
369
What is the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard?
protecting health care providers from diseases caused by exposure to body fluids (CDC guidelines)
EXAMPLES: urine, blood, semen, stool, cerebrospinal fluid, saliva, mucus
370
What three diseases can be contracted by body fluid exposure?
hepatitis B, hepatitis C, AIDS
371
Where is mercury used?
How should mercury NOT be disposed?
Mercury is used in dental offices, older sphygmomanometers, Bible, , glass thermometers.
Children, under six are very susceptible.
Vacuum cleaners or brooms should NEVER BE USED. Mercury should NEVER BE POURED DOWN A TOILET.
372
National Fire Protection Association's 704M label....
DIAMOND SHAPE
FLAMMABILITY HAZARD -- TOP
4 - very flammable
0 - will not burn
REACTIVITY HAZARD -- MIDDLE RIGHT
4 - may detonate
0 - stable
HEALTH HAZARD - MIDDLE EFT
4 - deadly
0 - normal materials
SPECIFIC HAZARD -- BOTTOM
oxy - oxidizer
cor - corrosive
373
What three things do fires need to start?
oxygen, fuel, heat
374
What is the major cause of fires?
unattended cooking fires
375
What are the four classes of fire extinguishers?
A: used on fires involving combustibles - paper, cloth, plastic and wood
B: used on fires involving flammable, gasoline, oil, paint
C: electrical fires such as fuse boxes
D: specific for types of metals
K: burning cooking materials and fats and greases
376
What are the 5 different types of fire extinguishers?
Water - Class A
CO2 - Class B or Class C
Dry chemical - Class A, B, C
Class K = (dry and wet chemical)
Halon - Class C
377
What is RACE?
Fire Emergency Plan (Rescue, Activate alarm, Contain fire, Extinguish)
378
Diplococci bacteria cause...
gonorrhea, meningitis, pneumonia
379
Streptococci bacteria cause...
severe sore throat, rheumatic fever, Strep A (flesh-eating strep)
380
Diseases caused by bacilli...
cause tuberculosis, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), botulism, diptheria
381
Diseases caused by spirilla are...
syphilis and cholera
382
What diseases do yeasts cause?
ringworm, athlete's foot, yeast vaginitis, thrush (mouth white)
383
What are rickettsiae?
parasitic microorganisms (cannot live outside the cells of another organism), cause typhus fever
384
What diseases do viruses cause?
common cold, measles, mumps, chicken pox, herpes, warts, influenza, polio
385
What is the West Nile virus?
mosquito-born flavivirus that first infected birds but now infects humans
386
What is monkeypox?
a hantavirus that affects monkeys, other primates, rodents -- flu-like symptoms
387
What is H5N1? What is H1N1?
bird flu, swine flu
388
What is another name for hepatitis B?
serum hepatitis
389
What are helminths?
multicellular parasites commonly called worms or flukes (hookworms in heart muscle), trichinella spiralis
390
What is endogenous vs exogenous?
infection originates within the body
infection originates outside the body
391
What are opportunistic infections?
candidasis (yeast), Kaposi's sarcoma (cancer)
392
What are fomites?
objects contaminated with infectious material that contains the pathogen
393
What does sterile mean?
free from all organisms, both pathogenic and nonpathogenic
394
What are 2 common antiseptics?
alcohol, benadine
395
What are some high-priority agents?
smallpox (variola virus), anthrax (bacterial), plague (Yersinia pestis), botulism, tularemia (no vaccine yet), hemorrhagic fever (filovirus)
396
How should one wash their hands?
fingertips downward, soup and warm water, friction, dry paper towels to turn off faucet
397
What is the Needlestick Safety Act?
identify and use safer medical devices that retract or have sliding sheaths, maintain an injury log
398
What are standard precautions?
rules developed by the CDC to prevent infection
handwashing, gloves (rings removed), gowns, masks and eye protection, sharps (container to discard sharp objects), spills/splashes (10% bleach), resuscitation device (to avoid mouth-to-mouth), waste and linen-disposal, injuries
399
What is an autoclave?
piece of equipment that uses steam under pressure and gas to sterilize equipment
400
What is an autoclave? Facts, temperature...
piece of equipment that uses steam under pressure and gas to sterilize equipment
autoclave indicators will be used to ensure articles have been sterilized and articles will be wrapped before autoclaved
320-350*F
401
Why is chemical sterilization an inaccurate term?
chemicals do not cause complete sterilization but rather cold disinfection
402
What is cavitation?
bubbles striking an item and the item exploding
403
The __ inch border around the sterile fields is considered contaminated.
2
404
What are three common techniques to remove items from sterile wraps?
drop technique (gauzes, dressings)
mitten technique (bowls)
transfer forceps (really small items)
405
What is a communicable disease?
disease caused by a pathogenic organism that can easily be transmitted to others
406
What does "clean" mean?
The object does not contain disease-producing organisms.
407
What patient should droplet precautions be followed by?
patient coughing, sneezing, talking
408
What is protective or reverse isolation?
mainly for immunocompromised patients, patient protects themselves
409
What are the five main vital signs?
temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, pain
410
How can temperature be measured by?
mouth (oral), rectum (rectal), armpit (axillary), ear (aural), temporal (across forehead)
axillary and groin temps are external and not very accurate
rectal temps are accurate
411
What is pulse? What is rate?
pressure of the blood against the wall of an artery, rate = number of beats / minute, rhythm = regularity
apical pulse = apex of the heart
412
What do respirations reflect?
breathing rate of the patient
413
What is pyrexia? What is hyperthermia?
fever, temp exceeds 104*F
febrile -- fever present
afebrile -- fever not present
414
What are the different types of thermometers?
Clinical: mercury
Electronic: most commonly used
Tympanic: to record aural temperature
415
How do you record temperature?
temperature recorded to nearest two-tenths of degree, 98.6 recorded to 98^6, 100.2 recorded to 100^2
R for rectum, Ax for axillary, A for aural, TA for temporal
416
What are some major arterial sites to get pulse?
temporal (forehead), carotid (neck), radial (wrist), popliteal (behind the knee)
PULSE IS USUALLY TAKEN OVER RADIAL ARTERY
417
What is bradycardia? What is tachycardia?
<60 beats per minute, >100 beats per minute
418
What three facts are noted when respiration is taken?
rate, character, rhythm
419
What is orthopnea?
severe dyspnea, breathing is difficult in any position other than sitting or standing
420
What is Cheyne-Stokes?
abnormal breathing pattern (dyspnea, apnea), noted in dying patients
421
What are rales?
bubbling/cracking noisy sounds by fluid in chest
422
What is wheezing?
difficult breathing with a high-pitched whistling, narrowing of bronchioles
423
What is a pulse deficit?
a condition that occurs when the heart is too weak to pump enough blood for a pulse
APICAL - RADIAL = PULSE DIFICIT
424
What are the two types of blood pressure measurements?
systolic = left ventricle contracting
diastolic = left ventricle at rest
PULSE PRESSURE = systolic - diastolic
425
What is elevated blood pressure?
systolic: 120-129 AND diastolic < 80
426
When may hypertension occur (4 reasons)?
heart failure, dehydration, depression, burns
427
What are the three main types of sphygmomanometers?
mercury, aneroid, electronic
brachial artery used
428
What is the first step to first aid?
recognize when an emergency exists
429
When to call EMS when alone...
unconscious adult, child after puberty, infant with high risk of heart problems, victim with cardiac arrest
430
When to start CPR?
infant or child before puberty, victim of submersion or drowning, victim with cardiac arrest caused by drug overdose or trauma
FIVE CYCLES -- 2 MIN
431
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
breath for person and circulate blood
432
What are the two types of deaths?
clinical death: heart stops beating and victim stops breathing
biological death: 4-6 min after clinical death and brain damage
433
What is the CPR sequence?
C: circulation
A: airway
B: breathing
D: defibrillation
434
How to help choking?
if conscious and able to talk/breathe, encourage them to cough hard
if conscious but not able to talk/breathe, abdominal thrust
435
What are the 6 types of open wounds?
what is abrasion, incision, laceration, puncture, avulsion, amputation
abrasion: scrape
incision: knife, scissors
laceration: tearing of tissue
puncture: little hole
avulsion: tissue is separated
amputation: limb torn away
436
What is the difference between arterial and venous blood during bleeding?
spurts from a wound, heavy blood loss, bright red
MORE THREATENING
dark reed, slow, steady
437
What are four steps taken to help bleeding victims?
direct pressure, elevation, pressure bandage, tourniquet
438
What is shock known as?
Hypoperfusion
439
What is diaphoresis?
excessive perspiration
440
What to do if poisoning occurs?
call a poison control center, save the substance taken, save a sample of vomitus, estimate how much time was taken for poisoning to occur
441
What is a commonly inhaled poison?
carbon monoxide
442
How to treat contact poisoning?
wash with soap and water, apply corticosteroid cream
443
What NOT to do for snake bite and spider bite?
do not cut the wound or apply a tourniquet
444
What are the three types of burns?
1st degree - top layer (epidermis) only, reddened/discolored
2nd degree - epidermis AND dermis, blister or vesicle forms, 3-4 weeks to heal
3rd degree - all layers of skin, extremely painful/painless if nerve endings are destroyed, white/charred
445
What is the rule of nines?
To calculate what percent of body surface burned (one leg = 9%, chest = 18%)
446
How to treat burns?
APPLY WATER, NOT ICE.
APPLY DRY DRESSING.
no cotton or tissues.
447
How to treat frostbite?
immerse in warm water
448
What are some signs of fractures?
deformity, limited motion, pain and tenderness, swelling
449
What is a dislocation?
end of the bone is displaced from a joint or moved
450
What is a sprain?
injury to TISSUES surrounding a joint
451
How to make a good splint?
long, padded, applied so no pressure
452
How to get things out of eyes?
draw upper lid over lower lid to stimulate tears, use water to flush eye
453
How to treat brain injury (3 reasons)?
DON'T STOP FLUID FROM NOSE/EARS.
VICTIM FLAT.
NO LIQUIDS.
454
What are three chest injuries?
sucking chest wound: deep, chest, allows for breathing
penetrating items: DON'T REMOVE
crushing chest: elevate to aid breathing, don't move too much
455
How to check for a stroke?
FAST.
face, arms, speech, time
F: ask to smile
A: ask to raise both arms
S: ask to speak
T: call 911 immediately
456
What is a convulsion?
strong, involuntary contraction of muscles -- type of seizure
457
What is a dressing?
sterile covering placed over a wound or injured part
458
What are bandages?
materials used to hold dressings in place
TYPES -- ROLLER GAUZE, TRIANGULAR, ELASTIC
circulation should be there, no blue color
459
What is an externship?
unpaid, required as part of a health science education program, set up by an instructor
460
What are 6 job-seeking skills?
use good grammar, report on time, be prepared to work, practice teamwork, accept responsibility, be willing to learn
461
How to write a cover letter?
1. purpose for writing
2. why you are qualified
3. resume is included
4. request for an interview
3-4 paragraphs
462
When filling out an application form on paper, what color should one use? How many references?
BLACK PEN
at least 3
463
How to be prepared for job interview?
dress conservatively (slacks, business suit, ties), hair clean, antiperspirant, 5-10 min early, maintain eye contact
464
What are two documents to provide certification that you can work?
Employment Eligibility Verification + birth certificate/passport/immigration card
465
What is the difference between gross income and net income?
gross - total
net - "take home" after all payroll deductions, taxes
466
Budgeting?
House - 20-35%
Food - 15-30%
Utilities- 4-7%
Clothing - 3-10%
