Basic Pharmacology Review with Antidotes Flashcards
(134 cards)
0
Q
Antidote for OD on APAP/Tylenol
A
Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
1
Q
Hepatotoxicity with acute OD
A
APAP, Tylenol
3
Q
Non-narcotic analgesic
A
Acetaminophen
4
Q
Has no anti-inflammatory properties
A
APAP/Tylenol
5
Q
name 3 generic drugs that are NSAIDS
A
Aspiring (ASA), Motrin, Advil
6
Q
Dose for antiplatelet properties with daily dosing
A
typically 81-325mg
7
Q
NSAIDS therapeutic properties
A
inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and thromboxane (stops platelet aggregation)
8
Q
SE for NSAIDS
A
Dizziness, confusion, tinnitus, epistaxis, N/V, GI bleed, bruising, gastritis, edema
9
Q
Drug profiles for Narcotic analgesics
A
Morphine Sulfate, Meperidine, Methadone
10
Q
MOA-Narcotics
A
Binds to opioid receptors to decrease pain perception
11
Q
SE-Narcotics
A
Confusion, euphoria, sedation, pupil constriction, RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION, impaired coordination, N/V, urinary retention, constipation, physical and psychological dependence
12
Q
Effect that narcotics produce to the eyes
A
constriction-miosis
13
Q
2 things that are vital to assess before giving narcotics
A
respiratory rate and patient’s pain perception
14
Q
What should you evaluate during the administration of narcotics
A
the effectiveness of medication given
15
Q
Antidote for narcotic OD (give generic and trade)
A
naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
16
Q
CNS agents (5 total)
A
Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, antiepileptics, antiepileptics/ Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics
17
Q
MOA-barbiturates and their ending
A
potentiates GABA (-barbital)
18
Q
CNS agent that promotes sleep/calm anxiety and their ending
A
benzodiazepines (-lams and -pams)
19
Q
classification of Phenytoin (Dilantin) and dose range
A
benzodiazepine, 10-20
20
Q
used as mood stabilizer
A
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
21
Q
prototype-anti-epileptics
A
phenytoin (Dilantin)
22
Q
given for gingival hyperplasia
A
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
23
Q
antiepileptic- phenytoin may only be given how?
A
IV- only in NS and administered slowly
24
Q
3 drugs-anti-epileptics/mood stabilizers
A
carbamazepine (Tegretol), valproic acid (Depakote), gabapentine (Neurotin)
25
ending for antipsychotics
-azine
26
MOA-anti-diabetic (insulin)
insulin binds to receptor sites on cells and allows glucose to enter the cell for energy
27
SE-anti-diabetics
hypoglycemia, ketoacidosis
28
Drug profiles for anti-diabetic agents (6)
Insulin, sulfonylureas, biguanides, thiazolidinediones, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, meglitinides
29
essential to know before administering anti-diabetics
onset, peak, and duration (also patients last glucose level)
30
nursing considerations with anti-diabetics
roll gently, rapid first only IV, monitor blood sugar
31
classification of Digoxin (Lanoxin)
cardiac glycoside
32
prototype used for Congestive Heart Failure and/ A-Fib
Digoxin (Lanoxin)
33
MOA-digoxin (2 effects on the heart)
positive inotrope, negative chronotrope
34
SE-digoxin
bradycardia, arrhythmias, visual disturbances, HA, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, GI upset, N/D
35
Hypokalemia can increase toxicity with which drug
digoxin (Lanoxin)
36
Dose range for dig
0.5-2.0 mg/mL
37
What must you check before administering digoxin
heart rate (60-100)
38
Antidote for digoxin
Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind)
39
MOA-beta blockers
blocks effects of SNS at beta receptor sites
40
SE-beta blockers
dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia, heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, and rash
41
Antidote for Beta-blocker overdose
glucagon
42
must obtain before administration of beta blockers
heart rate and B/P
43
monitor with beta-blockers
HR&B/P, I&O, wt
44
classification of lidocaine (Xylocaine)
sodium channel blocker
45
SE-sodium channel blocker
drowsiness, v-tach, heart block, HTN, bradycardia
46
monitor with administration of lidocaine (Xylocaine)
ECG
47
2 calcium channel blockers that do not have the ending -dipine
diltiazem (Cardizem), verapamil (Calan)
48
SE- calcium channel blockers
hypotension, bradycardia, peripheral edema
49
Nursing considerations-calcium channel blockers
monitor pulse and blood pressure
50
antidote for calcium channel blocker OD
Glucagon
51
nitrates SE
postural hypotension, HA, tachycardia
52
nursing consideration for why nitroglycerin isn't taken PO but SL
large first pass effect
53
centrally acting agents MOA
binds to alpha 2 receptor sites and decreases outflow of the SNS from the brain
54
drug-centrally acting agents
clonidine (Catapres)
55
Alpha 1 Blockers ending
-zosin
56
classification (s) for alpha 1 blockers
anti-hypertensive and BPH
57
ACE inhibitors ending
-prils
58
ACE inhibitors MOA
inhibits the ACE in the lungs and prevents the formation of angiotensin II, this stops vasoconstriction and aldosterone
59
SE-ACE inhibitors
CAPTOPRIL-cough, angioedema, proteinuria, taste change, orthostatic hypotension, pruritus, renal failure/rash, increased potassium, liver toxicity/leukopenia
60
angiotensin II blockers ending
-sartans
61
Angiotensin II blockers MOA
binds to angiotensin II receptor sites
62
Diuretics MOA
inhibit the reabsorption of Na and H2O
63
what lab level must be checked before administering a diuretic?
potassium
64
name a loop diuretic
furosemide (Lasix)
65
loop diuretics ending
-amide
66
name a potassium-sparing diuretic
spirolactone (Aldactone)
67
name a thiazide diuretic
HCTZ
68
heparin is a drug affecting what
coagulation (its an anticoagulant)
69
what must you monitor in a patient while he is on heparin?
monitor PTT
70
what is the antidote for heparin?
protamine sulfate
71
enoxaparin is the generic name for what drug
Lovenox
72
the anti-coagulant warfarin-sodium (Coumadin) must be given with monitoring what 2 things?
monitor PT/INR
73
What is the antidote for warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?
vitamin K
74
side effect that's associated with anticoagulants?
hemorrhage
75
name 3 antiplatelets
ASA, dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid)
76
name an anti-fibrinolytic
aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
77
name two thrombolytics generic and trade name
streptokinase (Streptase) and alteplase (Activase)
78
what is identifying organisms and the drugs that kill the bugs?
culture and sensitivity
79
where is normal flora located?
oropharynx (bacteria, fungi, protozoa), upper and lower intestine, lower GU tract, conjunctive and skin.
80
what are microbial agents that prevent pathogens from causing infection when normal flora are killed during broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.
normal flora
81
name two drug resistant organisms
MRSA, VRE
82
antibiotics (8)
```
penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
macrolides
quinolones
sulfonamides
```
83
anti-tubercular that prevent peripheral neuritis
isoniazid (INH) and pyridoxine (Vit B6)
84
side effects for aminoglycosides (antibiotic)
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
85
name 4 anti-tuberculars
ethambutol (Myambutol), pyrazinamide, rifampin, streptomycin
86
anti-viral agents for influenza A
amantadine and rimantadine
87
anti-viral agent for HSV
acyclovir (Zovirax)
88
anti-viral agents for CMV
cidofovir, ganciclovir, foscarnet
89
bone marrow suppressor that was the first anti-HIV medication inhibiting WBC, limiting HIV presence in the body (nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor)
zidovudine (AZT)
90
two drugs that are classified as non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
delavirdine (rescriptor) and nevirapine (viramune)
91
antivirals that are classified as protease inhibitors
saquinavir (Invirase), ritonavir (Norvir), indinavir (Crixivan)
92
ending-anti-fungal agents
-azole
93
name 4 anti-fungal agents
griseofulvin, amphotericin B, diflucan (Fluconazole), Nystatin
94
GI drug that neutralizes gastric acid
antacids
95
magnesium is well known to cause
diarrhea
96
Calcium and aluminum causes
constipation
97
antacids should be avoided in what patient population?
renal patients
98
drug antagonist that binds to H2 receptor sites to decrease HCL acid production and its ending
H2 antagonist(-tidine)
99
drug classification that blocks all HCL acid production and its ending
proton pump inhibitors (-prazole)
100
this drug classification is contraindicated in AAC
anti-diarrheals
101
this drug class form a bulk stool and are safest and most natural
laxatives
102
what is an agent given to counteract the effects of poison?
antidote
103
name the medication (inhaled form) that is mainly used as a mucolytic agent to help liquefy respiratory mucous secretions.
acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
104
unlabeled use of this drug can be given before potentially nephrotoxic exposure occurs to prevent kidney damage
acetylcysteine
105
MOA-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
protects the liver by maintaining cell function and preventing acetaminophen metabolites
106
List the standard maximum daily dose of APAP
3,000 mg/daily
107
treatment must be given for OD on APAP within ___hours of ingestion
24
108
whats the initial loading dose of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
140 mg/kg
109
after the initial dose of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) (140 mg/kg), how many doses after are given and of how many mg/kg every how many hours?
17 doses
| 70 mg/kg/every 4 hours
110
IV form for the antidote: acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Acetado
111
Acetado is most effective if given within __hours of OD with acetaminophen
10
112
Acetado (IV form antidote for APAP OD) can be given up to __ hours after OD
24
113
Adverse reactions with activated charcoal (Actidose)
black stools, nausea, constipation, intestinal obstruction
114
follow charcoal (Actidose) administration with what treatment that does not contain what ingredient?
stool softener or laxative without the ingredient: sorbitol
115
MOA: anti-fibrinolytic
treats excessive bleeding from surgery or overactivation of fibrinolytic system
116
AR: anti-fibrinolytic
dizziness, seizures, thrombosis, renal failure
117
nursing considerations with aminocaproic acid
monitor coagulation studies
118
the patient must have the ability to do what when given an anti-fibrinolytic?
ability to clot
119
a chelating agent binds to what?
iron
120
deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal) is the antidote for what acute intoxication?
acute iron intoxication
121
MOA: deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
combines with iron in bowel lumen and prevents absorption
122
adjunctive tx of acute iron intoxication
chelating agent
123
what are the leading cause of poison death in children less than 6 years?
Iron pills
124
what antidote is a benzodiazepine antagonist?
flumazenil (Romazicon)
125
two specific antidotes mentioned that need to be monitored for resedation
narcan and rimantidin
126
AR: deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
blurred vision, diarrhea, hypersensitivity reactions/ anaphylaxis
127
you must monitor this type of patient with impaired renal function during the administration of which drug?
deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
128
digoxin immune FAB (Digibind) is used for what
OD of dig. severe bradycardia, advanced heart block, ventricular tachycardia or v-fib, and severe hyperkalemia
129
AR:digibind
heart failure, rapid ventricular rate, hypersensitivity reaction, anaphylaxis
130
what must you monitor with digibind?
potassium level
131
what is the parenteral form fo digibind?
40 mg/vial
132
disulfiram (Antabuse) inhibits the enzyme that converts _____________to ________ ________
acetaldehyde to acetic acid
133
AR: disulfiram (Antabuse)
drowsiness, impotence, disulfiram reaction with ethanol use, flushing, HA, dyspnea, nausea, copious vomiting, diaphoresis, thirst, confusion, anxiety, hypotension, severe respiratory/cardiovascular collapse, fatal MI
134
nursing consideration with disulfiram (Antabuse)
avoid sources of alcohol for 14 days after the last dose. never give without a pt's knowledge.
